FORM THREE MID-TERM SERIES

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

 FORM THREE ANNUAL EXAMINATION

034 AGRICULTURE  

Time: 3 Hours  NOVEMBER 2025

Instructions

  1. This paper consist of sections A , B and C
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B, and TWO questions in section C
  3. Unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

SECTION A (16 marks)

 1 Multiple choice questions: Choose the letter of the correct answer from the alternatives given and write it beside the item number.

(i) All of the following except one, are the criteria to consider when deciding on the best cropping system to use in a given field.

  1. The best combination of the crop plants
  2. Nature of roots of crop plants
  3. growth habits of the crop plants
  4. Using monoculture in each successive crop rotation
  5. Capacity of plants in using soil nutrients

(ii) In farm management, the agricultural farm is considered as

  1. A unit of crop cultivation and raising livestock
  2. A production unit with fewer enterprises
  3. A unit of crop cultivation and raising livestock
  4. Agricultural activities
  5. A portion of land on which a particular farmer carries out agricultural activities for getting profit.

(iii). A soil which is able to supply the plant with their nutritional requirements adequately is said to be

  1. Infertile soil
  2. Arable soil
  3. Fertile soil
  4. Well drained soil
  5. Deficiency in plant nutrients

(iv). One of the signs of an unhealthy animal is

  1. It responds well to touch
  2. Poor appetite
  3. Having moisten and pale mucus membrane 
  4. Behavior of mounting other animals
  5. Being active and alert.

v. The following is an example of financial factor in livestock production planning

  1. Land availability
  2. Market availability
  3. Social customs and norms
  4. Production cost
  5. Animal breeds

(vi) Which among the following is the best equipment for testing mastitis in milk

  1. Digital thermometer
  2. Analogy thermometer
  3. Strip cup
  4. Milk strainer
  5. Milk bucket

(vii). The expected rewards of entrepreneurship for its contribution to the production process is

  1. Interest
  2. Profit
  3. Economic growth
  4. Wages
  5. Rent

(viii). The fermentation process of roughages takes place mainly in the

  1. Rumen
  2. Reticulum
  3. Omasum
  4. Abomasum
  5. Large intestine

(ix). If the recommended rate of N is 36kg/ha, using a fertilizer with 46% of nitrogen, the amount of fertilizer required will be

  1. 78kg 
  2. 56kg 
  3. 80kg 
  4. 48kg
  5. 70kg

x. The soil which has a pH 5.1-6.0 is described as

  1. Slightly acid
  2. Strongly acid
  3. Slightly alkaline
  4. Extremely acid
  5. Moderately acid

2 Matching items: Match the following items by choosing the letter of the correct statement or phrase from list B which exactly match with the item or phrase in list A and write it beside its item number.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Mexican marigold
  2. Double thorns
  3. Gallant soldier 
  4. Black night shade
  5. Sodom apple 
  6. Thorn apple
  1. Nicandra physalodes
  2. Solanum incanum
  3. Sonchus oleraceus
  4. Solanum nigrum
  5. Galinsoga parviflora
  6. Datra stramonium
  7. Tagetes minuta
  8. Oxygonum sinuatum

SECTION B (54 MARKS) 

3 (a) What do you understand by the term soil pH?

(b) Farmers in a village were advised to carry out soil pH test from their farms. In any four points, explain briefly the importance of carrying out the named task.

4. In decision making process, normally there are basic steps to follow. In seven points enumerate the steps.

5. Form two students would like to establish a poultry production unit around the school. The main challenge they currently facing is poor knowledge about the characteristics of an appropriate poultry housing. In any seven points help your fellows to clear out the challenge.

6. One of the poultry rearing system is cage poultry housing system. This system has many advantages as well as challenges. Use your classroom knowledge to describe the later. Give four points.

7. Livestock keepers in Dodoma are always affected with lack of grasses to feed their cattle during the dry season. As an expert in hay making, use this knowledge to educate them so as they can come out of this challenge. Give four points QN. 8 (a) What do you understand by the term vices as it is used in livestock production?

(b) Enumerate any seven factors that influence feather pecking and cannibalism in poultry.

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

9. Tillage is one of the important parameters in crop production. Justify.

10. Poor livestock health has been a big challenge to many livestock keepers. Describe the main causes of the named challenge.

11. Choice of irrigation method is a step toward getting profit from crop production. Elaborate any six factors you will consider when you want to choose the named management.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE AGRICULTURE EXAM SERIES 255

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE ANNUAL EXAMINATION

051 FOOD AND HUMAN NUTRITION  

Time: 3 Hours November 2025

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C
  2. Attempt all questions from sections A and B and TWO questions from section C

SECTION A

1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the space provided

(i) A person who lacks calcium will not have

  1. good health
  2. strong bones and teeth
  3. a sound mind
  4. strong muscles
  5. a good complexion.

(ii)What is destroyed in an orange when it is left in the open for too long?

  1. juices
  2. water
  3. vitamin C
  4. sugar
  5. vitamin A

(iii)what causes the red colouring in blood?

  1. red dye
  2. the red carrots we eat
  3. haemoglobin
  4. iron
  5. serum

(iv)Vitamin D and protein help the body to absorb one kind of mineral salt. What is this mineral salt?

  1. calcium
  2. iron
  3. potassium
  4. sodium
  5. sulphur

(v) some people claim that pasta is the product of cerial. As an expert identify a specific cereal from which is obtained:

  1. wheat
  2. millet
  3. maize
  4. soghum
  5. Barley

(vi) One of form three students argue that grain has protein. From the knowledge you have clarify to her/him the kind of protein present in wheat.

  1. myosin
  2. Albumen
  3. caseinogen
  4. gluten
  5. zein

(vii) Groundnuts and bacon are usually cooked by this method.

  1. blanching
  2. dry shallow frying
  3. Deep fat frying
  4. shallow fat frying
  5. steaming

(viii)What will be the result if food is put into the oil before it is smoking hot?

  1. the food will take a longer time to cook
  2. the food will become soggy
  3. the food will not be crispy
  4. the food will be insipid

(ix)what part does essence play in cake making?

  1. it adds flavor to the cake
  2. it adds nutrients to the cake
  3. it makes the cake porous
  4. It makes the cake light
  5. it gives colouring to the cake

(x)when a cake mixture has been rubbed too much the cake after baking will be

  1. fluffy
  2. light
  3. heavy
  4. sponge
  5. spring

2.Math the action of food contamination in LIST A with the correct description in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct responses in the space provided

LIST A

LIST B

  1. food spoilage 
  2. food hygiene 
  3. yeast 
  4. natural decay
  5. causative of food infection
  6. prevetion of food spoilage
  1. mostly used in baked products
  2. A process that occur to food causing loss of moisture
  3. must be cleaned before being used to food
  4. lowering temperature of food between 0-42oC to prevent growth of microorganisms 
  5. bedbugs, fungi, virus
  6. bacteria, fungi and virus 
  7. wash hands before handling food
  8. clean working surfaces after food preparation
  9. change in taste ,smerb texture, appearance and not good for human consuption

SECTION B; (59 MARKS)

3 (a) Differentiate food poisoning from food spoilage

(b)Beriefly explain four means by which bacteria can be transferred to food (c)State kitchen hygiene rules to be followed in to maintain food hygiene

4.(a) Classify vitamins according to their solubility

(b)Outline four importance of niacin in the body

(c)explain briefly four functions of minerals in the body.

5. Your mother has the following kitchen utensils, briefly explain the function of each of them.

  1. measuring scale
  2. colander
  3. chopping board
  4. patty tin
  5. casseroles
  6. wire strainer
  7. squeezer
  8. dredger
  9. Mortar and pestle

6.A Cook in a certain restaurant makes a bread mixture and finally gets heavy bread textured. Explain five reasons for the results obtained

7.(a)What is malnutrition?

(b)Differentiate undernutrion from overweight/obesity

(c)Describe four signs and symptoms of each of the following.

  1. Acute malnutrition with oedema
  2. Acute malnutrition without oedema

8. As a Nutritionist from one of district of Iringa region, Educate people through mass media concerning signs of danger during pregnancy and the dangers of early child bearing by explaining four dangers of the each of the two aspects mentioned above.

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer two sections from this section

9.There are some rules to be observed when making pastry in order to get good result. State six rules of pastry making

10.Cake icing and decoration is very important in cake making business;

(a)Explain five importance of cake decoration

(b)State three points to consider in order to get good icing results (c)Briefly explain five rules to follow when making biscuits.

11.People are affected by malnutrition differently depending on their nutritional needs. In details describe only five groups of people mostly affected by malnutrition.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE NUTRITION EXAM SERIES 254

JAMUHURI YA MUUNGANO WA TANZANIA, OFISI YA RAIS TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA 

MTIHANI WA MWISHO WA MUHULA WA PILI

ELIMU YA DINI YA KIISLAMU

KIDATO CHA TATU 

MUDA: SAA 2:30 NOVEMBER 2025

Maelekezo:

  1. Mtihani huu Una sehemu A, B na C
  2. Jibu maswali yote kutoka sehemu zote.
  3. Udanganyifu wa Aina yeyote ni haramu.
  4. Zingatia maelekezo ya kila sehemu na kila swali.
  5. Andika jina lako kamili katika kila ukurasa wa karatasi yako ya majibu. 

SEHEMU A (Alama 16) 

Jibu maswali yote.

1. Katika kipengele i -x chagua jibu sahihi kisha andika herufi ya jibu lako katika kijitabu chako cha kujibia.

SEHEMU A

1.(i) Ni upi mtazamo wa Uislamu juu ya maada ya ‘ibada’?

  1. Ni kufuata amri za Allah zote kwa kuchunga mipaka yake katika maisha ya kila siku
  2. kipengele cha maisha yake ya kila siku kibinafsi na kijamii.
  3. ina maaana ya utumwa
  4. ina maaana ya unyenyekevu 

(ii) Nini maana ya Dini. 

  1. Ni njia ya maisha
  2. Ni mzunguko wa maisha
  3. Ni utaratibu wa wanadamu
  4. Ni mfumo wa maisha ya mwanadamu

(iii) Nini maana ya shirki. 

  1. kulinganish
  2. kufananisha
  3. Shirk ni kinyume cha Upweke au Umoja (Tawhiid)
  4. Ni dhulma kubwa kuliko zote.

(iv) Ni ipi maana halisi ya kumuamini Mwenyezi Mungu (s.w) katika maisha ya kila siku? 

  1. kusali sana na kufunga.
  2. Ni kufuata amri za Allah zote kwa kuchunga mipaka yake katika maisha ya kila siku. 
  3. kutoa zaka ya mali
  4. kwenda kuhiji kwa mwenye uwezo

(v) Matendo ya ibada ya Hijjah.

  1. Twawafu na kusai
  2. kusai na kusoma Qur an
  3. Twawafu na kusali sunnah
  4. kuzuru makkah

(vi) Bainisha nafasi ya Zakat katika Uislamu. 

  1. Ni amri ya Allah
  2. Ni nguzo ya imani
  3. Ni nguzo ya ihsani
  4. ni nguzo ya swala

(vii) Eleza maana ya swaumu kisheria 

  1. Ni amri ya Allah.
  2. ni nguzo ya imani
  3. kujizuia kula na kunywa
  4. kujizuia na kazi

(viii) Wengi wafungao mwezi wa Ramadhan hawafikii malengo ya funga zao. Sababu ya ni ? 

  1. kuto futuru mapema
  2. kuto Sali tarawehe
  3. kuto kula daku
  4. kuto zingatia masharti ya swala

(ix) Miongoni mwa haki katika Uislamu ni. 

  1. Haki za kitaifa
  2. Haki za Viumbe na Mazingira.
  3. Haki za kustarehe
  4. Haki za kutembea

(x) Hii ni haki kisheria ili kuwa mwanafamilia halali.

  1. haki ya nasaba
  2. Haki ya kuishi
  3. Haki ya kujenga
  4. Haki ya urafiki


i

ii

iii

iv

v

vi

vii

viii

ix

x











2. Oanisha kifungu cha maneno kilichopo kutoka ORODHA "A" na kile kinachowiana kutoka ORODHA "B" kisha andika herufi ya jibu lako katika kijitabu chako cha kujibia.

ORODHA A

ORODHA B

  1. Malaika mkuu anaye mhusika na kupeleka wahyi
  2. Kumchunga na Kumlinda kila mtu na kuandika amali zake nzuri na mbaya.
  3. Kutoa roho za viumbe.
  4. Kuzihoji, kuzistarehesha au kuziadhibu roho za wafu kaburini.
  5. Kupuliza Parapanda siku ya Qiyama. 
  6. Kuwaliwaza na kuwakaribisha watu wema peponi.
  1. Mikail
  2. Ridhwani
  3. Israfil
  4. Munkar na Nakir
  5. Malakul Mauti
  6. Raqibu na atidi
  7. Jibril


i

ii

iii

iv

v

vi







SEHEMU B

3. Dhihirisha matunda ya kusimamisha ibada ya swala kikamilifu.

4. . Kwa kutumia ushahidi wa Hadith, onesha hatua tatu za kuondosha uovu katika mazingira ya jamii yako.

5. Orodhesha itikadi ya makundi ya dini za wanaadamu zifuatazo; 

  1. Ukafiri 
  2. Ushirikina 
  3. Utawa

6. Kutokana na ushahidi wa kihistoria, eleza uwepo wa ufufuo baada ya kufa.

7. Ni lipi lengo la kuletwa Mitume na Manabii?

8. Ainisha mafunzo matano yatokanayo na mkataba wa Hudaibiyah kwa muhtasari.

 SEHEMU C

9. Eleza hatua alizochukua Mtume (s.a.w) katika kuihifadhi na kuilinda Qur’an.

10. Mwanaadamu pamoja na ujuzi alionao, hawezi kujiundia mfumo sahihi wa maisha. Thibitisha kauli hii kwa hoja tano tu.

11. Mtume (s.a.w) alitumia njia za ulinzi, usalama na diplomasia katika kuilinda serikali ya Kiislamu Madinah. Fafanua kauli hii.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE EDK EXAM SERIES 253

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA, THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE ANNUAL EXAMINATION 

014 BIBLE KNOWLEDGE  

TIME 3 Hours November 2025

INSTRUCTIONS:

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of thirteen questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A, five (5) questions from section B including question 3 and 4 which are compulsory and two questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries twenty five (25) marks, section B forty five (45) marks and section C thirty (30) marks.
  4. All communication devices and any unauthorized materials are NOT allowed in the examination room.

SECTION A (25 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the following items (i) –(xx) choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter in the answer sheet provided.

(i) Although man was the last to be created but still he was regarded as the climax of God’s creation.

  1. Because man uses reason ability compared to other creatures.
  2. Because man was in charge of the entire God’s creation.
  3. Because man has consciousness therefore, he can judge good and bad.
  4. Because man was given freedom to do whatever he wants.
  5. Because man was selfish and failed to observe God’s commandments.

(ii) During the time of Noah, God was sorry and regretted that he had made man on earth and it grieved his heart so he punished them (Genesis 6:6). As today’s Christians what lesson can we learn from God’s punishment during that time?

  1. God is just and merciful and saves those who are faithful to him.
  2. The mercy of God is only to those who are sinners.
  3. God will let the wicked generation survive forever.
  4. God wanted to purify what he has created in the fifth day.
  5. God does not bother with sinners to repent but the righteous only.

(iii)Although God promised Abraham and his wife a child, still they developed doubt and Sarah shared an idea that her husband should share the same bed with her maid in order to get a child. After Ishmael was born there arouse a very big conflict. What lesson do you get from this family experience?

  1. God’s promises are true and He fulfills them.
  2. Abraham was a man of great faith he just respected his wife’s idea.
  3. When we look for our own ways to create solution to problem unknowingly we are inviting a great danger.
  4. You should get married without medical check up to confirm if you are able to conceive.
  5. If you are given a chance by your wife, you should use it effectively.

(iv) The reason why Jacob’s favorite was Joseph than the rest of his sons was;-

  1. Joseph was a dreamer.
  2. Because his name has excellent meaning may “God add”.
  3. Joseph was born of Rachel whom Jacob loved most.
  4. Because he bought him a cloth with many Colours.
  5. Because Joseph was the son of his old age from Leah.

(v) Which of the following is true about the division of the four rivers that flowed out of the Garden of Eden?

  1. Pishon, Gihon, Tigris and Euphrates.
  2. Gihon, Pishon, Tigris and Euphrates.
  3. Euphrates, Pishon, Gihon and Euphrates.
  4. Euphrates, Pishon, Gihon and Tigris.
  5. Pishon, Euphrates, Tigris and Gihon.

(vi) At the camping place on the way to Egypt, the Lord met with Moses and tried to kill him (Exodus 4:24). What was the reason behind?

  1. Moses did not consult his father in law of going back to Egypt.
  2. Moses was not faithful to God’s order.
  3. Moses gave a lot of excuses such that God planned to kill Moses.
  4. Moses had not observed and respected the law of circumcision.
  5. Moses showed only true love to his family and measured his love to God.

(vii) God ordered the Israelites that whatever was the first to open the womb among the People of Israel, both of man and beast should be consecrated to God; what does this Statement imply?

  1. Was an act of showing might works of God and sign of God’s jealous?
  2. Was an act of showing might works of God and sign of favor to God?
  3. Was an act of showing might works of God and sign of mercy to God?
  4. Was an act of showing might works of God and sign of happiness to God?
  5. Was an act of showing might works of God and sign of gratitude to God?

(viii) The Israelites were required to obey the laws and the covenant of God in order (Exodus19:5)

  1. To settle in the promised land
  2. To be a special and a chosen nation
  3. To be favored by God
  4. To eat the goodness of the earth
  5. To be in the kingdom of God

(ix) Which events justify the issue of THEOPHANY when the Hebrew came at Gilgal? (Joshua 5:13-16)

  1. The celebration of Passover.
  2. The arrangement of twelve memorial stones
  3. The circumcision of the Israel
  4. The appearance of the commander of God’s army
  5. The end of Manna.

(x) “Give me a present, since you set me in the land of Negeb, give me also springs of water”. (Judges 1:15). Tell the event that occasioned this statement

  1. When Othniel defeated Kiriath-se’pher and took it.
  2. When Gideon defeated Kiriath –se’pher and took it.
  3. When Ehud defeated Kiriath – se’pher and took it.
  4. When Jephthah defeated Kiriath – se’pher and took it
  5. When Samson defeated Kariath – se’pher and took it.

(xi) The circle of sin during judges communicates the message to us that:-

  1. God’s mercy is endless although Israel sinned now and then he never forsaken them.
  2. Human being is of sinful nature in spite of all goodness we cannot be perfect and innocent.
  3. Judges were not serious with their call like Samson was a womanizer.
  4. Weak church leadership can result to strong church members, Pastors and bishops should not be lazy but very strong like Samson.
  5. Human being is selfish in nature in spite of all goodness from God still does not see the favor from God.

(xii) In Judges 7:1-8:3 we read the story of God testing Gideon’s 32,000 soldiers, first for fear and then for alertness and Gideon worn the battle with only 300 soldiers. The Implication of this was:-

  1. Midianites were very strong but defeated
  2. The battle was fought by God Himself
  3. The battle was fought by the Ammonites
  4. Gideon together with the Israelites won because of God
  5. Because of assurance of God to Gideon.

(xiii) Let us choose a captain and go Egypt (Numbers 14:4). What occasioned this event?

