FORM SIX BIOLOGY NECTA 2020

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL OF TANZANIA

ADVANCED CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION 

EXAMINATION

133/1 BIOLOGY 1

(For Both School and Private Candidates)

Time: 3 Hours Year: 2020

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of ten (10) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and two (2) questions from section B.
  3. Section A carries seventy (70) marks and section B carries thirty (30) marks.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (70 Marks)

Answer all questions from this section. Each question carries ten (10) marks

1. (a) Draw the structure of a generalised plant cell as seen under electron microscope and use roman numbers to label only the parts which are associated with the following roles: 

  1. Strengthening of the cell
  2. Controlling the exchange between the cell and its environment
  3. Provision of energy
  4. Protein synthesis
  5. Manufacture of food
  6. Controlling of cell activities.

(b) Identify four structures which are found in plant cells but not in animal cells.

(c) How are the following processes important to a cell?

  1. Phagocytosis
  2. Pinocytosis
  3. Exocytosis.
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2. (a) (i) Identify three types of nerve cells.

(ii) State the role(s) of each nerve cell identified in 2 (a) (i).

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(b) Give a reason to support the fact that giant axons conduct impulses at greater velocities than thin axons.

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3. (a) (i) What is the scientific name of human being?

(ii) List hierarchically the major classification taxa.

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(b) (i) Why are Animal, Plant, Protoctista and Fungi considered to be Eukaryote Kingdoms while bacteria are considered to be Kingdom Prokaryotae?

(ii) State five rules that a biologist should follow in binomial nomenclature.

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4. (a) Giving reason, state a part in the body of a mammal where large number of the following organelles are found:

  1. Lysosomes
  2. Microbodies.
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(b) What will happen if each of the following organelles is severely damaged? Give four points in each.

  1. Nucleus
  2. Lysosome
  3. Vacuole
  4. Endoplasmic reticulum.
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5. Give explanation to support the following facts:

  1. A placenta is a structure for excretion, digestion and respiration of a foetus.
  2. Removal of ovaries from a three months pregnant woman does not result to abortion.
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6. (a) How do the following structures relate to their digestive role? 

  1. Columnar epithelium of the stomach.
  2. Columnar epithelium of the small intestine.
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(b) Giving two points, briefly describe the role of liver in digestion.

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7. (a) What is respiratory quotient?

(b) What information does each of the following respiratory quotients (RQ) carry? Give two points.

  1. RQ = 1.0 
  2. RQ = 0.9 
  3. RQ = 0.7
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(c) A baby was born with its lungs lacking surfactant. In three points, briefly describe the respiratory problem that the baby will experience.

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SECTION B (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section. Each question carries fifteen (15) marks.

8. Study the following Figure and answer the questions that follow.

image

(a) (i) Name the processes represented by letters A and B respectively.

(ii) What does each of the letters X and Y represent?

(iii) In two points, explain what will happen if each of the processes labeled A and B is impaired.

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(b) In seven points, explain the importance of fermentation processes to human beings.

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9. (a) State where and when meiosis takes place in each of the following organisms:

  1. Moss plant.
  2. Angiosperms.
  3. Mammals.
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(b) The number of chromosomes in the radicle of certain species of flowering plant is 16. Evaluate the number of chromosomes in the following cells:

  1. Pollen tube nucleus
  2. Antipodal cell
  3. Endosperm
  4. Pollen mother cell.
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(c) Describe how each of the following parts of human reproductive system is adapted to its function: 

  1. Uterus
  2. Cervix
  3. Ovaries.
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10. With the aid of a diagram, describe the mechanism of transport of manufactured food in phloem based on Munch’s mass flow hypothesis.

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THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA NATIONAL EXAMINATION COUNCIL OF TANZANIA

ADVANCED CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION

 133/2 BIOLOGY 2

(For Both Private and School Candidates)

Duration: 3 Hour Year: 2020

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of six(06) questions.
  2. Answer five(05) questions
  3. Each question carries twenty(20) marks.
  4. All writing must be in black or blue ink except drawings which must be in pencil
  5. Communication devices and any unauthorized are not allowed in the examination room
  6. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

1. (a) Euglena has both plant and animal characteristics. Explain its three plant and animal characteristics.

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(b) In seven points, describe the structural adaptations of Euglena to its mode of life.

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2. Describe any six processes which are impaired when the mammalian liver is severely damaged.

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3. Describe three main events which take place in each of the following stages of the cell cycle:

  1. Interphase.
  2. Prophase.
  3. Metaphase.
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4. (a) In four points, explain the usefulness of genetic engineering in different fields.

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(b) When white and black-colored fur mice were mated, all of the F1 had black-colored fur. Carry out genetic crosses to show the formation of F1 and F2.

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5. Describe how vestigial organs, chemical constituents, and physiological processes support evolution among groups of organisms.

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6. (a) Briefly describe how a quadrant is used to estimate population size.

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(b) Describe how a quadrant can be used to estimate population size with respect to species density, species frequency, and species cover.

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