  1. When they heard the good news from two spies who were sent by Joshua
  2. When they heard the bad news from the two spies who were sent by Joshua
  3. When they heard the good news from the two spies who were sent by Moses
  4. When they heard the bad news from the ten spies who were sent by Moses
  5. When they heard the good news from the twelve spies who were sent by Moses

(xiv) Why do you think the Lord afflicted Pharaoh and his house in Egypt according to Genesis 12:10- 20

  1. He took Sarai Abraham’s wife to make her a ruler
  2. He took Sarai Abraham’s wife to make her people slave
  3. He took Sarai Abraham’s wife to make her his wife
  4. He took Sarai Abraham’s wife to make her kill her husband
  5. He took Sarai Abraham’s wife to make her a responsible woman

(xv) “The Lord God of Hebrews, sent me to you to say, saying let my people go that they may serve me in the wilderness………” Exodus 7:6. When were these words spoken?

  1. When Aaron spoke to Moses
  2. When Moses was born
  3. When God wanted Pharaoh obey his orders
  4. When Moses approached Pharaoh with God’s orders.
  5. When Moses gave four excuses to God

(xvi) Achan stole something from Jericho. As the reaction of Achan’s sin

  1. God made Israelites fail to conquer the city of Jericho.
  2. God made Israelites fail to conquer the city of Gilgal.
  3. God made Israelites fail to conquer the city of Sinai.
  4. God made Israelites fail to conquer the city of Ai.
  5. God made Israelites fail to conquer the city of Ramesses.

(xvii) The prostitute who helped the spies to scrutinize the land of Jericho was;

  1. Dinah.
  2. Rebecca.
  3. Rahab.
  4. Keturah.
  5. Deborah

(xviii) Imagine you were to address your fellow youths in regard to the prevention of HIV and AIDs, which two of God’s commandments would you emphasize to be observed?

  1. You shall not commit adultery, and you shall not commit murder.
  2. You shall not commit adultery, and you shall not covet your neighbour’s property.
  3. You shall not commit adultery, and you shall not covet your neighbour’s wife.
  4. You shall not commit adultery, and you shall not steal.
  5. You shall not commit adultery, and you shall not bear false witness.

(xix) Preparing special meals for special people is common in most of our societies as it used to be during Abraham’s time. What kind of food did Abraham prepare for his special guests who visited him at Oaks of Mamre (Genesis 18:8)?

  1. Roasted meat and bitter herbs.
  2. Milk and honey.
  3. Curds, milk, cakes and calf.
  4. Bitter herbs and curds.
  5. Fruits, meat and milk.

(xx) Give the reasons why God sent venomous snakes (Bronze snakes) to the Israelites (numbers 21:4-9).

  1. They complained about water at Meribah.
  2. They complained that they had never eaten meat and bread in the wildness.
  3. They did not want to go to Canaan.
  4. They spoke against God and Moses.
  5. They liked many people in the wideners.

Answer

i ii iii iv v vi vii viii ix x










xi xii xiii xiv xv xvi xvii xviii xix xx










2. Match the descriptions in LIST A with the correct responses in LIST B by writing the letter of the corresponding responses beside the item number in the answer sheet provided.

 LIST A 

LIST B

(i) The person who changed his mind and pursued the people of Israel.

(ii) The person who led the women in singing the victory song.

(iii) The person who led Israel forward from the red sea.

(iv) The person who was the priest of Midian.

(v) The person who helped Moses after the death of Aaron.

  1. Reuel.
  2. Miriam.
  3. Moses
  4. Pharaoh.
  5. Joseph
  6. Amram
  7. Eleazar.

Answer

i

ii

iii

iv

v






SECTION B (45 MARKS)

Answer five (5) questions from this section including question three (3) and four (4).

3. According to Genesis 13 and 14

  1. Who was Melchizedek? Give two points.
  2. Write three things he did when he came to visit Abraham at king’s valley.
  3. How did Abraham react back?

4. Ethnicity (racial) segregation do not occur only in our today’s societies, it existed also during the times of the Israelites when Miriam and Aaron spoke ill on Moses due to the wife he had married, ( Numbers 12).

  1. Why did they ill on Moses?
  2. What punishment did Miriam get from God?
  3. Give three consequences of racial segregation in our societies today.

5. While in childhood Jesus was sought to be killed by the leader. Matthew 2:13-18

  1. What was the reason for the leader seeking to kill baby Jesus?
  2. How was it so important for Jesus to have an earthly father
  3. As a bible knowledge student, what important advice can you give to the person who has lost hope referring to this incident?

6. “As He entered Capernaum, a centurion came forward to him beseeching him and saying “Lord, my servant is lying paralyzed at home in a terrible distress and he said to him I will come and heal him”. Later the centurion sent message to Jesus saying “I am not worthy to have you come under my roof but only say a word and my servant shall be healed

  1. As a bible knowledge student what does the statement “say a word and my servant shall be healed “imply?
  2. What do you learn from the centurion’s faith?
  3. Today, people mistreat their maid servants in different ways, using the reference of the Centurion what advise can you give to those who mistreat their maidservants?

7. According to Matthew 5-7 Jesus taught different teachings to his crowd

  1. Briefly state three teachings that Jesus taught
  2. State the golden rule as stated by Jesus
  3. How can we apply the golden rule to our life today?

8. With regard to Luke 21:1-4

  1. Describe the story and provide the comment given by Jesus regarding the offering of the widow.
  2. What was the reason given by Jesus for his comment on the offering of the widow?
  3. If you were given an opportunity to teach the church basing on this text, what would be your major emphasis?

9. “And they remembered his words, and returning from the tomb they told all this to the eleven and all the rest” (Luke 24:8-9).

  1. Mention the names of the three of the ‘they’refferred in this quotation.
  2. Who reminded them ‘his words ‘and whose words were they?
  3. What did they tell them so that they remembered ‘his words?

10. During his ministry, Jesus favoured parables as his method of teaching.

  1. Explain in three points the reasons prompted Jesus to use parables in his teaching.
  2. Interpret the parable of the sower especially the path, rock and the thorns (Luke 8:4-15)
  3. Expose three teachings you learn from the parable of the sower.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section

11. Dinah, the daughter of Jacob and Leah, went to visit some of the women of the city. She was seen by Hamor’s son Shechem, the leader of the Hivites, who grabbed and raped her. Shechem was much attracted to Dinah (Genesis 31:1-4). Basing on the story, explain five (5) consequences of rape in the society today.

12. Explain five (5) problems which the Israelites faced on their way to the Promise land and their solutions according to the book of Exodus (Exodus 13-17).

13. In many countries there are conflicts between farmers and pastoralists in some areas. This has been a cry to the voiceless especial to our country Tanzania. By referring to Joshua’s division of the land basing on the importance of “Land act” that every citizen has the right to acquire land Give five (5) importance of the right distribution of the land among the citizens.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIBLE EXAM SERIES 252

PRESIDENT'S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE ANNUAL EXAMINATION

062 BOOK KEEPING

TIME: 3:00 Hours November, 2025

INSTRUCTIONS

  • Answer all question in section A, B, and C.
  • Show your working clearly

SECTION A: 

Answer all questions in this section

1. Choose the correct answer and write its letter in the box provided.

i. Who is a Paymaster General (PMG) of The United Republic of Tanzania?

  1. The shadow minister of the ministry of planning and finance.
  2. Controller and Auditor General (CAG).
  3. The minister of the ministry planning and finance.
  4. The permanent secretary of the ministry of planning and finance.
  5. The permanent secretary

ii. When a petty cash book is kept there will be;

  1. More entries will be made in the cash book.
  2. More entries made in the general ledger
  3. Fewer entries made in the general ledger
  4. The same number of entries in the general ledger
  5. No entries made at all in the general ledger for items paid by petty cash.

iii. When the final accounts are prepared, the Bad Debts Account is closed by a transfer to the;

  1. Balance Sheet. 
  2. Profit and Loss Account. 
  3. Cash flow statement. Debts Account
  4. Trading Account.
  5. Provision for Doubtful

iv. Overlooking an item of stock costing TZS. 1,000 (selling price TZS. 1,500) during the yearend stocktaking would result in:

  1. Overstating Gross Profit by TZS. 1,500.
  2. Overstating Current Assets by TZS. 1,500.
  3. Understating Gross Profit by TZS. 1,000.
  4. Overstating Gross Profit by TZS. 1,000.
  5. Overstating net profit by TZS. 1,500

v. The total of the ‘Discounts Allowed’ column in the Cash Book is posted to;

  1. The debit side of cash account.
  2. The debit of the Discounts Allowed account
  3. The debit of the Discounts Received account.
  4. The credit of the Discounts Allowed account. 
  5. The credit of the Discounts Received account

vi. CHEQUE which is not accepted for payment by the bank due to insufficient fund in the drawer’s bank account is known as;

  1. Staled CHEQUE. 
  2. Un-credited CHEQUE. 
  3. Dirty CHEQUE.
  4. Un-presented CHEQUE.
  5. Dishonored CHEQUE

vii. Which of the following is a revenue expenditure associated with a motor vehicle? 

  1. Motor vehicles account
  2. Carriage inwards costs of a motor vehicle
  3. Motor vehicles running costs
  4. Import duties for a new motor vehicle
  5. Wages to a driver who brought a motor vehicle to the business

viii. Company paid in advance TZS. 48,000 for two years insurance which started on 1st May 2016 and recorded the whole amount as an asset. The adjusting entry on fiscal year ended 31st December 2016 of that year is;

  1. Debit insurance expenses; credit prepaid insurance TZS. 12,000.
  2. Debit insurance expenses; credit prepaid insurance TZS. 8,000.
  3. Debit prepaid insurance expenses; credit insurance expenses TZS. 16,000.
  4. Debit insurance expenses; credit prepaid insurance TZS. 16,000.
  5. Debit insurance expenses; credit cash book TZS. 16,000.

ix. What should happen if the balance on a Suspense Account is of a material amount?

  1. Should be written off to the balance sheet.
  2. Carry forward the balance to the next period.
  3. Find the error(s) before publishing the final accounts.
  4. Write it off to Profit and Loss Account.
  5. Write-off the amount through profit or loss.

x. Basic rule of double-entry bookkeeping is;

  1. Every debit entry must be matched by another debit entry.
  2. Debit the giver and credit the receiver.
  3. Every credit entry must be matched by another credit entry.
  4. Debt the receiver and credit the giver.
  5. Every transaction to be recorded twice.

2. Match the items in Column A with the responses in Column B by writing the letter of the correct response in the answer sheets provided.

Column A

Column B
  1. A section used to determine net profit or loss.
  2. A statement used to show cash in and out of the business.
  3. A statement used to prepare financial statements at the end of an accounting period. 
  4. A statement which proves an accounting equation.
  5. A section for determination of gross profit or loss
  1. Trial balance. 
  2. Statement of cash flows. 
  3. Trading section. 
  4. Profit and loss section. 
  5. Balance sheet. 
  6. Statement of changes in equity. 
  7. Bank reconciliation statements 
  8. Notes to financial statements.

SECTION B: 

Answer all question in this section

3. Mtumba confused when his cash book and bank statement balance disagree on 31 December 2007 the following are details found which lead to that problem

  • Cash at bank as per bank column of the cash book 16,000/=
  • Unpresented cheques 3,500 /=
  • Cheques received and paid into the bank, but not yet entered on the bank statement 3,950 /= Bank charges 1,350/=
  • Credit transfers entered as banked on the bank statement but not entered in the cash book 3,700/=
  • Cash at bank as per bank statement 17,900

Prepare the bank reconciliation statement as at 31st December 2024

4. Nunda Kimti his trial balances total amount did not match. You as expert of bookkeeping correct the errors below by showing the entry on journal (narration not necessary)

  1. Extra capital of Tshs. 5,000 paid into the bank had been credited to Sales account.
  2. Goods taken for own use Tshs 72,000/= had been debited to Sundry Expenses.
  3. Private rent Tshs 2,300/= had been debited to the Rent account.
  4. A purchase of goods from D Pine Tshs 3,990/= had been entered in the books as Tshs 4,790/=

5. Kiumbe Katoto made the payment of different activities on behalf of his Accountant.. as commerce student help Mr. Katoto to arrange that payment in the types of the as shown in the table below.


BUSINESS EVENTS TYPE OF EXPENDITURE
I Electricity costs of using machinery
II The cost of acquiring patent rights.
III Painting outside of new building
IV A motor vehicle bought for re-sale by a motor dealer.
V Twelve dozen sets of cutlery, purchased by a cateringfirm for a new dining-room.
VI Cost of hiring refrigeration plant in a butcher’s shop.
VII The cost of installing a new machine.
VIII Repairs to a fritterers’ van.
IX Break-down van purchased by a garage
X Petrol costs for van

6. Mr. Mpita his stock was stolen on 1 June 2001. The last time that a stock-taking had been done was on 31 December 2000, the last balance sheet date, when stock was valued at cost at Tshs.20,000/=. Purchases from then until 1 June 2001 amounted to Tshs 138,000/= and sales in that period were Tshs.165,500/=. The gross profit of his business often is 15 percent of sales . As his friends help him to determine the cost of goods stolen.

SECTION C: Answer all questions on this section

7. Sikitu Ltd provides for depreciation of its machinery at 20% per annum on cost; it charges for a full year in the year of purchase but no provision is made in the year of sale/disposal.

Financial statements are prepared annually to 31 December.

2001

  • January 1 Bought machine ‘A’ Tshs 10,000 July 1 Bought machine ‘B’ Tshs 6,000.

2002

  • March 31 Bought machine ‘C’ Tshs 8,000

2003

  • October 7 Sold machine ‘A’ – proceeds Tshs 5,500
  • November 5 Bought machine ‘D’ Tshs 12,000

2004

  • February 4 Sold machine ‘B’ – proceedsTshs3,000
  • February 6 Bought machine ‘B’ Tshs 9,000
  • October 11 Exchanged machine ‘D’ for a motor vehicle valued atTshs7,000 

Prepare

  1. The accumulated provision for depreciation on machinery account, for the period 1st January2001 to 31st December 2004
  2. The disposal of machinery accounts showing the profit/loss on sale for each year.

8. From the following figures, compile account receivable ledger and account payable ledger control accounts for the month, and ascertain what the net balances of the respective ledgers should be on 31 January 2010.

Balances on 1 January 2010 Tshs

  • Debtors ledger – Dr 139,386
  • Debtors ledger–Cr 735 
  • Creditors ledger – Dr 4,416
  • Creditors ledger –Cr 76,395

Total for the month to 31 January 2010

  • Purchases 229,422
  • Sales 378,072
  • Purchase returns 6,462
  • Sales returns 11,000
  • Debtors accounts settled by contra accounts with creditors 1,365
  • Bad debt written off 3,759
  • Discounts and allowances to customers 2,238
  • Cash received from customers 350,392
  • Cash discount received 5,826
  • Cash paid to creditors 211,428
  • Cash paid to customers 156

9. The following trial balance was extracted from the books of Free Dodo Shop at the close of business on 28 February 2012.

 

Dr  Tshs

Cr  Tshs 

Purchases and sales 371,200 628,660
Cash at bank 16,400
Cash in hand 324
Capital account 1 March 2011
45,600
Drawings 68,400
Office furniture 11,600
Rent 13,600
Wages and salaries 125,600
Discounts 3,280 640
Debtors and creditors 49,264 20,980
Inventories  1 March 2011 16,480
Provision for doubtful debts 1 March 2011
1,620
Delivery van 15,000
Van running costs 2,480
Bad debts written off 2,920

697,500 697,500

Other information

  1. Inventories 28 February 2012 Tshs 9,600.
  2. Wages and salaries accrued at 28 February 2012 Tshs 13600.
  3. Rent prepaid at 28 February 2012 Tshs 920.
  4. Van running costs owing at 28 February 2012 Tshs 288.
  5. Increase the provision for doubtful debts by Tshs 364.
  6. Provide for depreciation as follows: Office furniture Tshs 1520; Delivery van Tshs 5,000.

Required:

  • Prepare the income statement for the year ending 28 February 2012 together with a statement of financial position as on 28 February 2012.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 251

PRESIDENT'S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE ANNUAL EXAMINATION

031/1 PHYSICS

TIME: 3:00 Hours November, 2025

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with eleven (11) questions.
  2. Answer ALL questions in section A and B and any two (2) from section C
  3. Section A carries 16 marks, section B 54 marks and section C 30 marks.
  4. Non-programmable calculator may be used
  5. Where necessary the following constants may be used
  1. Acceleration due to gravity =10ms-2
  2.  Gravitation force g = 10N/kg
  3.  Density of water = 1000kg/m3 or 1g/cm3.

SECTION A (16 marks)

Answer all questions from this section

1. For each of the items (i) –(x) choose the correct answer from among given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the booklet provided. (10 marks)

(i) An object immersed in a liquid in a tank experiences an up - thrust. What is the physical phenomena that causes the up - thrust?

  1. The density of the body differs from that of the liquid
  2. The density of the liquid increases with depth
  3. The pressure in the liquid increases with depth
  4. The value of g in the liquid increases with depth

(ii) One of the following does not affect surface tension. It is ;

  1. Impurities
  2. Detergents 
  3. Temperature
  4. Volume of the liquid

(iii) A Form Three student did an experiment to demonstrate electrostatic attraction between water and charged comb through rubbing it with hair. The charged comb was brought to a slow stream of water coming from the tap as seen in figure below. The result of the experiment found the water particle were attracted to the comb causing the stream of water to bend. This means that the charge on the comb

  1. Is the same with that in water 
  2. Is less than that in water
  3. Is opposite to that in water
  4. Is larger than that in water

(iv) If a small displacement of a system from the rest position (after getting some energy) results in a small bounded motion about the equilibrium position , then the system is in :

  1. Neutral equilibrium 
  2. Unstable equilibrium
  3. Stable equilibrium
  4. Natural equilibrium

(v) Which of the following groups of machines represent first class lever?

  1. Wheel barrow and bottle opener 
  2. Fishing rod and sugar tongs
  3. Crowbar and claw harmer
  4. Nut crackers and pair of scissors

(vi) Whenever the surfaces in contact tend to move or move with respect to each other , the force of friction comes into play

  1. Only if objects are solid
  2. Only if one of the two objects is liquid
  3. Only if one of the two objects is gaseous
  4. Irrespective of whether the objects are solid, liquid or gaseous

(vii) In tropical countries shinny bright roofing materials are more preferred compared to dull brown tiles because;

  1. shinny bright roofing materials are more attractive than dull brown tiles
  2. shiny bright roofing materials are more durable than dull brown tiles
  3. shinny bright roofing reflects the sun’s radiant heat more than dull brown tiles 
  4. shinny bright roofing materials are lighter than dull brown tiles

(viii) At normal temperature due to a puncture the compressed air inside the tube of a car wheel suddenly starts coming out. Then the air inside the tube

  1. Starts becoming hotter
  2. Starts becoming cooler
  3. Remains at the same temperature
  4. May become hotter or cooler depending on the amount of water vapour present in air

(ix) If the e.m.f and internal resistance of a battery are 1.5V and 0.4Ω respectively, the current that this battery will supply a resistor of 14.6Ω will be :

  1. 15A 
  2. 10A 
  3. 1.0A
  4. 0.1A

(x) A block of mass 10kg is lying at the front desk of a classroom. The coefficient of static friction is 0.5. A force of 40N is applied to the book. The book will

  1. Move
  2. Not move
  3. Move up and down
  4. Slide

2. Match the items in list A with the corresponding items in list B (6marks)

 List A

List B

  1. Latent heat
  2. Specific heat capacity
  3. Heat absorbed or given out by a body when its temperature changes
  4. Heat capacity
  5. Heat by electrical method
  6. Relation between heat capacity and specific heat capacity
  1. mL
  2. Cal/g0C
  3. mc∆ð‘‡
  4. ItV
  5. IV
  6. Heat capacity = mass x specific heat capacity
  7. Specific heat capacity = mass x heat capacity

SECTION B (54marks)

Answer all questions

3. (a) Explain the following pair of words Fog and Smog (3marks)

(b) Tanzania meteorological agency (TMA) recorded dew point for temperature and dew point in four towns 12 noon as shown in table below.

City

Dew point

Arusha

1

Morogoro

12

Zanzibar

5

Dar es Salaam

4

Assume that all cities have their air temperature of 220C

  1. In which town is the relative humidity the highest? (2.5marks)
  2. In which town is the relative humidity the slowest? (2.5marks)

4. (a) Name, draw and mention one use of the three different types of diverging lenses (3marks)

(b) Why does the swimming pool appear much shallower than its actual depth? (2marks)

(c) A converging lens produces an upright image four times the object height. If the focal length is 25cm, find the object distance. (4marks)

5. (a) Why an iron ball sinks in water? (3marks)

(b) A crown made of gold and silver has a volume of 60cm3 and mass of 1. 05kg.Find the mass of gold contained in the crown. (Density of silver = 10.5g/cm3 and density of gold = 19.3g/cm3) (6marks)

6. (a) State two ways that can be used to improve the efficiency of the machine (3marks)

(b) A certain first class lever of length 2.5m has a velocity ratio of 12 and an efficiency of 85%

  1. How far from the fulcrum is the effort force applied? (3marks)
  2. What effort is required to lift the load weighing 75N? (3marks)

7. (a) State parallelogram law of force. (4marks)

(b) A metal sphere weighing 60N is suspended from a beam by a thin string. What horizontal force must be applied to the weight to keep the string at an angle of 380 to the vertical? What is the tension in the string? (5marks)

8. (a) Give two difference between elastic collision and inelastic collision (3marks)

(b) A 4kg object is moving to the right at 2m/s when it collides elastically head-on with a stationary 6kg object. After collision, the velocity of the 6kg object is 1.6m/s to the right.

  1. What is the velocity of the 4kg object after the collision? (3marks) 
  2. What is the total kinetic energy before and after collision? (3mark)

SECTION C (30marks)

Answer ONLY two questions

9. (a) i) Explain how the efficiency of the vacuum flask would be affected if the double walled glass bottle was replaced with a double-walled metal bottle. (4marks) 

(ii) Why do you feel warmer during cloudy night than during clear sky night? (4marks)

(iii) The diagram below show a bimetallic thermostat used to regulate a cooler and heat in a class room. Given Linear expansivity of brass = 18.9 × 10−4ð¾−1 and Linear expansivity of iron = 10.2 × 10−4ð¾−1 . To keep the temperature in the room constant, which of the two devices A or B should be the heater? Explain your answer (2marks)

 (b) A hollow metal sphere of mass 5kg is tied to the bottom of the sea –bed by a rope. The tension in the rope is 60N. Calculate the volume of the sphere. (5marks)

10. (a) i) How can a simple electric cell be constructed? (2marks) ii) Sketch a diagram of the simple electric cell and locate the anode and cathode (3marks) iii) Write the chemical reactions taking place at each electrode and within the electrolyte (4marks)

(b) Study the circuit below and then answer the questions that follows.

Calculate the current passing through the circuit when:

  1. Switch k1 is closed (2marks)
  2. Switches k1 and k2 are both closed (2marks)
  3. Switch k1 is open and k2 is closed (2marks)

11. (a) In which part of a fridge or a microwave oven do magnetic strips installed? Why? (5marks)

(b) White and light coloured clothes are more suitable in hot seasons. Explain (4marks)

(c) A plastic tray weighing 48g and containing 200g of water at 200C is put in a refrigerator which abstract heat at a uniform rate of 2100J/min. Calculate the;

  1. The time taken for the tray and water to reach at 00C (3marks)
  2. Total time taken to freeze all the water to ice at 00C. (3marks)

Given specific heat capacity of plastic = 1050J/kgK; specific latent heat of fusion of water = 335000J/kg.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 250

PRESIDENT'S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE ANNUAL EXAMINATION

011 CIVICS

TIME: 3:00 Hours November, 2025

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and any two questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B carries fifty-four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4. All writing must be in blue or black ink.
  5. Write your name at the top right hand corner of every page of your answer sheet.
  6. Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

SECTION A: (16 MARKS)

1. For each of the items (i – x) choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write it’s letter beside the item number in the box.

(i) Studying civics subjects, helps the student to understand the rights, duties and responsibilities of:

  1. Leader 
  2. Politicians 
  3. Citizens
  4. Citizenship
  5. Special groups

(ii) Both Tinna and Timma are married to the same man called Imma. What is the best term to describe such a marital relationship?

  1. Monogamy 
  2. Polyandry 
  3. Marriage
  4. Bigamy
  5. Polygamy

(iii) Tanzania has many national symbols one of them symbolizes the freedom, peace, unity, hope and enlightenment of Tanzanians. This symbol was first lit on the top of mount Kilimanjaro on 9th December 1961. Which among the following symbols is referred here?

  1. National flag
  2. National song anthem
  3. Uhuru torch
  4. National currency
  5. National language

(iv) Elections held between the general elections to fill a parliamentary or councilors seat is called

  1. By – elections 
  2. Democratic elections 
  3. Constituency elections
  4. Referendum
  5. Representative elections

(v) The village char person uses his power to arrest and send to the police station some villagers without even listening to them which one among the following freedom is the chairman against?

  1. Freedom of owning properties 
  2. Freedom of movement 
  3. Freedom of participation
  4. Freedom of association
  5. Freedom of expression

(vi) Tausi is a form three student who is very active in communication techniques that enables two sides to reach agreement or compromise. What kind of skills does Sophia has?

  1. Empath 
  2. Negotiation skills
  3. Friendship formation
  4. Peer pressure
  5. Sympathy

(vii) A good citizen is the one who has a share in his /her country’s prosperity how can you participate in contributing to the national development as a good citizen. 

  1. Watching football matches, betting and pay for bonanza 
  2. Paying title, visiting he sick and the old.
  3. Paying or tax, and participating in female genital mutilation
  4. Helping the need, practing other people’s rights and fighting
  5. Paying tax, participating in political activities and proper use of public facilities.

(viii) Which among the following types of democracy involves the participation of all adults citizen in public decisions?

  1. Indirect democracy
  2. Representative democracy 
  3. Direct democracy
  4. Infant democracy
  5. Liberal democracy

(ix) Every citizen of Tanzania has the right to own property but the government restricts unmonitored ownership of guns by citizens to maintain safety. This event is referred as.

  1. Abuse of human rights 
  2. Dictatorial leadership
  3. Good governance
  4. Limitation of human rights
  5. Safety assurance

(x) A situation in which the law maintains order. Protects the human rights and limits the power of government is known as.

  1. Rule of law
  2. Rule of people 
  3. Human rights
  4. Consensus
  5. Rule of rights

2. Match the items in list A with the response in list B by writing the letter of the correct response besides the item number in the answers provided.

LIST A

LIST B

i) Fairness of treatment for women and man according to their respective needs

ii) Fixed perceptions or assumptions constructed by society towards a certain sexual group, usually not true in reality

iii) Unequal and unfair treatment of men and women used on sex difference

iv) Sociological differences which exist between men and women

v) Biological difference which exists between men and women 

vi) Activities which men and women carry out.

  1. Gender mainstreaming
  2. Gender blindness
  3. Gender equity
  4. Gender equality
  5. Gender stereotyping
  6. Gender discrimination
  7. Gender
  8. Sex
  9. Gender roles
  10. Gender gap

SECTION B: (54 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Family is very important pillar of development to any society. As a family member, explain any six (6) consequences of family instability.

4. Skills are both inborn and acquired since others have natural skill and others learn through formal means or interaction with other people. Suggest six (6) agents that promote life skills among children.

5. Which six (6) suggestions will you provide to your friends based on the criteria for ensuring that the 2025 general election will be free and fair

6. You closer friend faces difficulties to solve the problem encountering his family. Highlight five (5) ways that you can use to help your friend to solve the problem.

7. In the village meeting the chairperson told he villagers that “there are many forms of government applied by different countries in the world including Tanzania” As a form three student, use the knowledge you have studied in civics to support the chairperson by using six (6) points.

8. Suppose you have been invited as a guest speaker in a certain village meeting , with six (6) points tell them why they should discourage female genital mutilation.

SECTION C (30 MARKS): 

Answer any two (2) questions in this section.

9. Currently the government of Tanzania is focusing to reduce the number of illiterate people especially in rural areas through expanding the provision of education service. As a form three student, use your experience to provide six (6) challenges facing education sector in Tanzania.

10. Despite of all the strategies undertaken by the Tanzania government to reduce the level of poverty still Tanzania is among the poor countries in Africa. Suggest six (6) measures that can be used by the government to reduce the problem in our country.

11. “ private sector plays a significant role in provision of social services in a way that it complements the government efforts to bring about development in a country.” With vivid examples, discuss three (3) challenges facing this sector and three (3) strategies to improve the said sector.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 249

PRESIDENT'S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE ANNUAL EXAMINATION

012 HISTORY

TIME: 3:00 Hours November, 2025

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2. Answer all questions from section A, B and only two (2) questions from section C.
  3. All writing must be in blue or black ink.
  4. Write your name at the top right hand corner of every page.

SECTION A: (16Marks).

Answer all questions.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x) choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the correct number.

i. Mr Tozo from kigoma paid a visit and lived for many years at Gogo society to know their language and cultural system of that tribe, as a form three student who study history subject how can you call Mr. Tozo?

  1. Archaeologist 
  2. Archive 
  3. Translator
  4. Lecture
  5. Anthropologists.

ii. Students of Mtakuja secondary school were discussing about different measures taken in the process of abolition of slave trade in East Africa. But they fail to know which stage led to the closure of the slave market in Zanzibar. If you were there how could you help them?

  1. Frere treaty. 
  2. The Heligoland treaty. 
  3. The Moresby treaty
  4. The Delimination treaty
  5. The Hamerton treaty.

iii. African societies passed through different modes of production, as a form three student educate form two student which three pre-colonial modes of production existed in Africa among the following.

  1. Socialism, Capitalism, Communism. 
  2. Socialism, Communalism, Capitalism
  3. Slavery, Feudalism and communalism 
  4. Feudalism, Communism, Slavery
  5. Capitalism, Slavery, Feudalism.

iv. Form one student conducted a debate about historical sites, some of them were opposers others proposers, some of the opposers came to you to ask assistance, which assistance will you provide to them among the following.

  1. It is expensive 
  2. Provide employment 
  3. Help for practical learning.
  4. Not time consuming.
  5. Acted a center of tourism.

v. Colonial education was provided in Africa by colonialist during the colonial period, which one is not true about the features of such kind of education.

  1. It segregated the Africans.
  2. It was provided for few peoples
  3. It was based on rudimentary curriculum 
  4. It reflected the interest of Africans
  5. It focus of literacy and numeracy.

vi. Colonialist after defeated the Africans, they decided to introduce different administrative to rule the Africans, some of them allowed Africans chief's to have clearly defined duties in colonial administration this was?,.

  1. Assimilation policy. 
  2. Association policy 
  3. Direct rule
  4. Indirect rule
  5. Divide and rule.

vii. You have been in a certain village to explain about which African group who resisted the imposition of British rule in Zimbabwe through they were harshly defeated, which African group will be the correct answer among the following?.

  1. Nandi resistance 
  2. Mazrui resistance 
  3. Shona and Ndebele resistance
  4. Samori Toure resistance
  5. Kikuyu resistance.

viii. Mollel is a Maasai elder he wanted to know historically the name of tribes in which childrens belongs to their mothers clan, how you can help Mollel to answer his question by choosing the correct response among the following.

  1. Patrilineal 
  2. Maternal 
  3. Age set system
  4. Matrilineal
  5. Nyarubanja.

ix. Colonialist established different types of plantations in different areas in Africa, which type of colonial agriculture which were pre-dominant in Kenya among the following?

  1. Plantation 
  2. Peasant 
  3. Co-operative
  4. Settler
  5. Mining.

x. Form three students were discussing about Berlin conference which happened in 1884 – 1885 but they failed to know which nations attended in the meeting as observer, As a form three student help them by choosing the correct answer among the following.

  1. France and Italy 
  2. U.S.A and Denmark 
  3. Russia and France
  4. Germany and Spain
  5. Portugal and UK.

2. Match the description in list A with corresponding historical events in list B by writing the letter of the response beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. The Mandinka resistance of 1882-1898
  2. Nama and Herero resistance of 1904-1905
  3. Nandi resistance of 1896-1906
  4. Majimaji resistance of 1905-1907
  5. The coastal resistance of 1888
  6. Bunyoro resistance
  1. Koitalel arap Samoei
  2. Machemba
  3. King Manelick II
  4. Kinjekitile Ngwale
  5. Hendrik witbooi and Samweli Maherero
  6. Samori Toure
  7. Chief Mungungo
  8. Abushiri and bwana heri
  9. Omukama kabalega

SECTION B: (54 Marks).

Each question carries 9 Marks.

3. a) Why the first mode of production called primitive? (Three points).

b) How salt was obtained during the pre-colonial era? (Three points).

c) How agriculture changed man's life? (Three points).

4. a) How colonialist obtained labours during the colonial period? (Three points).

b) How colonial economy affected African societies? (Three points)

c) Why indirect rule? (Three points).

5. a) How people become slaves? (Three points).

b) Why Berlin conference? (Three points).

c) Which techniques were used in the abolition of slave Trade? (Three points)

6. a) How triangular slave trade affected African societies? (Three points).

b) Why peasant agriculture in Uganda? (Three points).

c) Which factors led to the development of trade during the pre-colonial Africa? (Three points).

7. a) Why African resistance against colonialist failed? (Three points)

b) Why Portuguese rule failed in East Africa? (Three points).

c) Why people blame that colonial Health services were inequality? (Three points).

8. a) Which factors led to the development of Trans-Saharan trade? (Three points).

b) How fire changed man's life during the middle stone age? (Three points).

c) Why the Dutch decided to settle at the Cape of Good Hope in South Africa? (Three points)

SECTION C. (30 Marks) 

Answer only two questions.

9. Mr. Kasongo was among of the elders in Maasai society, by using six points explain the responsibilities of Mr. Kasongo in his society.

10. In a certain village people were discussing about the feature s of colonial economy, as form three student analyze six points to help that people on the features of colonial economy.

11. Form four students at Manelomango secondary school were blaming on why some areas in Africa experienced more intensive scramble for and partition than others?, As a form three student use six points to clear their doubt.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 248

PRESIDENT'S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE ANNUAL EXAMINATION

013 GEOGRAPHY 

TIME: 3:00 Hours November, 2025

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty-four (54) marks and section C thirty (30) Marks.
  4. Map extract of LIWALE sheet 280/4 is provided.
  5. All working must be in blue or black ink, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  6. All communication devices, and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  7. Write your name on every page of your answer sheet (s)

SECTION A (16 Marks) 

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the item (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter in the answer sheet (s) provided

(i) All the following are famous tourist attraction sites in Tanzania except; 

  1. Mikumi wildlife, Tarangire and Ruaha reserve.
  2. Serengeti national park, Mount Kilimanjaro and Mikumi
  3. Selous reserve, Tarangire and Mikumi Park
  4. Tsavo, Turkana and Oldonyo Lengai
  5. Tarangire, Ruaha reserve and Serengeti national park

(ii) SIMA and SIAL are separated by the zone called;

  1. Sialic 
  2. Mohorovic discontinuity 
  3. Mesosphere
  4. Conrad discontinuity
  5. Gutenberg discontinuity

(iii) Chemical weathering is most dominant in areas of;

  1. High temperature and high humidity 
  2. Low temperature and low humidity 
  3. High temperature and low humidity
  4. Low temperature and high Humidity
  5. Only high temperature

(iv) The prediction of the state of atmosphere in a region for 24 to 48 hours is known as;

  1. Weather elements 
  2. Weather report 
  3. Weather instruments
  4. Weather station
  5. Weather forecasting

(iv) The temperature of Dodoma at 1200 meters above the sea level is 20℃. What will be the temperature of Mbeya at 2000 meters above sea level?

  1. 16℃ 
  2. 18℃ 
  3. 15.2℃ 
  4. 14.8℃ 
  5. 30.4℃

(v) A channel diverging from the main river and flowing into the sea or lake by a separate mouth is known as;

  1. Watershed 
  2. Distributary 
  3. Tributary 
  4. Ox – bow lake, 
  5. A stream

(vi) Suppose the local time at Greenwich meridian is 12:00 noon, what is the local time at Msepe which is 10°S 40°E?

  1. 12:20 AM 
  2. 2:00PM 
  3. 2:20 PM 
  4. 2:40 PM 
  5. 2:40 AM

(vii) Suppose you are living in urban center and you are interested in keeping livestock. What type of livestock keeping would be suitable for you?

  1. Nomadism 
  2. Ranching 
  3. Transhumance 
  4. Pastoralism 
  5. Sedentary

(viii) If the location of a point on a map is given by grid reference 365490, then;

  1. 490 are northings 
  2. 490 are Eastings 
  3. 365 are degrees
  4. 365 are northings
  5. 365 are longitudes

(x) Soil is among factors which determines economic activities together with;

  1. Climate 
  2. Type of zone 
  3. Nature of people
  4. Agricultural activities
  5. Equatorial zones

2. Match the descriptions of River rejuvenation features in Column A with the corresponding features in Column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer sheet (s) or booklet(s) provided.

 COLUMN A

 COLUMN B

image

  1. Capturing river
  2. Weak river
  3. Misfit River
  4. Elbow
  5. Pirate river
  6. Wind gap
  7. Menders 
  8. Earth pillars
  9.  Hole

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Carefully Study the map extracts of Liwale sheet 280/4 provided, then answer the questions that follow

  1. With supporting evidence from the map, describe settlement pattern of the mapped area.
  2. By giving the evidence from the map, name four socio-economic activities carried out in the area 
  3. Calculate the area covered by forest using square method. Give your answer in Km2.
  4. Change the scale of the map into a statement scale
  5. By giving evidence from the map, describe two main types of transport found in the mapped area.

4. Study the table below showing production of coffee in Tanzania in“000”tons 1990 to 1996.

Year

1990

1991

1992

1993

1994

1995

1996

Coffee

400

250

200

100

150

80

80

  1. Construct a divergent line graph to represent the data above 
  2. Give an alternative method that can be used to show the above data. 
  3. What are the two merits and two demerits of the method used?

5. Carefully study the following statistical data and then answer the questions that follow;

a. What do you understand by the following statistical terms?

  1. Mode
  2. Median
  3. Mean

(b) What are the uses of statistical graphs and diagrams? Give four (4) points.

6. (a) After learning different types of simple land survey students were asked to explain fruits of studying chain survey but only Yoweri failed to explain. Assume you are a student who understood the lesson, how will you help him to explain fruits of chain survey? (Any five points)

7. Study the following photograph below then answer the questions that follow:

image

  1. With two reasons, name the type of photograph shown above
  2. State the title of the photograph
  3. Mention four famous regions in Tanzania where this crop is grown
  4. Mention two condition necessary for the growth of crop you have mentioned in (a) above e. State the scale of photograph
  5. With evidence show two contribution of crop shown to the economy of Tanzania

8. Juma and Baraka conduct a dialogue about the shape of the earth, Juma said that ‘the shape of the earth is flatted sphere’ but Baraka argue that ‘the shape of the earth is spherical’ with six (6) points, justify the Juma’s argument

SECTION C (30 MARKS) 

Answer two (2) questions from this section

9. Construction of Nyerere dam helps Tanzanians to earn advantageous than disadvantageous, as a student who studied regional focal studies in form two what you think Tanzanians will enjoy for that project.

10. Plantation is the most common form of agriculture practiced in tropical region of Africa, Asia and South America. Justify six (6) characteristics of plantation agriculture practiced these areas.

11. The Minister of national resources and Tourism in Tanzania has been so much active in promoting tourism sector. “Despite the economic significance of the sector, there are negative impacts to our country”. Elaborate this statement by giving six (6) points.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 247

PRESIDENT'S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE ANNUAL EXAMINATION

022 ENGLISH LANGUAGE 

TIME: 3:00 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions 
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and only TWO (2) questions from section C.
  3. Question number 9 is compulsory.
  4. Unauthorized materials like phones are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Give vivid examples for each question.

SECTION A: (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the following items, choose the most correct answer from the given alternatives.

i. Which sentence is grammatically correct among the following?

  1. Malyatabu is suffering of malaria 
  2. Malyatabu is suffering with malaria 
  3. Malyatabu is suffering and malaria
  4. Malyatabu is suffering from malaria

ii. Which statement is the possible condition of the expression "If she had attended the party, she would have been punished"?

  1. If she attended the party, she would be punished.
  2. If she had attended the party, she would be punished
  3. If she had attended the party, she will be punished
  4. If she attends the party, she will be punished

iii. If you visit Mikumi National park, you will see a .......of wolves wondering everywhere.

  1. pack 
  2. Pride 
  3. Swarm
  4. Herd

iv. Suppose someone tells you to write a letter, how do you refer to the information on the far right top of the letter.

  1. Salutation 
  2. Address 
  3. Conclusion
  4. Introduction

v. If a day before yesterday is Tuesday, when will be tomorrow?

  1. Wednesday 
  2. Saturday 
  3. Friday
  4. Monday

vi. Choose two forms of the verb "drink" according to the order; past - simple - past participle

  1. drunk - drank 
  2. drank - drank 
  3. drank - drunk
  4. drunk - drunk

vii. Use the correct order of adjectives to fill in the space in the following sentence: "Our sports master has bought a ........... .

  1. golden classic modern stopwatch 
  2. classic modern golden stopwatch 
  3. modern classic golden stopwatch
  4. classic stopwatch modern golden

viii. The plural form of the sentence: "My friend's ox is very stubborn." is......

  1. My friend's oxes are very stubborn 
  2. My friends' oxen are very stubborn 
  3. My friends' oxes are very stubborn
  4. My friends’s oxen are very stubborn

ix. "Every one appreciate your service." The question tag for this statement is..........

  1. don't they? 
  2. doesn't he? 
  3. doesn't she?
  4. do they?

x. "The Kariakoo derby between Simba and Yanga is going to take place this evening.” This statement means that the match..........

  1. has already taken place 
  2. will take place now evening.
  3. will take place today in the evening
  4. will have taken place today in the

2. Match the expressions in column A with their meanings in Column B by writing the Letter against the item number:

Column A

Column B

(i) A cushioned seating option for two or more people, usually found in living rooms.

(ii) A comfortable chair with side supports for arms, typically found in living rooms or offices.

(iii) A low table placed in front of a sofa, often used for holding drinks, magazines, or decorative items.

(iv) A large table used for eating meals, typically found in dining rooms.

(v) A chair designed to be used with a dining table, often without arms.

(vi) A small table placed beside a sofa or bed for holding items like lamps or books.

  1. Sofa
  2. Armchair
  3. Coffee Table
  4. Dining Table
  5. Dining Chair
  6. Side Table
  7. Bed Frame
  8. Headboard

SECTION B: (54 Marks): 

Answer all questions in this section 

3. Uses of auxiliary verbs can be illustrated in various contexts. Construct one sentence for each of the following contexts:

  1. For asking questions.
  2. To mark tenses. 
  3. To make negations. 
  4. To express mood.
  5. To avoid repetition. 
  6. Forming passive voice

4. For each of the items (i) - (vi) fill in the blank spaces by changing the words in brackets by using appropriate suffixes to make the sentences meaningful.

  1. That’s a long skirt, please (short) it so as to fit you.
  2. You ought to (class) all the songs.
  3. Please stop your (child) behavior at one.
  4. He is too quite. He should (social) with us.
  5. Keep that knife for me, it might be (use) on our hunting trip
  6. Nobody forced him. He voluntarily asked for a summary (dismiss).

5. Teddy found a letter on her desk, she picked it and noted that, it was a letter going to Cherry’s parents, What six (6) features enabled Teddy to identify that the letter was an informal one?

6. Rewrite the following sentences as instructed:

  1. If he eats a balanced diet, he will be healthy. (Rewrite ending with "............... he would be healthy."
  2. Your car is cheaper than mine. (Use "expensive")
  3. The C.E.O refused all their requests. (Rewrite as affirmative)
  4. The judge could finish the case in about half an hour. (Rewrite as interrogative)
  5. Selma is a very intelligent girl. Selma is best singer in school. (Begin: Not only ....... but also.......)
  6. Mr. Job, our school cook, is preparing our lunch. (Begin: Our lunch........)

7. Write the following jumbled sentences in a logical order by assigning them letters A - F:

  1. Mr. Mitomingi drank the water which was in the bucket.
  2. Mrs. Mitomingi left the bucket of water outside the house.
  3. Mr. Mitomingi was sick because he drank untreated water.
  4. Mrs. Mitomingi fetched the water from the river.
  5. Mrs. Mitomingi took her husband to a dispensary.
  6. The water was not boiled when Mr. Mitomingi drank it.

8. Write a linguistic term to denote the prescribed contexts:

Advising, Congratulations, Complaining, Giving instruction, Commanding, Seeking advice
  1. Warmest congratulations on your achievement. ............
  2. Go straight up to the junction then turn left. ............
  3. You are an irresponsible and lazy student. ...........
  4. All of you come here. ............
  5. I think you should not revenge. .........
  6. Excuse me Sir, how can I make my child perform well in mathematics?

SECTION C: (30 Marks): 

Answer two (2) questions of which question 9 is compulsory.

LIST OF READINGS 

NOVELS

  • A wreath for Fr. Mater - S.N. Ndunguru (1997)
  • Unanswered Cries - Osman Conteh, Macmillan
  • Passed Like a Shadow - B.M. Mapalala (2006), DUP
  • Spared - S.N.Ndunguru (2004),Mkuki na Nyota
  • Weep Not Child - Ngugi wa Thiong'o (1987), Heinemann
  • The Interview - P.Ngugi (2002), Macmillan

PLAYS

  • Three Suitors One Husband - O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen
  • The Lion and the Jewel -W. Soyinka (1963), DUP
  • This Time Tomorrow - Ngugi wa Thiong'o (1972), Heinemann
  • The Black Hermit - Ngugi wa Thiong'o (1968), Heinemann

POETRY 

  • Song of Lawino and Ocol - O.P' Bitek (1979), EAPH
  • Growing up with Poetry - D.Rubadiri (ed) (1989), Heinemann
  • Summons - R. Mabala (1960), TPH

9. Read the following poem carefully and answer the questions that follow:

In your arms, I found my peace, 
A shelter where worries cease.
Through every storm, you held me tight, 
Guiding my soul toward the light.

You are the light that leads my way, 
Mom, you shine both night and day.
Your voice, a melody sweet and pure, 
A balm that helps my heart endure. 

With every word, you lift my way, 
Turning my darkest nights to day.
You are the light that leads my way, 
Mom, you shine both night and day. 

Your hands have shaped the life I know,
Planting seeds that help me grow.
In every tear and every cheer,
You’ve been my strength, my pioneer.

You are the light that leads my way, 
Mom, you shine both night and day.
No wealth or gift could ever show, 
The depth of love I feel and owe. 

For all your sacrifices made,
My gratitude shall never fade.
You are the light that leads my way, 
Mom, you shine both night and day.

Forever, Mom, my heart is yours,
Through every joy and every course. 
No matter where life takes me far, 
You’ll always be my guiding star.

You are the light that leads my way, 
Mom, you shine both night and day.

Questions:

  1. What kind of relationship does the speaker have with their mother? 
  2. What does the speaker mean by "In your arms, I found my peace"?
  3. How does the mother help the speaker during difficult times? 
  4. What role does the mother’s voice play in the speaker's life?
  5. Why does the speaker say, "You’ve been my strength, my pioneer"?
  6. What is the significance of the refrain, "You are the light that leads my way, Mom, you shine both night and day"?
  7. Why does the speaker say that no wealth or gift can show the depth of their love? 
  8. How does the speaker express their gratitude to the mother?
  9. What does the line "You’ll always be my guiding star" suggest about the mother’s influence?
  10. What lesson can readers learn from this poem?

10. Choose two parents from two different plays (one from each) and compare their leadership qualities; what strengths and weaknesses do they share (Use three points for each book).

11. "In many novels, characters face challenges that help them grow and develop." Referring to two novels you have studied, explain how the challenges faced by the main characters contribute to their personal growth. Use specific examples from the text to support your answer. (Give 3 points for each book).

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 246

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA, PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

ANNUAL EXAMINATION FORM III

034/01 AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE 1

TIME 3:00 HRS 2025

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consist of section  A,B and C 
  2. Answer ALL questions from sections A and B and only one question from section C
  3. Section A carries 15 marks and section B carries 70 marks while section C carries15 marks
  4. Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheet.

QUESTION NUMBER

SCORES

INITIAL OF THE EXAMINE

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

11.

TOTAL

SECTION A (15-MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer sheet provided.

i. Which of the following is an example of uncertainty in farm business?

  1. Theft 
  2. Fire outbreak 
  3. Accidents
  4. Health of the farmer 
  5. Price fluctuation

ii.Which diseases belong to a group of diseases caused by viruses in cattle?

  1. Rinderpest and rabies
  2. Anthrax and Coccidiosis
  3. Black quarter and preumonia
  4. Trypanosomiasis and Anaplasmosis
  5. Babesiosis and Brucellosis

iii. Which one is a good quality of roughage feedstuff given to farm animals?

  1. Rich in crude protein 
  2. High fibre content and high in energy
  3. Rich in energy and protein
  4. Rich in protein and fibre content 
  5. High in fibre content and low in energy

iv. A tool that is used for marking points on metal surfaces before drilling is called:

  1. Screw driver 
  2.  centre punch
  3. wire brush 
  4. Divider 
  5. cold chisel

v. The following are grafting techniques except:

  1. Approach grafting 
  2. Cleft grafting 
  3. Whip grafting
  4. Tongue grafting 
  5. Scion grafting

vi. A piece of wood which is fitted into beam perforation so as to keep draught animals in position:

  1. U – bolt 
  2. Skey 
  3. Strap
  4. Collar 
  5. Nose ring

vii. The class of insecticides that kill an insect after being absorbed and transported through body tissue is:

  1. Contact herbicides 
  2. Stomach poisoning 
  3. Fumigants
  4. Systemic 
  5. Rogor

viii Soils in areas with heavy rains are poor in fertility due to:

  1. High infiltration rates 
  2. Leaching
  3. Soil pH 
  4. High percolation rates 
  5. Too much water

ix. The mating of closely related individuals in animal breeding is

  1. Out Crossing 
  2. Out breeding 
  3. Up grading
  4. In breeding 
  5. Cross breeding

x. The management practice in sheep that allows mating to take place with little difficulty is known as:

  1. Castration 
  2. Shearing 
  3. Dehorning
  4. Docking 
  5. Deworming

2. Match the items in LIST A with those in LIST B by writing the correct answer to you answer sheet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

(i)…..………is the diameter of the engine cylinder

(ii)…………..is the length of piston travel in a reciprocating (piston) engine.

(iii)…………is the furthest point of piston’s travel at which it changes from an upward to a downward stroke

(iv)……….…is the point at which the piston of an engine is nearest to the axis of the crank shaft

(v)………….is the measure of the cylinder volume swept by all of the piston engine, excluding the combustion chambers

  1. Clearance volume
  2. Stroke
  3. Total cylinder volume
  4. Bore
  5. Bottom Dead Centre (BDC)
  6. Exhaust
  7. Top Dead Centre (TDC)
  8. Piston displacement

SECTION B (70 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

3.A farmer planted 2 hectares of maize. In raising the crop he bought seeds for Tsh.120,000.00, fertilizers for Tsh. 460,000.00, insecticides for Tsh 20,000.00 weeding costs were 80,000.00 and harvesting costs Tsh. 200,000.00. The total yield was 60 bags of 100kg each. The maize was brought by a local cooperative society at Tsh. 500.00 per kg. Calculate gross margin per hectare.

4.(a) Deforestation has led to land degradation in most arable lands of Tanzania. How will you advise people in your community on the importance of trees in soil and water conservation? Give six points

(b) Briefly explain any four importance of soil and water conservation.

5.(a) What do you understand by the term “ Incubation period” as used in Livestock diseases?

(b) Mr. Mbwiga woke up one early morning to visit his livestock Boma. He found two of his cows dead. Surprisingly though, the two cows looked healthy as no symptom of a disease was observed at night before. On examining the dead bodies, the following signs were observed:

- The bodies lacked stiffness of joints

- Dark red blood from oozed the noses, anus, ears and from the vulva opening.

  1. Suggest the possible and most probable cause of the deaths.
  2. Use three points to educate the farmers in your village on how the disease mentioned in (i) above can be prevented and / or controlled.

6.(a) Distinguish soil structure from soil texture

(b) The Soil structure can be improved to make it more suitable for crop production. Outline three methods which can be used to improve soil structure in order to increase the productivity .

7.(a) An extension officer advised farmers to change their ways of doing farm operations from human power to mechanical power. Give five (5) reasons to support the advice given to the farmers.

(b) Account for the four (4) factors that limit the effectiveness of farm mechanization in agricultural production in Tanzania.

8. Crop rotation is the practice of changing crops seasonally or annually on the same piece of land.

  1. Use 2 points to convince farmers to adapt crop rotation and abandon monoculture.
  2. Give any one reason for each of the stated principle of crop rotation:
  1. Including a legume in the rotation programme.
  2. Having a fallow period.
  3. Deep rooted crops being followed by shallow rooted.
  4. Crops from the same family are not allowed to follow each other in the rotation programme.

9.Your school is planning to start a poultry project. Explain to your fellows the factors you will have to consider before deciding on the poultry management system to adapt. Use five points.

SECTION C (15 MARKS)

Answer only one question

10. Parasites attack on livestock is among the challenge facing livestock keepers at a farm level in Tanzania. As a livestock keeper expect, Educate farmer on the

(i). Effect of parasites on livestock (six points)

(ii). General symptoms of the parasite attack on livestock (5 points)

(iii). Advice farmers on the measures recommended to control parasite (5 points).

11. In order to become successful in crop production farmers must adhere to various principles so as to produce profitably. Briefly describe twelve principles of crop production.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE AGRICULTURE EXAM SERIES 244

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA. THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE ANNUAL EXAMINATION

061 COMMERCE

TIME 3: 00 Hours November 2025

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions
  2. Answer all questions from section A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, B carries fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4. Non- programmable calculators may be used in the examination room.
  5. Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheet(s) or booklet(s)

SECTION A. (16 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

1. From items (i) – (x) choose the most correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet(s) /book(s) provided.

i. The general manager of ABC company issued a memo stating “one of the employees is urgently need at the C.E.O office” without mentioning the name and time. Which quality the memo lacks?

  1. Correctness
  2. Concreteness
  3. Conciseness
  4. Clearness
  5. Completeness

ii. The document sent by the exporter’s bank giving assurance of the importer’s credit worthiness is called

  1. Letter of hypothecation
  2. Letter of credit 
  3. Consular invoice 
  4. Bill of exchange 
  5. Bill of lading

iii. You approached a bank clerk in order to open an account and keep your money for 2 years without taking it. The possible account that the clerk would advice you to open is

  1. Current account
  2. Saving account
  3. Fixed deposit account
  4. Junior account
  5. Fixed current account

iv. A total receipt from export wa TZS 2 billion by Tanzania, while the total payment for the import was TZS 6 billion. What does this mean in the health of participating in international trade by your country?

  1. Favorable balance of payment
  2. Unfavorable balance of payment
  3. Favorable terms of trade
  4. Unfavorable terms of trade
  5. Banking balance of payment

v. Assume your father produces a car for the total cost of TZS 20,000/= before deciding to sell it, he added TZS 10,000/= as his profit, he will be selling it for TZS 30,000/=. Which pricing strategy was used by him

  1. Demand based
  2. Competitive
  3. Price determined by treaties
  4. Penetration
  5. Cost plus

vi. You were employed as a warehouse keeper and review bookstore. Which stock calculation will help the fir to identify the fast- and slow-moving items?

  1. A. Rate of stock turn rate
  2. B. Mark up
  3. C. Order point
  4. D. Sales per turnover
  5. E. Average stock

vii. “Omo removes dirty and strains, ordinary powder leaves behind”. Which form of advertising is best described by this example?

  1. A. Informative 
  2. B. Competitive 
  3. C. Generic
  4. D. Persuasive
  5. E. Sponsorship

viii. When the price of orange in the market was TZS 200, the quantity demanded was 1000 orange per week. When the price fall in TZS 150, The quantity demanded rises by 500 orang per week. What will be the price elasticity of orange per week?

  1. 2.0 elastic  
  2. 0.2 elastic 
  3. -0.2 inelastic
  4. 0.2 inelastic
  5. 2.0 inelastic

ix. Mwang’ombe is a supplier of gas in Tupambane village. He decided to insure his shop against fire to minimize possible future loss. Which among the following ways was adopted by him?

  1. Risk avoidance 
  2. Risk exploitation 
  3. Risk sharing and transferring
  4. Risk acceptance
  5. risk escaping

x. Which of the following is the correct form of transport?

  1. Water, land and air
  2. Water, air and road
  3. Water, land and railways
  4. Sea, railways and pipeline
  5. Sea and land

2. Match the description of the entrepreneur’s skills in column A with the corresponding skill in column Bby writing the letter of the correct response bise the item number in the answer sheet provided.

COLUMN A

COLUMN B

  1. Ability to see the opportunities and generate ideas to do things in new ways
  2. Ability to know how to position the product to attract customers
  3. Ability to connect with different people inside and outside the business
  4. Ability to deal with difficulties happening in the business
  5. Ability to understand how to raise fund that are needed for the business
  6. Ability to influence employees to perform their duties effectively
  1. Problem -solving
  2. Innovative
  3. Networking
  4. Financial
  5. Planning
  6. Technical
  7. Persuasion
  8. Marketing

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

3. Bwana mdogo is a business man selling bar soaps in small lots. The following detail were extracted from his records and presented to you as follow.

  • Markup 20%
  • Rate of stock turnover 5 times
  • Average stock at selling price Tshs 400000
  • Expense 20% of net profit
  • Minimum stock 100 bars
  • Daily sales 50 bars
  • Delivery times 2weeks

As a commercial student assist Bwana Mdogo to calculate the following;

  1. Business sales revenue
  2. Gross profit
  3. Expenses
  4. Net profit
  5. Margin
  6. Re-order level

4. Imagine you are in the highly populated market like Kariakoo where there are many buyers and sellers. Meanwhile you are interested to promote one of your customers. Describe the barriers that might affect your means of communication (5 points).

5. (a) Mrs. Alex has an account at NMB Bank with TZS 10 million. He issued a cheque in favorable of Wacha Maneno a creditor who demanded TZS 800,000/= ON 01/01/2019. Use the information given to analyses the three main parties to a cheque involved in this transaction.

(b) from (a) above Wacha Maneno did not get the money as the NMB bank refused to cash the cheque. Explain three possible reasons why this happened.

6. Business opportunities are created from many sources. On being studying human wants. As a commercial student, explain any other five (5) source.

7. The demand of goods and services in the market can only be affected by the price of a particular commodity. Which six points (6) criticize this statement.

8. In order to avoid environment pollution in 2019, Tanzania government restricts the importation and production of all kind of nylons paper bags. It is strictly prohibited for anyone to use these sorts of bags. How can you explain six (6) methods used by the government to restrict importation of all kinds of nylons paper bags?

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two questions from this section

9. Tanga cement uses wholesalers to distribute its products all over the country. For some reasons, the wholesalers have decided to step down. Explain how the industry is negatively affected by such a decision. Give out six (6) points.

10. Although the transportation sector in Tanzania is growing fast, it has some number of challenges to be successful. Describe six (6) of them.

11. In 2021 a country named B faced excess supply of money in the economy which later led to economic problem including inflation. Use your knowledge on banking to advice country B on the tools that central bank should employ to control excessive supply of money (6 points).

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 243

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE ANNUAL EXAMINATION

024 LITERATURE IN ENGLISH  

Time: 3 Hours November 2025

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.   
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and Two (2) questions from section  C.
  3. Section A carries (16) marks, section B (54) Marks and section C carries (30) marks.  
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.      
  5. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet.      

SECTION A: (16 Marks)

Answer ALL questions in this section.

1. For each of the following item, choose the best answer from the given alternatives and write the best answer beside the item in the answer sheets provided.

(i) Lakunle in ‘The Lion and The jewel’ is seen alone speaks his thoughts aloud to express his innermost thought while asking and answering himself, the technic is called? 

  1. Stage directions
  2. Rehearsal
  3. Soliloquy
  4. Monologue
  5. Dialogue

(ii) In rising action, it is impossible to get solution of the conflict because?

  1. It is the only stage where characters are introduced to make climax.
  2. It is the only stage where tone is introduced to make crisis.
  3. It is the only stage where conflict is introduced to make exposition.
  4. It is the only stage where opposing forces are shown to make crisis and climax.
  5. It is the only stage where both characters and tone are introduced to solve conflict.

(iii) Ferdinandi Oyono in his novel Houseboy has presented his writing in which both characters and events are not real but they are imaginary, the work is termed as 

  1. Fiction
  2. Non-fiction
  3. Imaginary story
  4. Short story
  5. Historical novel

(iv) Jengua composed a literary story dealing with one major theme which has got simple plot and few characters and can be read and completed in one sitting, the literary work will be termed as

  1. Novella
  2. Short story
  3. Fiction
  4. Short drama
  5. Mix form short story

(v) The Mount Kilimanjaro moved majestically many times; literary this is called?

  1. Personification
  2. Understatement
  3. Epilogue
  4. Symbolism
  5.  Anaphora

(vi) Poets, Novelists and playwrights are called creators because?

  1. They create characters by giving the roles to represent the real human being.
  2. They create characters to speak figures of speech to the readers.
  3. They make rhyme and rhythm to the characters.
  4. They create Dramatic irony to the characters.
  5. They create titles which always relate to the content.

(vii) Ailatu used her body movement and facial expression to convey a message of anger to her husband without speaking, the situation is called?

  1. Theatre
  2. Stage
  3. Pantomime
  4. Aside
  5. Characterization

(viii) Mrisho Mpoto when performs, he likes to wear many clothes to make her fatter than the way she is, she also wears mask to hide her face while performing, these two garments worn termed as?

  1. Masks
  2. Costumes
  3. Performance garments
  4. Props
  5. Performance items

(ix) In The tragic play called Oedipus The King, there is a character who unknowingly marries his own mother, they make a family, a thing which is obvious known to the audience and not to the character, in drama this means

  1. Dramatic irony
  2. Foreshadow
  3. Irony of situation
  4. Satiric irony
  5. Verbal irony

(x) Literature is the work of ART due to the following except. 

  1. The use title to relate the content.
  2. The use of setting to show an action.
  3. The use of literary language like Exaggeration
  4. The use of characters to provide message.
  5. The use of ordinary language like that used in normal works.

2. Match the concept in Column A with their corresponding terms in Column B In the following table

COLUMN A

COLUMN B

  1. You cannot judge a book by its cover. 
  2. Tie the Knot = get married
  3. If a dog chews shoes, whose shoes he choose. 
  4. It was like light darkness when they came to see us.
  5. The fruit is soft as stone. 
  6. The person’s record of experiences from his/her own life
  1. OXYMORON
  2. PROVERB
  3. IRONY
  4. TONGUE TWISTER
  5. MEMOIRS
  6. IDIOM

SECTION B: (54 Marks)  

Answer ALL questions from this section.

3. Max and Zembwela were in great discussion about the concept of Literature. Max argues that Literature can exist without the society as he says Literature is an independent entity. As a Literature student argue against Max’s views (6 points)

4. A) Compose a sonnet elegy poem

B) i. Show two symbols and what do they symbolize.

ii. Show barbarism from your poem. iii. Relate the poem from your society. iv. Show the main theme of your poem.

5. Write the short notes for each of the following literary terms.

  1. Stage direction
  2. Prose
  3. Currently literature
  4. Cast of characters
  5. Plot
  6. Irony

6. Comment the following literary statements.

  1. Language is the literary tool. 
  2. Novels are fictious work. 
  3. Characters are the vehicles in literary works.
  4. Oral literature is the oldest one.
  5. Society is everything in literature.
  6. Reading literary works is like travelling worldwide.

7. Figures of speech includes things like, simile, repetition, hyperbole, symbolism, personification and onomatopoeia, with examples explain the roles of the terms.

8. I watched the drama called Barua Ndefu kama hii in the drama I saw dialogue and events which were consecutively with sound effect or music, prove by using six (6) points Why music applied in the drama.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer only two (02) questions from this section.

LIST OF READINGS 

PLAYS

  • The Lion and The Jewel- Wole Soyinka
  • The Trials of Brother Jero- Wole Soyinka
  • The Dilemma of A Ghost- Ama Ata Aidoo
  • The Government Inspector- Nikolai Gogol

NOVELS

  • A Walk in The Night- Alex La Guma
  • The Old man and The Medal- Ferdinand Oyono
  • Houseboy- Ferdinand Oyono
  • The Concubine- Elechi Amadi

POETRY

  • Selected Poems- Tanzania Institute of Education
  • Growing Up with Poetry- David Rubadiri

9. Poets are the teachers who always speak the truth, show your arguments by using two poems. six (6) points, three (3) points from each poem

10. People enter collision due different sources, use two plays of your choice to reveal causative of people to stay apart. Six (6) points, Three (3) points from each play

11. Novelists use figurative language to send message to the readers, use two novels to state how the novelist have used this technique accordingly six (6) points), six (3) point from each novel.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE LITERATURE EXAM SERIES 242

JAMUHURI YA MUUNGANO WA TANZANIA, OFISI YA RAIS TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA 

MTIHANI WA MWISHO WA MUHULA WA PILI

021 KISWAHILI

KIDATO CHA TATU 

MUDA: SAA 2:30 NOVEMBER 2025

MAELEKEZO:

  1. Mtihani huu una sehemu tatu ambazo ni A, B na C yenye jumla ya maswali  kumi na  moja (11)
  2. Jibu maswali yote kutoka sehemu A na B, na maswali  mawili(2)  kutoka sehemu C  ambapo swali la  kumi (10)  ni lazima.
  3. Zingatia maelekezo ya kila sehemu
  4. Zingatia matumizi sahihi ya alama za uandishi na lugha fasaha

SEHEMU : A (alama 16)

1. Chagua jibu sahihi katika kipengele (i) – (x) Kisha andika jibu sahihi katika karatasi za kujibia

i. “Mimi ni ncha ya mkuki sipigwi kozi wala sipigwi kwa chochote jaribu utakiona cha mtemakuni nilishinda pia vita katika vita ya kagera na Uganda” Je ni aina gani ya Kipera katika fasihi kati ya hivi vifuatavyo:-

  1. Ngomezi
  2. Ushairi
  3. Majigambo
  4. Ngonjera
  5. Methali

ii. Mwajuma alipopewa maswali na Mwalimu wake wa Kiswahili akayajibu kwa haraka lakini ndani ya majibu yale moja lilikuwa sahihi zaidi, ni lipi kati ya haya yafuatayo kuhusu kamusi.

  1. Fani na maudhui
  2. Tahakiki za wanafasihi
  3. Muktadha wa matumizi ya kamusi
  4. Mfano wa michoro ya samaki, wanyama na wadudu
  5. Marejeo ya orodha ya maneno yaliyopangwa kwa utaratibu maalumu unaofuata alfabeti 

iii. Jirani alipoambiwa ataje watoto mapacha waliokuwa wakiishi kwenye familia ya mzee John Walirandana na kutofautiana . Taja jozi yenye kufanana na mapacha hao kitanzu katika fasihi.

  1. Vitenzi, kamusi, viunganishi na hadithi
  2. Hadithi, ushairi, maigizo na semi
  3. Ushairi, mashairi, maigizo na semi
  4. Maigizo, semi ngonjera na semi
  5. Semi, maigizo, nudhumu na mapingiti

iv. Ili kukamilisha mawasiliano miongoni mwa watumiaji lazima kuzingatia vitamkwa ambavyo ni msingi katika lugha ya Kiswahili. Miongoni mwa vitamkwa hivyo ni:-

  1. Irabu na konsonanti
  2. Silabi na irabu
  3. Konsonanti na neno
  4. Sauti na silabi
  5. Neno na neno

v. Mama na bibi wamekwenda sokoni kununua mchele. Je, ni aina gani ya kiunganishi ilivyotumika kati ya hivi vifuatavyo

  1. Kiunganishi husishi
  2. Kiunganishi huru
  3. Kiunganishi tegemezi
  4. Kiunganishi cha a – unganifu
  5. Kiunganishi kiwezeshi.

vi. Miongoni mwa malengo ya ufupishaji habari, huwa ni kwasababu ya :-

  1. Ukweli wa mambo yanayozungumzwa
  2. Kuandika habari kwa kutumia mawazo maku kutoka kwenye habari iliyosimuliwa.
  3. Kujua ukweli wa mambo yanayozungumzwa katika jamii
  4. Ili kusoma vitabu vya hadithi mbalimbali kila siku
  5. Kujua kusoma na kuandika habari

vii. Mama ameletewa zawadi ya sukari kwaajili ya kumbukumbu ya kuzaliwa kwake. Je, neno sukari limetumia ngeli ya :-

  1. A –WA
  2. U – I
  3. LI – YA
  4. KI – VI
  5. I – I

viii. Mwalimu alimwambia mthibiti ubora kuwa “ kipindi kimeanza” Mwalimu alitumia aina gani ya tungo kati ya tungo zifuatazo?

  1. Tungo neno
  2. Tungo kirai
  3. Tungo kishazi
  4. Tungo sahihi
  5. Tungo sentensi

ix. “Nyumba imeezekwa lakini inavuja sana” sentensi hii iliongelewa / zungumzwa na baba mwenye nyumba hiyo. Je alitumia aina gani ya sentensi ili kutoa ujumbe?

  1. Sentensi ambatano
  2. Sentensi changamano
  3. Sentensi shurutia
  4. Sentensi sahili
  5. Sentensi ya tungo

x. Kazi iliyoandaliwa na kusomwa na mkuu wa wilaya siku ya Nyerere tarehe 14/10/2023 ilitumia mambo mawili katika kuhakikiwa ambayo ni:-

  1. Muundo na mtindo
  2. Mtazamo na msimamo
  3. Wahusika na Mandhari
  4. Fani na maudhui
  5. Ujumbe na dhamira

2. Oanisha maneno yaliyopo katika orodha “A” nay ale ya orodha “B” ili yalete maana.

ORODHA ‘A’

ORODHA ‘B’

  1. Vichekesho
  2. Riwaya fupi
  3. Mkondo wa kiwasifu
  4. Ramsa
  5. Riwaya thati
  6. Mkondo wa kihistoria
  1. Masuala ya imani za kishirikina
  2. Zawadi ya ushindi (1992)
  3. Hutekenya hisia za watazamaji na kuwafanya waangue kicheko
  4. Visa vichache
  5. Nimfano wa riwaya ya barua ndefu kama hii
  6. Visa vyake hujikita katika maisha na uwepo wa kifo
  7. Riwaya ya maisha yangu baada ya miaka hamsini (2003)
  8. Riwaya ya hiba ya wivu(1997)
  9. Vita ya Idd Amin Dadah wa Uganda dhidi ya Tanzania

SEHEMU “B” (alama 54)

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii

3. Ili maigizo yakamilike, muigizaji anahitaji kuyajua mambo muhimu yanayofaa kukamilisha ujumbe

  1. Taja mambo manne (4) yanayotakiwa kwaajili ya kukamilisha ujumbe katika maigizo
  2. Taja faida nne (4) za maigizo katika jamii
  3. Toa changamoto moja inayoweza kujitokeza wakati wa maigizo jukwaani

4. Upatanisho wa kisarufi huwa na lengo la kuifanya sentensi iwe/ziwe fasaha. Tumia maneno yafuatayo ili kuzifanya sentensi ziwe fasaha kingeli.

(i) Kalamu, Yai, Maziwa, Sukari, Uji,Mkutano,Uzi na Kazi

5. (a) Changanua sentensi ifuatayo kwa kutumia michoroti (mkabala kimapokeo)

‘‘Mwalimu wa kiswahili amemsaidia mwanafunzi aliyeshindwa darasani’’

(b) Taja hatua tano (5) zinazotumika katika

(c) Tenga kiima na kiarifu katika sentensi ifuatayo:-

‘‘Wanakijiji waliofika leo asubuhi na mapema wamelima vizuri shambani.’’

6. (a) Eleza maana ya kuhifadhi fasihi simulizi kwa njia ya makazi

  1. Ubora (hoja mbili (2)
  2. Udhaifu (hoja mbili (2)

(b) Uhifadhi wa vinasa sauti

  1. Ubora wake (hoja mbili (2)
  2. Udhaifu wake (hoja mbili (2)

7. (a) Wewe ni mkeleketwa kuhusu samba walio zagaa katika mkoa wa Iringa toka National park. Andika tangazo la kuwatahadhalisha wananchi na wanyama hao ili wasidhuriwe

(b) Andika mambo muhimu manne (4) ya kuzingatia wakati wa kuandika tangazo

8. Kwa kutoa mifano, andika sifa sita (6) za kishazi huru

SEHEMU “C” ( alama 30)

Jibu maswali mawili (2) tu katika sehemu hii 

9. “Asili ya Kiswahili hujadiliwa na wataalamu mbalimbali ili kuthibitisha wakaja na mawazo kuwa Kiswahili ni kibantu” thibitisha kauli hiyo kwa hoja nne kuthibitisha ubantu wa Kiswahili kisayansi.

10. Toa tofauti ya Riwaya, Tamthiliya na Ushairi katika :- 

  1. Muundo
  2. Mtindo

11. Msanii yeyote wa kazi ya fasihi anafananishwa na mwavuli kwa jamii yake, kwakuwa anatumia upeo wake kuona mambo yaliyomo katika jamii na kutumia kalamu yake kuifumbua macho jamii juu ya mambo yanayoendelea katika jamii. Thibitisha kauli hii kwa kudadavua mambo yaliyoibuliwa na waandishi wa diwani mbili kati ya ilizosoma. (hoja tatu kila diwani).

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 241

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA
PRESIDENT’S OFFICE – REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT FORM THREE ANNUAL EXAMINATION – 2025 PHYSICS   TIME: 3 HOURS
INSTRUCTIONS
1. This paper consists of  three sections A, B and C .
2. Answer  all questions in sections A and B  and  two (2)  questions from section C.
3. Write your examination number clearly on every page.
4. Non-programmable calculators, mathematical tables and geometrical instruments  may be used.
5. Cellular phones and unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination  room.
6. All drawings must be neat, clear, and well labeled.
SECTION A (15 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
1. Multiple Choice Questions (10 marks)
Choose the correct answer and write its letter in your answer booklet.
(i) A car moves with a constant speed of 20 m/s for 10 seconds. The distance covered is: A. 200 m B. 100 m C. 2 m D. 20 m
(ii) The SI unit of pressure is: A. Newton B. Joule C. Pascal D. Watt
(iii) Which physical law explains why a balloon filled with air floats in water? A. Boyle’s law B. Archimedes’ principle C. Newton’s third law D. Charles’ law
(iv) A machine has a velocity ratio of 4. If the efficiency is 75%, the mechanical  advantage is: A. 3.0 B. 2.0 C. 4.0 D. 5.3
(v) A student uses a convex lens to burn paper. The lens acts as: A. a projector lens B. a magnifying glass C. a camera lens D. a converging lens
(vi) Which of the following is a vector quantity? A. Energy B. Power C. Momentum D. Pressure
(vii) Heat transfer in solids mainly occurs by: A. Convection B. Conduction C. Radiation D. Reflection
(viii) The process by which water molecules change directly from solid to vapour without  becoming liquid is called: A. Condensation B. Evaporation C. Sublimation D. Deposition
(ix) The device that changes alternating current into direct current is: A. Rectifier
B. Transformer C. Generator D. Inductor
(x) A freely suspended magnet always points in one direction due to: A. Frictional force B. Earth’s magnetic field C. Gravitational force D. Electric field
2. Matching Items (6 marks)
Match the items in  List A  with the correct responses in  List B  by writing the letter of the  correct answer.


SECTION B (54 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section. Each question carries  9 marks .
3. A boat is crossing a river 80 m wide. The velocity of the boat in still water is 4 m/s and  the river flows with a velocity of 3 m/s downstream. (a) Draw a vector diagram to represent the boat’s motion. (b) Calculate the resultant velocity of the boat. (c) Determine the time taken to cross the river.
4.  During a school science project, students noticed that a block slides faster on a  smooth surface than on a rough one. (a) Explain why friction is necessary in daily life. (b) Mention two disadvantages of friction. (c) State two methods of reducing friction in machines.
5.  A student used a pinhole camera to obtain an image of a candle flame. (a) Draw a diagram of the image formed. (b) State three characteristics of the image formed by a pinhole camera. (c) Suggest two advantages and one limitation of the pinhole camera.
6. A steel bridge has expansion gaps between its parts. (a) Explain why the gaps are necessary. (b) Describe one experiment to demonstrate linear expansion of metals. (c) State two disadvantages of thermal expansion in everyday life.
7. The figure below shows a simple electric circuit:
Given that R1 = 4Ω and R2 = 6Ω connected in series to a 12 V battery: (a) Calculate the total resistance of the circuit. (b) Find the current flowing through the circuit. (c) Calculate the potential difference across R2.
8. Archimedes’ Principle and Law of Floatation
A solid object weighs 12 N in air and 9 N when fully immersed in water. (a) Calculate the upthrust on the object. (b) Find the volume of the object. (Take density of water = 1000 kg/m³ and g = 10 m/s²). (c) State Archimedes’ principle.
SECTION C (30 Marks)
Answer  two (2)  questions from this section. Each question carries  15 marks .
9. Newton’s Laws of Motion
Explain the applications of Newton’s three laws of motion in  real-life situations  such as  transport, sports, and construction. Use  specific examples from Tanzania .
10. Forces in Equilibrium
With the aid of diagrams, discuss the conditions of equilibrium of a rigid body. Explain  the  importance of equilibrium  in engineering structures such as bridges, cranes, and  tall buildings.
11. Sustainable Energy Sources
Energy demand in Tanzania is growing due to industrial and domestic use. Discuss the  challenges of depending on non-renewable sources  of energy and suggest  sustainable alternatives  suitable for Tanzania’s development.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 239

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA PRESIDENT’S OFFICE – REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT 

FORM THREE ANNUAL EXAMINATION – NOVEMBER-2025 L

ITERATURE IN ENGLISH TIME: 3 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C .
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Cellular phones and unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your answers clearly in the spaces provided.
  5. All essays must be well organized and relevant.

SECTION A (15    Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. Multiple Choice Questions (10 marks). Choose the correct answer and write its letter in your answer booklet.

(i) Literature is best defined as: 

  1. A collection of scientific facts 
  2. Written or spoken works that express human experiences creatively
  3. A book written in English only 
  4. The study of grammar

(ii) Which of the following is NOT a function of literature? 

  1. To entertain 
  2. To educate 
  3. To preserve culture 
  4. To measure speed

(iii) Which one of the following is an example of oral literature? 

  1. A novel 
  2. A poem performed by word of mouth 
  3. A newspaper 
  4. A biography

(iv) A short story is an example of: 

  1. Drama 
  2. Poetry 
  3. Prose 
  4. Folktale

(v) The repetition of initial consonant sounds in a line of poetry is called: 

  1. Personification 
  2. Alliteration 
  3. Simile 
  4. Metaphor

(vi) Which of the following pairs is correctly matched? 

  1. Romeo and Juliet – Prose 
  2. Things Fall Apart – Drama 
  3. The Lion and the Jewel – Play 
  4. The Pearl – Poetry

(vii) Which element of a play refers to the place and time of events? 

  1. Theme 
  2. Plot 
  3. Character 
  4. Setting

(viii) The message of a literary work is: 

  1. What the writer intends to communicate to readers 
  2. The list of characters in the work 
  3. The sequence of events 
  4. The way characters speak

(ix) Which of the following is NOT a genre of oral literature? 

  1. Myths 
  2. Proverbs 
  3. Epics 
  4. Novels

(x) Which literary device is used in the statement “The sun smiled at the village” ? 

  1. Simile
  2. Hyperbole
  3. Personification 
  4. Irony

2. Matching Items (6 marks). Match the items in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct answer.

List A List B
  1. The sequence of events in a play or story.
  2. The main idea that runs throughout a literary work.
  3. A conversation between two or more characters in a play.
  4. The way a writer uses words and apressions.
  5. A figure of speech that compares two unlike things using like" or 'as".
  6. A person, animal or figure represented in a literary work. 
  1. Theme 
  2. Dialogue 
  3. Plot 
  4. Simile 
  5. Character 
  6. Language
  7. Setting

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section. Each question carries 9 marks .

3. A teacher asked her students to explain the value of literature in society. (a) Define literature. (b) State three functions of literature in everyday life. (c) Explain three ways in which literature preserves culture.

4. A grandmother narrated a folktale to her grandchildren during the evening. (a) Identify the genre of oral literature being performed. (b) Explain three importance of folktales in society. (c) Mention three challenges facing the transmission of oral literature today.

5. Students in a literature club read a short story written by a Tanzanian author. 

  1. State three features of written literature. 
  2. Differentiate between prose and drama.
  3. Give two advantages and one disadvantage of written literature compared to oral literature.

6. You are given a play with the following summary: “A young man refuses his father’s advice, later faces hardships, and finally realises the importance of family.” 

  1. Identify two possible themes from the play. 
  2. List three possible characters in this play. 
  3. Draw a simple diagram showing the structure of the play (exposition → rising action → climax → falling action → resolution).

7. A poet writes: “Time is a thief, stealing our moments of joy.” 

  1. Identify the literary device used in the line. 
  2. Explain two reasons why writers use literary devices in their works. 
  3. Mention two other literary devices and give one example of each.

8. In a play, the main character is portrayed as hardworking, generous, and caring, while his friend is lazy and jealous. (a) Distinguish between character and characterization. (b) State two methods a writer uses to reveal character traits. (c) Explain three roles of characters in a play.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section. Each question carries 15 marks .

9. Using one play or novel you have studied in class, discuss the main themes and show how the writer communicates the message to the audience.

10. “Literature is not only for entertainment but also for development of society.” With reference to two works of literature you have read, justify this statement.

11. With concrete examples from a play or novel you have studied, explain how setting, plot and language work together to make the story effective.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE LITERATURE EXAM SERIES 238

UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA
PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT FORM THREE ANNUAL EXAMINATION HISTORY Time: 3 Hours
INSTRUCTIONS
1. This paper consists of three sections: A, B and C.
2. Answer  all questions  in Sections A and B, and  two (2) questions only  from Section  C.
3. Write your answers clearly in the answer booklet provided.
4. Include diagrams or    maps where necessary.
5. Answer questions in full sentences unless otherwise instructed.
SECTION A (20 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
Question 1: Multiple Choice Questions (10 Marks)
(i) History is primarily the study of: A. Future events B. Past events C. Geological formations D. Only political systems
(ii) The earliest humans are believed to have evolved in: A. Europe B. Africa C. Asia D. North America
(iii) Which technology is associated with the Stone Age? A. Iron smelting B. Bronze tools C. Stone tools D. Steam engines
(iv) One of the main impacts of agriculture in early societies was: A. Decrease in population B. Settlement and urbanization C. Hunting of wild animals only D. Nomadic lifestyle
(v) In pre-colonial Africa, the economy of most societies was based on: A. Industrial production B. Agriculture, trade, and pastoralism C. Digital technology D. Mining only
(vi) The Berlin Conference of 1884-1885 was primarily about: A. Ending World War I B. Dividing Africa among European powers C. Promoting African independence D. Establishing trade unions
(vii) Which of the following was a consequence of colonial administration in Africa? A. African political independence B. Introduction of European laws and bureaucracies C. Total elimination of African culture D. Industrial revolution in Africa
(viii) One of the major social services introduced by colonial governments was: A. Internet access B. Education and health facilities C. Digital banking D. Modern highways only
(ix) Industrial capitalism is characterized by: A. Small-scale farming only B. Private ownership of industries and profit-making C. Feudal land ownership D. Community-based economy
(x) Early African societies engaged in trade with the outside world mainly through: A. Maritime trade and caravans B. Internet commerce
C. Air transport D. Railways only
Question 2: Matching Items (10 Marks)
Match items in  List A  with the correct responses in  List B .


SECTION B (54 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section. Each question carries 9 marks. 3. (a) Define History. (b) Mention three reasons why the study of History is important. (c) Explain two ways historical knowledge helps societies today.
4. (a) Describe the main characteristics of early humans. (b) Outline three technological innovations during the Stone Age. (c) Explain how early humans adapted to their environment.
5. (a) Identify three major economic activities of pre-colonial African societies. (b) Explain how these activities impacted social and political structures. (c) Draw a simple diagram showing trade routes for gold and salt in Africa.
6. (a) Define the term “chiefdom.” (b) Describe three roles of chiefs in pre-colonial African societies. (c) Explain the importance of councils or elders in African governance.
7. (a) Draw a sketch map of Africa showing  five important iron working sites  in pre-
colonial Africa  (b) Explain why iron working was important for these societies. (c) Mention two challenges early iron workers faced.
8. (a) Give three examples of external contacts Africa had before colonialism. (b) Explain two effects of trade with the Arab world on African societies. (c) Describe one impact of European exploration on Africa.
SECTION C (30 Marks)
Answer any two (2) questions from this section. Each question carries 15 marks.
9. Discuss how industrial capitalism in Europe led to the colonization of Africa. Include  economic motives, competition among European powers, and technological  advantages.
10. Examine the structure of colonial administration in Africa. Explain its impact on local  governance, taxation, and economic exploitation.
11. Discuss the introduction of social services under colonial rule (education, health,  infrastructure). Explain both positive and negative impacts on African societies.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 237

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA PRESIDENT’S OFFICE – REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT 

FORM THREE ANNUAL EXAMINATION – 2025 

GEOGRAPHY 

TIME: 3 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Cellular phones and unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your answers in the spaces provided.
  5. All drawings should be neat and well-labeled.

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. Multiple Choice Questions (10 marks)

  • Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter in the answer booklet.

(i) Which of the following instruments is used to measure wind direction? 

  1. Thermometer 
  2. Anemometer 
  3. Wind vane 
  4. Barometer

(ii) Rift valleys are mainly formed due to: 

  1. Erosional activities 
  2. Compressional forces 
  3. Tensional forces 
  4. Denudation

(iii) Which type of climate is characterized by rainfall throughout the year and high humidity? 

  1. Mediterranean climate 
  2. Equatorial climate 
  3. Desert climate 
  4. Tundra climate

(iv) Which of the following is a secondary source of geographic information? 

  1. Aerial photographs 
  2. Topographic maps 
  3. Field observation 
  4. Textbooks

(v) The line that joins all places of equal rainfall on a map is called: 

  1. Contour 
  2. Isobar 
  3. Isohyet 
  4. Isotherm

(vi) Which of the following minerals is non-metallic? 

  1. Gold 
  2. Iron 
  3. Limestone 
  4. Copper

(vii) The process through which sand and pebbles grind against the riverbed and banks is known as:

  1. Attrition 
  2. Abrasion 
  3. Solution 
  4. Hydraulic action

(viii) Which one of the following is a human factor influencing population distribution? 

  1. Fertility of soils 
  2. Climate 
  3. Political stability 
  4. Relief

(ix) The boundary between the Earth’s crust and the mantle is called: 

  1. Asthenosphere 
  2. MohoroviÄić discontinuity 
  3. Core-mantle boundary 
  4. Lithosphere

(x) Which of the following renewable energy sources is mostly developed in Tanzania? 

  1. Wind power 
  2. Solar power 
  3. Hydroelectric power 
  4. Geothermal power

2. Matching Items (6 marks)

Match the descriptions in List A with the correct terms in List B by writing the letter of the correct response. Each choice may be used once only.

LIST A LIST B

(i) The angular distance north or south of the equator.

(ii) A map that shows natural and man-made features of an area.

(iii) The process of determining the relative height of points on the earth's surface.

(iv) The ratio between the distance on a map and the corresponding distance on the ground.

(v) A drawing representing the earth's surface on a flat sheet.

(vi) The point where latitude is measured from.

  1. Contour survey
  2. Map
  3. Scale
  4. Latitude
  5. Topographic map
  6. Equator
  7. Longitude
  8. Sketch map

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section. Each question carries 9 marks .

3. Carefully study the map extract of Kigoma sheet (92/3) and answer the questions that follow

(a) Calculate the length of Uvinza road in kilometers from grid reference 020635 to grid reference 950648

(b) Describe with evidence two methods used to show relief features from the map

(c) Citing evidence from the map, suggest three economic activities and two social activities that are taking place on the mapped area

(d) With evidence from the map describe any three functions of Kigoma town

(e) With evidence outline three types of settlement patterns from the map

(f) State three factors that might affect the content of a topographical map given.

4. Survey

During a school fieldwork exercise, students were assigned to carry out a chain survey around the school compound. (a) Explain three reasons why chain survey is suitable for such a task.

(b) Mention two challenges the students might encounter while using the chain survey method. (c) Describe two precautions to be taken when booking field data.

5. Photography

Study the photograph below and answer questions that follows;

(a) Differentiate between ground photographs and aerial photographs. (b) Suggest three human activities taking place in the area shown. (c) Explain two advantages of using photographs in geographical studies.

6. Statistics

The table below shows the production of maize in a certain district (in tonnes) from 2020 to 2024.

Year 2020 2021 2022 2023 2024
Maize Production 450 500 600 550 700

(a) Draw a simple line graph to represent the data. 

(b) Describe the trend of maize production from 2020 to 2024. (c) State two advantages of presenting data using graphs.

7. Forces Affecting the Earth

(a) Distinguish between endogenic and exogenic forces. 

(b) With examples, explain two effects of volcanic activities on human environment. (c) Describe one advantage and one disadvantage of earthquakes.

8. Structure of the Earth

(a) Outline three characteristics of the earth’s core. (b) Explain two roles of the atmosphere in supporting life. (c) Suggest two ways in which the biosphere interacts with the lithosphere.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section. Each question carries 15 marks .

9. Sustainable Mining Activities

Mining is one of the major economic activities in Tanzania but has led to several environmental problems. With reference to specific examples, discuss six sustainable mining practices that can promote both economic development and environmental conservation.

10. Sustainable Forestry

Deforestation is a serious environmental challenge in many parts of Africa. Using case studies from Tanzania , analyze the causes of deforestation and propose five strategies for promoting sustainable forestry .

11. Sustainable Use of Power and Energy Sources

Energy is vital for economic development, but unsustainable use of power sources contributes to global warming. With relevant examples, evaluate the importance of sustainable use of power and energy resources in Tanzania and suggest five measures to ensure their sustainability.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 236

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA
PRESIDENT’S OFFICE – REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT FORM THREE ANNUAL EXAMINATION – 2025
BASIC MATHEMATICS Time: 3 Hours
Instructions  
This paper will consist of sections A and B with a total of 14 questions
Answer all questions in both sections A and B
Section A will carry 60 marks and section B will carry 40 marks
Mathematical tables/ Calculator may be used
Write your Examination number on the top right corner of your answer booklet  provided. Use R = 6400 and π= 3.14
SECTION A (60 MARKS)
1. (a) Write a number in which O represents hundreds, 7 represents ten thousands, 3  represents ones, 9 represents thousands, 6 represents hundred thousand and 8  represents tens.
(b) Convert   and 360% to decimal, then approximate their products to one  significant figure.
(c) 14 - [−2 − (8 ÷ 2) + 5]
2. (a) If log 2 = 0.3010, Find the value of log 5 , without using mathematical table
(b)If (3 x+1 )(2 2y+9 ) = 69984 find the values of x and y.
(c)Simplify by rationalizing the denominator of
3. (a) In a class of 60 students, 40 students like History, 36 students like Geography, 24  students like both subjects. Find the number of students who like;
image
(i) history only (ii) geography only
(iii) either history or geography (iv) neither history nor geography (b) When a fair die is  tossed, find the probability that the number obtained is,
(i) more than five (ii) at least one (iii) at most six.
4. (a) Prove that the exterior angle of a cyclic quadrilateral is equal to the opposite  interior angle. (b) The area of the regular polygon inscribed in a circle is 2268 cm 2 . If the  polygon has 9 sides, find the,
(i) perimeter of the circle (ii) perimeter of the polygon
5. (a) Mwamwenda received Kshs 1,000,000 from his brother in Kenya. How much did he  get inTanzanian currency (Tshs) if one Kenyan shilling was equivalent to 12.5 Tanzanian  shilling?
(b) The energy ( E ) stored in an elastic band varies as the square of the extension ( ).  When the elastic band is extended by 4 cm, the energy stored is 240 joules. What is the  energy stored when the extension is 6 cm? What is the extension when the stored  energy is 60 joules?
6. (a) Asha is three years older than her brother Juma. Three years to come the product  of their ages will be 130 years.
(i) Formulate the quadratic equation representing the information above.
(ii) Use the quadratic formula to find the present age of Asha and Juma.
(b) Solve the equation by completing the square. 2x 2  − 3x − 5 = 0
7. (a) Twice the length of rectangle exceeds three times the width of rectangle by one  centimeter. If one third of the difference of the length and the width is one centimeter,  find the dimensions of the rectangle.
(b) A piece of a copper wire which is 56cm long is bent to form a rectangle of area  171cm 2 . Find the dimensions of rectangle formed.
8. The following information refers to MR Kajasho’s trade as is at 31 th  October 2022
Sales ……………………………………………………………400,000/=
Gross profit ……………………………………………………..25% of sales
Opening stock ………………………………………………….. 20% of cost of sales
Expenses ……………………………………………………….. 10% of gross profit
Closing stock …………………………………………………… 120,000/=
Calculate;
(a) Opening stock
(b) Cost of sales
(c) Purchases
(d) Net profit
(e) Expenses
9. (a) A students had two plant seedlings. She measured the rate at which the seedlings  were growing.
Seedling A grew 5 cm in 10 days and seedling B grew 8 cm in 12 days.
Which seedling was growing more quickly?
(b)Suppose x varies directly as y square andinversely as p. if x=2, when y=3 and p=1,  Find the value of y when x=4 and p=5.
10. (a) Kabujage Saved Tshs 6 million in a savings Bank whose interest rate was 100%  compounded annually.
Find the amount in Kabujages’s savings accounts after 5 years
(b) A small business sells products with 1,000,000tshs during its first year. The owner of  the business has set a goal of increasing annual sales by Tshs 750,000 each year.  Assuming this goal is met. Find the total sales during the first 10 years of the business in  operation
SECTION B: (40 MARKS)
11. (a) Use completing the square to solve the quadratic equation x 2  + 18x +28 = 0
(b) When 6 is divided by a certain number, the result is the same as when 5 is added to  the number and that sum divided by 6. Find the number.
12. (a)The marks in basic Mathematics terminal Examination obtained by 40 students in  one of the secondary school in Katavi were as follows;
60, 54, 48, 43, 37 61, 43, 66, 65, 52, 37, 81, 70, 48, 63, 74, 67, 52, 48, 37, 48 42, 43, 52, 52,  22, 27, 37,44 38, 29, 19, 28 36, 42, 47, 36, 52, 50, 28.
i. Prepare a frequency distribution table with class intervals 10 – 19, 20 – 29, etc.
ii. Find the class which contain the median
iii. Find the mean
iv. Calculate the median.
13. (a)(i)Without using table of values draw the graph of f(x)= x 2  + 2x – 4
(ii) State domain and range of f(x)
(b)A transport company is hired to transport 420 people. It has two types P and Q of  vehicles to be used. Type P carries 35 passengers and type Q carries 14 passengers.  There are at least 10 vehicles of type Q and not more than 9 vehicles of type P. Write  inequalities to represent this information 
14. (a) The fifth term of an arthmetic progression (A.P) is zero and the tenth term is 10.  Find the first term and the common difference.
(b) The sum of three consecutive terms of G.P is 19. If their product is 216, find those  terms.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 235

1
PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES
FORM THREE ANNUAL EXAMINATION
CODE: 022 ENGLISH LANGUAGE
TIME: 3 Hours    NOVEMBER-    2025

INSTRUCTIONS
1. This paper consists of section  A B  and  C  with a total of eleven (11) questions.
2. Answer  all  questions in section  A  and  B  and three (03) questions from section C.
3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section  B  carries fifty four (54) marks and section  C  carries  thirty (30) marks.
4. Cellular phones and any  unauthorised  materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5. Write your  examination number  on every page of your answer booklet(s).
SECTION A (16 Marks)
 Answer all questions in this section
1. For each of the item  (i) – (x)  Choose the most correct answer from the given alternatives and write  its letter besides the item number in the answer sheet provided.
i. “If I had known this, I would have not endangered my life.” This sentence has been used:
A. In the situation which always true if something happen.
B. To show that something or an event is impossible to occur/take place because it concerns only  on past situations with hypothetical results. 
C. To provide an imagery results for a given situation.
D. To describe the probable situation.
E. To show the likely situation.
ii. Your friend once asked, did you went to school yesterday? You realize the sentence was wrong.  How was she could supposed to ask such question?
A. Does you went to school yesterday?
B. Does you go to school yesterday? 
C. Were you going to school yesterday?
D. Were you went to school yesterday?
E. Did you go to school yesterday?
iii. The boy  whom  you saw yesterday is my nephew. The bolded word function as

A. The doer of an action. 
B. A possession or belongingness 
C. The object of a verb or preposition
D. An interrogative
E. Demonstrative pronoun.
iv. If you have been selected by your teacher to pronounce some of English words like psychology,  know, knew and . What would you observe from those words?
A. The presence of new word 
B. The presence of silent letters
C. You will never find the word in a dictionary
D. It cannot pronounced well 
E. No pronunciation of that word.
v. A topic to be discussed in debate is called “motion” during the debate, the term argue for or  against the motion you say; I am here to oppose or to propose the motion which 
A. Say that
B. Talked that 
C. Said that 
D. States that
E. Talk about.
vi. Chausiku told me, “Don’t come to the class today.” How can this sentence be changedto reported  speech?
A. Chausiku told me not to the class that day.
B. Chausiku told me not to come to the class that day.
C. Chausiku told me not to come to the class the following day.
D. Chausiku told me not to come to the class only that day. 
E. Chausiku said to me that don’t come to the class today.
vii. In formal letters, the salutation is very brief and sometime it may be specific by addressing  someone’s as Dear Sir or Dear Madam to show:
A. The writer do not know the recipient
B. The recipient is in the same company
C. The recipient is in different company
D. The recipient is not there 
E. The writer knows the recipient.
viii. “It might rain today.” The modal auxiliary verb might show probability of having rain. What does  this statement based on?
A. Observation 
B. Fact 
C. Opinion
D. Suggestion
E. Calculation
ix.  A  boy is outside. The bolded article used to mean
A. A boy is outside is not known 
B. A boy who is outside is known to everyone.
C. A boy who is outside is handsome 
D. A boy who is outside have permitted
E. A boy who is outside is a student.
x. No one in our class has ever been accused .....................
A. By 
B. For 
C. At 
D. Of 
E. In
2. Match each statement in  List A  with its appropriate collective nouns in List B by writing its letter  beside the corresponding item number in the answer sheet.


SECTION B (54 Marks)
Answer  all  questions in this section
3. (a) Fill the gaps with the correct form of the word into the brackets.
(i)There is a ........................for all members of the committee to meet (notify)
(ii)The wind causes a lot of .................................. (destroy)
(iii)The Police asked him to give a ....................................of the thief. (describe)
(iv) There was no .......................that Prisca had stolen his golden watch. (prove) 
(b)You are given definitions of some concepts in English language. Replace them by writing a single  verb.
(i)Make something bigger or to become bigger ................................
(ii) To make somebody poor .........................................
(iii)To make something shorter or to become shorter ....................................... 
(iv)To make something pure by removing substances that are dirty, harmful or not wanted …..
4. State the type of pronoun(s) in the bolded words.
i . Who  came yesterday? 
ii.  That  is my phone. 
iii.  This  car is ours. 
iv. The child  who  came yesterday is mine.
v. The man  whom  you mate that day is my father.
5. Suppose you were sent to a shop to buy some foodstuffs. How would you communicate with the  shopkeeper? Use the guidelines in (i-iii). 
i. How would you start the conversation?
ii. How would you ask for items you want to buy? 
iii. How would you ask for the price?
6. Match the following name in the box with the expressions provided after them.
House girl, dentist, oculist, optician, scullery, washroom, pedestrian, paediatrician
a. One who journeys on foot _________________________
b. A place where plates, dishes and other cooking utensils are washed up _______
c. One who attends diseases of the eye ________________________
d. One who attends sick children _______________________________
7. Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given after each.
i. Juma did not use computer. Salum did not use computer. Rewrite begin with neither ............nor
ii. The two friends are cooking delicious food. Begin: A delicious food ................... 
iii. No sooner had he left the house than it began to rain. Begin: Hardly ..................
iv. Although Leticia is poor, she is contended. Begin: Despite ...........................
8. Imagine you are Doctor Kamala. Reply the invitation below by giving reasons for your regret for the  event through telephone message.

The family of Mr & Mrs Chakupewa Of Upper Residential Area Kigogo Post
Is greatly honoured to invite the family of
Prof/Dr/Rev/Miss/ Mr&Mrs/Sheikh
Asukenie Mwandambo
To the special graduation party of their beloved daughter
Anense Chakupewa on 20 th  September 2024, that will be held at their residence from 5:00 pm to  11:30 pm .
RSVP
P.O. Box 1920 Dar es Salaam.
Mobile: 0719-181225
Section C (30 Marks)
Choose  two  questions under this section.
9. “Poets/poetesses always compose their work to reveal what are happening in our contemporary  societies”. Verify this statement by using two poems you have studied. (Give  three  points per poem)
10. Show how literary works are relevant to our current societies by using two plays you have studied.
11. “Women play a great role to change their societies positively.”Justify this statement using two  novels you have studied under this section.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 234

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA
PRESIDENT’S OFFICE – REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT FORM THREE ANNUAL EXAMINATION – 2025
COMMERCE Time: 3 Hours
INSTRUCTIONS  
1. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C.
2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
3. Write your answers in the spaces provided.
4. Use clear explanations, diagrams, and examples where appropriate.
SECTION A (15 Marks)
1. Multiple Choice Questions (10 marks)
Choose the correct answer and write its letter in the answer sheet provided.
(i) Commerce can best be defined as: A. The buying and selling of goods only B. The distribution of goods and services from producers to consumers C. Activities of producing goods only D. The exchange of services for money
(ii) Which of the following is  NOT  an example of production? A. Farming maize B. Teaching students C. Storing goods in a warehouse D. Consuming bread
(iii) The risk of loss of goods in transit is mainly covered by: A. Banking services B. Insurance C. Transport authority D. Warehousing
(iv) The entrepreneur who introduces new ideas and innovations in production is called: A. Trader
B. Marketer C. Creative entrepreneur D. Inventor
(v) Which of the following is an example of  domestic trade ? A. Importing sugar from Brazil B. Selling maize flour in a local market in Dodoma C. Exporting cloves to Europe D. Buying machinery from China
(vi) Which type of warehouse is usually owned by the government and open to all  traders? A. Bonded warehouse B. Public warehouse C. Private warehouse D. Wholesalers’ warehouse
(vii) According to the law of demand, other things remain constant, when the price of a  good increases: A. Demand increases B. Demand decreases C. Supply decreases D. Consumers’ income increases
(viii) Which of the following is the cheapest means of transport for bulky goods over  long distances? A. Road transport B. Rail transport C. Air transport D. Water transport
(ix) Which method of business communication is most suitable for reaching a large  audience quickly? A. Business letter B. E-mail C. Telephone call D. Mass media advertising
(x) Which one is a visible item in international trade? A. Tourism services
B. Export of gold C. Banking services D. Insurance cover
2. Matching Items (6 marks)
Match the items in  List A  with the correct responses in  List B  by writing the letter of the  correct response beside the item number.


SECTION B (54 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section. Each question carries  9 marks .
3. (a) Briefly explain the scope of commerce. (3 marks) (b) Differentiate between commerce and economics. (3 marks) (c) Draw a well-labelled diagram showing the major branches of commerce. (3 marks)
4. A small village in Kilimanjaro region is famous for coffee production. Young people  have started forming groups to process and package coffee for sale.
(a) Identify three types of production involved in this case. (3 marks) (b) Explain three roles of entrepreneurship in this scenario. (3 marks) (c) Mention three challenges likely to face these entrepreneurs. (3 marks)
5. (a) Define domestic trade. (3 marks) (b) Explain three differences between wholesale and retail trade. (3 marks) (c) With a diagram, show three types of warehouses. (3 marks)
6. A trader sells tomatoes in Kariakoo Market. When the price rises from Tsh 500 to Tsh  800 per kilogram, customers buy fewer tomatoes.
(a) State the law of demand. (3 marks) (b) Explain two factors (other than price) that may affect the demand for tomatoes. (3  marks) (c) Draw and label a demand curve for tomatoes. (3 marks)
7. (a) Explain the importance of transport in commerce. (3 marks) (b) State three modern means of business communication. (3 marks) (c) With examples, explain how poor transport and communication systems affect trade.  (3 marks)
8. (a) Define business finance. (3 marks) (b) Explain two sources of finance for small businesses. (3 marks) (c) State three differences between international trade and domestic trade. (3 marks)
SECTION C (30 Marks)
Answer  two (2)  questions from this section. Each question carries  15 marks .
9.  “Unsustainable production and trade practices have negative effects on society and  the environment.” With reference to examples, discuss how  sustainable production and marketing  practices  can benefit Tanzania.
10.  International trade is important for the economic development of a country. Discuss  five benefits and five challenges  of international trade in Tanzania.
11.   “Proper financial management is key to the survival of any business enterprise.” Discuss this statement by explaining the importance of business finance and the  consequences of poor financial management in enterprises.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 233

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT 

FORM THREE ANNUAL EXAMINATION 

011 CIVICS 

Time: 3 Hours NOVEMBER, 2025

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C.
  2. Answer all questions  in sections A and B and  two (2)  questions from section C.
  3. Write your answers in the spaces provided in the answer booklet.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination  room.
  5. All drawings should be neat and labeled where applicable.

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given and write its letter in  your answer booklet.

(i) One of the major causes of poverty in Tanzania is: 

  1. Excessive use of technology 
  2. Overdependence on foreign aid 
  3. Good infrastructure 
  4. Low illiteracy levels

(ii) Which of the following is a  life skill ? 

  1. Reading newspapers 
  2. Effective communication 
  3. Eating balanced diet 
  4. Sleeping regularly

(iii) The constitution of Tanzania guarantees citizens the right to: 

  1. Overthrow government 
  2. Equal protection before the law
  3. Avoid paying taxes 
  4. Disobey laws freely

(iv) Which organ is responsible for making laws in Tanzania? 

  1. The Cabinet 
  2. The Judiciary 
  3. The Parliament 
  4. The Executive

(v) Gender equality means: 

  1. Women should dominate men 
  2. Equal opportunities for both men and women 
  3. Men should always be leaders 
  4. Women should avoid politics

(vi) A good leader is best described as one who: 

  1. Forces decisions without listening 
  2. Encourages teamwork and accountability 
  3. Uses power for personal gain 
  4. Ignores followers’ needs

(vii) The colours of the national flag represent all except: 

  1. Agricultural resources 
  2. National unity 
  3. Mineral wealth 
  4. Blood of martyrs

(viii) Which of the following is the  correct road safety practice ? 

  1. Crossing the road anywhere 
  2. Ignoring traffic lights 
  3. Using pedestrian crossings 
  4. Riding without helmet

(ix) The marriage law in Tanzania prohibits marriage below the age of: 

  1. 12 years 
  2. 14 years 
  3. 15 years 
  4. 18 years

(x) Responsible citizenship involves: 

  1. Disrespecting national symbols
  2. Evading taxes 
  3. Voting during elections 
  4. Engaging in corruption

2. Match the descriptions in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing  the letter of the correct response beside the item number.

LIST A  LIST B 
  1. The supreme law of the land 
  2. A system of rules governing road users 
  3. A national symbol that represents freedom 
  4. The leader of the executive arm of government 
  5. The act of showing love and attachment to one’s country 
  6. A union between a man and a woman recognized by law

  1. Road safety regulations 
  2. Constitution 
  3. Marriage 
  4. Patriotism 
  5. President 
  6. National Anthem

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section. Each question carries 9 marks.

3. Poverty in Tanzania remains a challenge despite efforts to fight it. (a) Define poverty. (b) Explain three causes of poverty in Tanzania. (c) Suggest three possible solutions to reduce poverty in Tanzania.

4. Study the diagram below carefully and then answer the questions that follow.

(a) Identify the diagram shown. 

(b) Explain the meaning of each colour in road safety. (c) Give three reasons why road safety education is important for citizens.

5. (a) Define leadership. 

(b) Outline three qualities of a good leader. 

(c) Explain three importance of life skills to youth.

6. (a) Define the term “Constitution.” 

(b) Give three functions of the Constitution of Tanzania. 

(c) Explain three consequences of violating constitutional provisions.

7. (a) Define social development. 

(b) Describe three indicators of economic development in Tanzania. 

(c) Suggest three ways in which citizens can promote social development.

8. (a) Define courtship. 

(b) Give three importance of courtship before marriage. (c) Explain three problems that may result from early marriage.


SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer any two (2) questions from this section. Each question carries 15 marks.

9. “Gender equality is vital for national development.”  Discuss this statement with  reference to Tanzania.

10. With vivid examples, analyze the responsibilities of good citizenship in  Tanzania today.

11. Life skills help young people to cope with daily challenges. Examine the role of  life skills in promoting responsible behavior among Tanzanian youth.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 232

UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA
PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
FORM THREE ANNUAL EXAMINATION-NOVEMBER-2025 CHEMISTRY Time: 3 Hours
INSTRUCTIONS
1. This paper consists of  three sections A, B and C .
2. Answer  all questions in Sections A and B , and  two (2) questions only  from Section  C.
3. Write your answers clearly in the answer booklet provided.
4. Show all necessary working in numerical calculations.
5. All diagrams must be neat and in pencil.
SECTION A (16    Marks)
1. Choose the correct answer and write its letter in your answer booklet.
(i) Which one of the following represents a mixture? A. Pure water B. Sodium chloride C. Air D. Copper
(ii) The correct number of protons, neutrons and electrons in the isotope  14 6 C is: A. 6, 8, 6 B. 6, 6, 8 C. 8, 6, 6 D. 6, 14, 6
(iii) The main gas collected when zinc reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid is: A. Oxygen B. Hydrogen C. Carbon dioxide D. Chlorine
(iv) Which one of the following methods is suitable for separating salt from sea water? A. Filtration B. Distillation C. Chromatography D. Decantation
(v) Temporary hardness of water can be removed by: A. Adding sodium carbonate solution B. Boiling C. Passing through ion-exchange resin D. Adding slaked lime
(vi) Which pair represents alkali metals in the Periodic Table? A. Sodium and Calcium B. Sodium and Potassium C. Magnesium and Calcium D. Zinc and Copper
(vii) In electrolysis of copper (II) sulphate using copper electrodes, the cathode reaction  is: A. Cu → Cu²âº + 2eâ» B. Cu²âº + 2eâ» → Cu C. 2H⺠+ 2eâ» → Hâ‚‚ D. O²â» → ½Oâ‚‚ + 2eâ»
(viii) Which compound has a covalent bond? A. Sodium chloride B. Magnesium oxide C. Carbon dioxide D. Potassium oxide
(ix) Which of the following equations is balanced correctly? A. Hâ‚‚ + Oâ‚‚ → Hâ‚‚O B. 2Hâ‚‚ + Oâ‚‚ → 2Hâ‚‚O C. 2Hâ‚‚ + 2Oâ‚‚ → Hâ‚‚O D. Hâ‚‚ + ½Oâ‚‚ → Hâ‚‚Oâ‚‚
(x) Which one of the following is a transition metal? A. Sodium B. Potassium
C. Iron D. Magnesium
2. Match the items in  List A  with those in  List B  by writing the correct letter of the  answer.


SECTION B (54 Marks) 3. (a) State three differences between elements, compounds and mixtures. (3 marks) (b) A student was given a sample of muddy water. Describe how he could obtain pure  water from it. (3 marks) (c) Write a balanced chemical equation for the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide. (3  marks)
4.The diagram below shows the laboratory preparation of oxygen gas.

(a) Name the reagents used and state their roles. (3 marks) (b) Write a balanced equation for the reaction. (3 marks) (c) State two uses of oxygen. (3 marks)
5. (a) Define the term  mole . (3 marks) (b) How many moles of sodium hydroxide are contained in 40 g of NaOH? (Na = 23, O  = 16, H = 1). (3 marks) (c) Calculate the volume of hydrogen gas produced at STP when 6 g of magnesium  reacts completely with dilute hydrochloric acid. (Mg = 24, Molar volume at STP = 22.4  dm³). (3 marks)
6. (a) Define electrolysis. (3 marks) (b) Describe what happens at the anode and cathode during electrolysis of dilute  sulphuric acid using inert electrodes. (3 marks) (c) State two applications of electrolysis in industry. (3 marks)
7. A student carried out a titration experiment using sodium hydroxide and hydrochloric  acid.
(a) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction. (3 marks) (b) Why is methyl orange a suitable indicator for this titration? (3 marks) (c) Mention two laboratory apparatus required to perform this titration accurately. (3  marks) 8. (a) Define chemical equilibrium. (3 marks) (b) Explain what happens to the position of equilibrium when pressure is increased in  the Haber process. (3 marks) (c) State any three industrial uses of ammonia. (3 marks)
SECTION C (30 Marks)
Answer two (2) questions only. Each question carries 15 marks. 9. Discuss the methods used for the  extraction of metals  from their ores. Give specific  examples of metals and the methods applied. (15 marks)
10. Explain the causes of  hardness of water , distinguishing between temporary and  permanent hardness. Describe methods of removing each type of hardness. (15 marks)
11. Using well-illustrated examples, discuss the  importance of Chemistry laboratory  safety  in schools and industries. (15 marks)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 231

UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA
PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
FORM THREE ANNUAL EXAMINATION BIOLOGY Time: 3 Hours
INSTRUCTIONS
1. This paper consists of  three sections A, B and C .
2. Answer  all questions in Sections A and B , and  two (2) questions only  from  Section C.
3. Write your answers clearly in the answer booklet provided.
4. All drawings should be done in pencil and labeled clearly.
5. Cellular processes should be explained using scientific language.
SECTION A (16 Marks)
1.Choose the correct answer and write its letter in your answer booklet.
(i) Viruses are considered to be at the border between living and non-living organisms  because: A. They contain chlorophyll B. They reproduce only inside living cells C. They have cell walls and nuclei D. They possess ribosomes
(ii) Which of the following is  NOT  a characteristic of Kingdom Monera? A. Unicellular B. Prokaryotic C. Cell wall present D. Membrane-bound nucleus
(iii) Bryophytes depend on moist environments mainly because: A. They lack true roots B. They lack chloroplasts C. They lack stems D. They cannot photosynthesize
(iv) Immunity that involves antibodies transferred from mother to child through breast  milk is: A. Active immunity
B. Passive immunity C. Innate immunity D. Acquired immunity
(v) Which group of plants does not have well-developed vascular tissues? A. Pteridophyta B. Bryophyta C. Angiosperms D. Gymnosperms
(vi) Which one is a carbohydrate food? A. Meat B. Beans C. Bread D. Eggs
(vii) The basic unit of life is: A. Tissue B. Cell C. Organ D. System
(viii) The relationship between a lion and a zebra is: A. Mutualism B. Commensalism C. Predation D. Parasitism
(ix) During inspiration in humans, the diaphragm: A. Relaxes and moves upwards B. Contracts and moves downwards C. Relaxes and moves downwards D. Contracts and moves upwards
(x) The most accurate instrument for measuring liquid volume in a laboratory is: A. Test tube B. Burette C. Beaker D. Petri dish
2. Match the items in  List A  with those in  List B  by writing the correct letter of the  answer.
SECTION B (54 Marks)
3. (a) State two differences between viruses and bacteria. (3 marks) (b) Why are viruses considered obligate parasites? (3 marks) (c) Draw and label the structure of a virus. (3 marks)
4. Study the diagram of a plant cell below:


  (a) Name the structures labeled A–E. (3 marks) (b) Give two functions of structure B and structure E. (3 marks) (c) Mention two differences between plant and animal cells. (3 marks)
5. A farmer planted beans in his farm. After some time, some plants wilted even though  the soil was moist.
(a) Give three reasons that might have caused the wilting. (3 marks) (b) Explain the process of translocation in plants. (3 marks) (c) Why is translocation important to plants? (3 marks)
6. (a) Define gaseous exchange. (3 marks) (b) Using a diagram, show the structure of alveoli and explain how it is adapted to its  function. (3 marks) (c) Name two respiratory diseases in humans and how they can be controlled. (3 marks)
7. (a) Distinguish between excretion and egestion. (3 marks) (b) State the importance of homeostasis in animals. (3 marks) (c) Explain how the body regulates its temperature during very cold conditions. (3  marks) 8. During vigorous exercise, muscles require more energy.
(a) State two sources of energy in a cell. (3 marks) (b) Explain the process of anaerobic respiration (fermentation) and write its equation. (3  marks) (c) What are the effects of lactic acid accumulation in muscles? (3 marks)
SECTION C (30 Marks)
Answer two (2) questions only. Each question carries 15 marks.
9. Discuss the  economic importance of fungi  to humans, showing both beneficial and  harmful effects. (15 marks) 10. Explain the role of  First Aid and safety measures  in saving lives and maintaining  health in our communities. (15 marks) 11.With suitable examples, explain how  balance of nature  is maintained in natural  ecosystems and describe the consequences of disrupting it. (15 marks)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 230

OFISI YA RAIS
 TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA
MTIHANI WA MWISHO WA MUHULA WA KWANZA
KISWAHILI
KIDATO CHA TATU
021
MUDA: SAA 2:30 MEI 2025

MAELEKEZO:
1. Mtihani huu una sehemu tatu ambazo ni A, B na C yenye jumla ya maswali  kumi na  moja (11)
2. Jibu maswali yote kutoka sehemu A na B, na maswali  mawili(2)  kutoka sehemu C  ambapo swali la  kumi (10)  ni lazima.
3. Zingatia maelekezo ya kila sehemu
4. Zingatia matumizi sahihi ya alama za uandishi na lugha fasaha
1. herufi ya jibu sahihi katika vipengele (i) hadi (x) kisha uandike herufi ya jibu katika  nafasi uliyopewa
i. “Mwalimu alimcharaza kisawasawa” kiambishi cha nafsi ya tatu katika kitenzi  kilichopo ni
A. Ni
B. Charaza
C. Mimi
D. A
ii “Uvumilivu” ulimfanya zawadi apate zawadi ,uvumilivu ni aina gani ya neno
A. Nomino
B. Kitenzi 
C. Kivumishi
D. Kiwalikilshi.
iii.  Hainog i   ni kijana hodari. Neno lilopigiwa mstari ni aina gani ya neno


A. Kiunganishi
B. Kiwakilishi
C. Nomino
D. Kivumishi
iv Mkuu wa mkoa akiondoka uondoke naye .Sentensi hii ipo katika wakati gani?
A. Ujao
B. Timilifu
C. Shurutia
D. Uliopo
v. Neno lipi kati ya haya yafuatayo ni kitendo pia nomino
A. Lima
B. Fua
C. Kaa
D. Tamaa
vi. Amina huimba nyimbo katika utaratibu wa kupandisha na kushusha sauti yake.  Uimbaji huo humvutia kila anayemsikiliza. Je utaratibu huu kiisimu hujulikana kama?
A. Mkazo
B. Kiimbo
C. Lafudhi
D. Kitomeo
vii “Walilima, wakapanda”. Je hii ni aina gani ya sentensi?
A. Sahili
B. Ambatano
C. Shurutia
D. Changamano
viii Jumla ya silabi zinazounda mshororo huitwaje?
A. Vina
B. Bahari
C. Mizani
D. Muwala
ix “Nimekufia mtoto mzuri”. Huu ni mtindo gani wa lugha?
A. Simo
B. Methali
C. Msemo
D. Rejesta
x “Shangazi yupo shambani kwake” kifungu hiki cha maneno kipo katika ngeli ipi?
A. I – ZI
B. YU – A – WA
C. PA – MU – KU
D. KI – VI
2. Oanisha maana ya dhana zilizopo katika  Orodha B  kwa kuoanisha na maneno husika  katika  Orodha A  kisha andika jibu sahihi.


SEHEMU B (Alama 54)
3. Mwalimu wa kidato cha nne aliwaambia wanafunzi wake waunde maneno mapya.  Bainisha njia tisa walizotumia kuunda maneno hayo na kwa kila njia toa mfano mmoja.
4. (a) Sentensi za Kiswahili hujipambanua kwa sifa zake. Taja  nne (4)  
(b) Changanua sentensi ifuatayo kwa mkabala wa kimuundo
(i) Watu wote walimsikiliza Rais (Kwa njia ya matawi)
5. Katika kila sentensi onesha kiima na kiarifu kwa kutenga na mstari kisha andika K kwa  kiima na A kwa kiarifu
i. mama amelala sakafuni
ii. asha si mkorofi
iii. mwanafunzi aliefaulu amepewa zawadi
iv. yule kijana aliyekuja hapa juzi jioni amefaulu
v. watoto wote ni watundu
6. (a) Wewe kama mwanafunzi bora wa fasihi waambie wazazi kwa kifupi sana madhara  manne yatakayotokana na ukosefu wa elimu ya kijinsia. Tumia tamthilia ya KILIO CHETU
(b) Tambulisha kazi nne za viambishi na kisha toa mfano mmoja kwa kila kazi
7. (a) Eleza dhima za mofimu  “li”  kama ilivyotumika katika sentensi zifuaatazo:-
i. Shamba letu  l i kubwa sana.
ii. Wa li chelewa kurudi.
iii. Tuna li fuatilia
iv. Li meharibika
v. Shiki li a
(b) Andika sentensi zifuatazo katika hali ya ukanushi.
i. Ameshiba sana
ii. Watoto wengi wanaogelea
iii. Mvua ilinyesha kwa wingi sana
iv. Kijana anakula chakula kingi sana
8. (a) Utata katika mawasiliano husababishwa na mambo mengi.Taja sababu Tano (5)  zinazosababisha Utata katika lugha.
(b) "Tabibu mzuri ni yule anayejua njia za kutibu ugonjwa"ukitumia msemo huu onesha  njia nne (4) zinazoweza kuondoa Utata katika lugha.
SEHEMU C. (Alama 30)
Jibu maswali  mawili (2)  kutoka katika sehemu hii, Swali la  kumi  ni lalazima.
ORODHA YA VITABU 
USHAIRI
Wasatonge   –  M. S Khatibu (DUP)
Malenga wapya   -  TAKILUKI (DUP)
Mashairi ya chekacheka   -  T. A. Mvungi (EP& D. LTD)
RIWAYA
Takadini   -  Ben. J. Hanson (MBS)
WAtoto wa mama N’tilie -  E. Mbogo(H.P)
Joka la mdimu   -  A. J. Safari (H.P)
TAMTHILIYA
Orodha   -  Steve Reynolds (M)
Ngoswe penzi kitovu cha uzembe   -  E. Semzaba(ESC)
Kilio Chetu   -  Medical Aid Foundation (TPH)
9. Soma shairi lifuatalo kwa makini kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata.
Halizuki somo bora, kuliko makosa yetu, Kosa halina sogora, hulitenda kila mtu, Zingatia kwa imara, kukosa tabia kwetu.
Kosa likija mapema, kuongoka si vigumu, Hutengeza mambo vema., utakayo yakatimu, Hapana kurudi nyuma, na kulegeza hatamu.
Kosa hukuza fikra, na mnyama kuwa mtu, Kisha huamsha mara, bidii na ari zetu, Ria zetu hudorora, mpaka tukose kitu,
Kila kiumbe lazima, kosa lake kufahamu, Ya kuwa ni sura njema, asome aihitimu, Ndipo awapo mzima, fahamu kuwa timamu.
Makosa yakitukera, ndipo tuzukapo watu, Na uwezo na busara, kutafuta cheo chetu, Tukapigana kwa ghera, ushindi ukawa wetu.
Njoo mapema lawama, mwili ungali mgumu, Usije nina kilema, nimetokwa na fahamu, Njoo ningali mzima, sijakuwa  mahamumu
Makosa yana tijara, kwa  kutanabahi  mtu, Kwamba ndipo ishara, ya kupigania utu, Mpaka tutie fora, katika matendo yetu.
Kosa kitu cha daima, asiyekosa karimu, Aliyeumba wanyama, na ndege na wanadamu, Wenye maungo kuuma, na wa uvundo wa damu.
Makosa sikuyabera,  silika  ya kila mtu, Tena yana hasara, ilo nzito kwa watu, Walakini ni tohara, bora ya Maisha yetu.
Hapa mwisho wa  kilima , na shairi limetimu, Likiwa refu si jema, halitakuwa na tamu, Wazee wetu husoma, tungo ni ladha na hamu.
MASWALI
(a) Eleza maana ya maneno yaliyokolezwa wino kama yalivyotumika katika shairi  ulilosoma
(b) Andika kichwa cha shairi hili kisichopungua maneno matano (5)
(c) Taja aina ya tamathali ya semi iliyotumika katika ubeti wa tisa (9)
(d) Bainisha aina ya kituo kilichotumiwa na msanii katika shairi hili.
(e) Eleza mambo  mawili (2)  yanayomfanya mshairi aamini kuwa hapana somo bora  kuliko makosa yetu.
10. Msanii yeyote wa kazi ya fasihi anafananishwa na mwavuli kwa jamii yake, kwa kuwa  anatumia macho yake kuona maovu yaliyomo katika jamii na hutumia kalamu yake  kuishauri na kuikinga jamii yake isipatwe na mabaya. Thibitisha kauli hii kwa kudadavua  maovu yaliyoibuliwa na waandishi wa riwaya mbili ulizosoma. Hoja tatu kwa kila riwaya.
11. Waandishi wengi wa fasihi hupenda kutumia jazanda mbalimbali katika kuelimisha  jamii katika maswala kadha wa kadha.Hivyo tumia jazanda mbalimbali kutoka diwani  mbili ulizosoma kuonesha walivyosaidia kuelimisha jamii.Toa hoja tati(3)wa Kila kitabu.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 229

OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, REGIONAL ADMINISTRTION AND LOCAL  GOVERNMENT
SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES
TERMINAL EXAMINATIONS-MAY-2025
MATHEMATICS FORM THREE
Instructions
This paper will consist of sections A and B with a total of 14 questions
Answer all questions in both sections A and B
Section A will carry 60 marks and section B will carry 40 marks
Mathematical tables/ Calculator may be used
Write your Examination number on the top right corner of your answer booklet provided.  Use R = 6400 and π= 3.14
SECTION A (60 MARKS)
1.(a) (i) Arrange the given numbers in ascending order of magnitude:
(ii)Evaluate the expression 13 - 2 x 3 +14 ÷ (2 +5).
(b) By listing the multiples of 2, 3 and 5, find the L.C.M of these numbers.
2. (a) Find the values of x and y that satisfy the equations
5 (x-2y)  = 25
3 2x  ÷ 3 y  = 3 4
(b)Solve the equation 4 +3log   3   x = log   3   24.
3. (a) Anna walks 24 km every day. Compute in metres, the distance she walks in 2 days.
(b) A dealer sells mattresses whose buying price is directly proportional to the selling price. If  the selling price and the buying price of one mattress are Tshs 20,000 and Tshs 18,000,  respectively, find;
(i) the equation that relates the buying price and the selling price.
(ii) the new selling price when the buying price is increased by 15%.
4. (a)Anna walks 24km every day. Find, in metres, the distance she walks in 2 days.
(b)(i)A dealer sells mattresses whose cost price (C) is directly proportional to the selling price(s).  If the selling price and the cost price of one mattress are Tsh. 20,000 and Tsh. 18,000,  respectively, find the constant of proportionality
(ii) By using the answer obtained in part (b)(i), determine the equation that relates the cost price  and the selling price.
5. (a)A damaged table that costs Tshs. 20,000 was sold at a loss of 15%. Find the loss made and 
(b)The fifth and eleventh terms of an arithmetic progression are 8 and -34 respectively. Find the  sum of the first ten terms.
6. (a)Express the equation  2t -10  - 3t -5  + 1  = 0 in term of x where 
(b)From the equation you obtained in part (a), find the value(s) of x that satisfy it by using the  quadratic formula.
7. (a) A piece of length 7.42 m is cut off from a string that is 13.5 m long. If the remaining part  of the string is divided into equal pieces of length 32 cm, how many pieces are there?
(b) The mass (M) which can be supported by a beam varies directly with the breadth (b) and  inversely with the length (l). If a beam of breadth 2 m and length 15 m can support a mass of 200  kg, what mass can be supported by a beam which is 3 m broad and 20 m long?
8. (a) What do the following terms mean as used in Accounts?
(i) Trading account
(ii) Profit and loss account
(iii) Balance sheet
(iv) Cash account
(b) A car which its buying price was shs 12,500,000 was sold at a loss of 20 percent. Find the  loss made and selling price.
9. (a) A farmer wants to plant 6 mango seedlings in a row at a fixed interval of 7 metres.
Determine the length of the row.
(b) If the fifth and the sixth terms of a Geometric Progression (G.P.) are 162 and 486  respectively, find the common ratio and the first term of the G.P.
10. (a) If   , find the values of a, b and c.
(b) (i) Solve equation 
(ii) Given log2=0.3010 and log3 =0.4771, find value of   
SECTION B. ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS
11. (a) (i) A line whose gradient is 3/ 2 has the x-intercept of - 3. Find the equation of the line in  the form  y=mx + c ,  where  m  and  c  are constants.
(ii) Find the length of a line segment joining the points (3,-2) and (15,3) .
(b) A boat sails due to North at speed of 120km/h and wind blows at speed of 40km/h due to  east. Find actual speed of the boat. Use   
12. (a) Rachel is three years older than her brother John. Three years to come, the product of  their ages will be 130 years. Formulate a quadratic equation representing this information.  Hence, by using the quadratic formula, find their present ages.
(b) The sum of square of two consecutive positive number is 61. Find the numbers.
13.The following data represent the marks scored by 36 students of a certain school in geography  examination
.
  (a)Prepare a frequency distribution table representing the given data by using the class intervals:  50 - 54, 55 -59, 60 - 64, and so on.
(b)Use the frequency distribution table obtained in part (a) to:
(i)Draw a histogram.
(ii)Calculate the median. Write the answer correct to 2 decimal places.
14.(a) Suppose a function   is defined by  f (x) = (x +  2) 2  , find the domain and range of the  inverse of the function  f .
 (b) A gardener has found that the time t to cut the grass on a square field varies directly as the  square of its length  (L)  and inversely as the number of men  (m)  doing that job. If 5 men cut grass  on a field of side 50 m in 3 hours, how many more men are required to cut grass on a field of  side 100 m in 5 hours? Assume that the men are working on the same pace.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 228

PRESIDENT'S OFFICE
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES
TERMINAL EXAMINATION MAY -2025
FORM THREE PHYSICS
Instructions
1. This paper consist of sections A, B and C with total of eleven (11) questions
2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries  thirty (30) marks
4. Non-Programmable calculators and mathematical table may be used.
5. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6. Where necessary the following constants may be used:
a. Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s  2
b. Density of water = 1.0 g/cm  3
c. Linear expansivity of brass = 19 × 10  −6 °C  −1
d. Linear expansivity of iron = 10 × 10  −6 °C  −1
e. Specific heat capacity of aluminium = 900 J/kg°C
SECTION A (16 Marks) 
Answer  all  question in this section
1. For each of the items  (i) - (x) , choose the correct answer form among the given alternatives  and write beside the item number in the answer sheet provided.
(i) A car is initially at rest on a flat road. The driver applies a force on the accelerator, and the car  starts moving forward. Which of the following correctly explains this situation?
A. The applied force causes the car to overcome inertia and accelerate.
B. The applied force increases the car's weight, causing it to move forward due to gravitational  force.
C. The applied force interacts with the car's fuel, generating a combustion force that propels the  car forward.
D. The applied force acts as a magnetic force, enabling the car to move forward through  electrostatic interactions.
E. The applied force causes the friction between the car and the road to decrease, allowing the  car to move forward.
(ii) In a wind turbine, which factor affects the amount of electricity generated the most?
A. Wind speed
B. Blade length
C. Wind direction
D. Turbine weight 
E. Turbine height
(iii) A group of students are setting up a system of pulleys to lift a heavy object. The weight of  the object is 400 N. They want to make it easier to lift the object by reducing the effort force  required. Which of the following arrangements of pulleys would be most suitable for this  purpose?
A. A single fixed pulley
B. A single movable pulley
C. A system with two fixed pulleys
D. A system with two movable pulleys 
E. A system with three fixed pulleys
(iv). Sam is measuring the temperature of a cup of hot coffee using two different thermometers.  The first thermometer has a resolution of 1°C, while the second thermometer has a resolution of  0.1°C. If the temperature of the coffee is 65.6°C, which thermometer will provide a more  accurate measurement?
A. The first thermometer 
B. The second thermometer
C. Both thermometers will provide equally accurate measurements 
D. None of the thermometers will provide an accurate measurement 
E. It is impossible to determine which thermometer is more accurate
(v). Heat would be lost in the thermos flask if the walls of the glass container were not coated  with silver. Which process contributes to this kind of heat loss?
A. Radiation
B. Conduction
C. Convection
D. Absorption
E. Transmission
(vi). In a light experiment, observing an object through a certain material showed that less light  was transmitted and the image was distorted. Which type of material was used
A. A translucent material
B. An opaque material
C. A luminous material
D. A transparent material
E. A non-luminous material
(vii) A bus carrying heavy load on its top carrier is likely to overturn because;
A. It runs faster 
B. Its center of gravity is low 
C. Its center of gravity is high
D. Its equilibrium is neutral 
E. It is at stable equilibrium
(viii) The extremely narrow bore on the liquid-in-glass thermometer in which the thermometric  liquid flows during expansion or contraction is known as;-
A. Capillary tube 
B. Steel index 
C. Stem 
D. Constriction 
E. Bore
(ix). A red tie was viewed by using light from a torch which was blue. The colour that was seen  was black. What happened to the blue colour from a torch when it met with red tie?
A. Reflection
B. Absorption
C. Transmission
D. Refraction
E. Diffraction
(x). Ntanguye was cooking ugali in a good conducting container, but she seems to use iron  handle which is covered by plastic at its holding handle to hold a cooking container. Why did she  use plastic handle and not iron?
A. It is good conductor of heat
B. Its particles are closely to each other
C. It reflects heat
D. It is a poor conductor of heat 
E. It is a good heat emitter
F.
2. Match the item in  list A  with the corresponding item in  list B  by writing the letter of the  correct response beside the item number in the answer sheet provided.


SECTION B: (54 Marks)
Answer  all  questions in this Section
3. (a) A body dipped in a liquid experiences an Upthrust. Explain three (03) factors on which the  upthrust depends.(04 Marks)
(b) Juma is an optician, he tested the eye sight and noticed that his client can only see division of  scale 1.5 mm in size at near point. He wishes to prescribe the spectacles such that each division  appear 9 mm when read through. Calculate the focal length of the lens he will fit into the frame  to make such spectacles. (05 Marks)
4. (a) Describe how a lens camera operates the same as human eye. Give three points  (06  marks)
 (b) Briefly explain how conduction of heat can be applied in your daily life(three reasons) (04  marks)
5. (a) Mr. Samwel put the coin on a card placed over the mouth of a bottle. When the card is  flicked away with the figure the coin drops neatly into the bottle.
 (i) Which law demonstrated by Mr.Samwel?  (01 mark)

 (ii) State the law identified in (i) above  (02 marks)
(b) A screw jack has a screw pitch of 5mm and the effort arm 16 cm 
 (i) State two forms of energy in which the energy supplied to the screw jack is finally converted   to (2 marks).
(ii) Determine the percentage efficiency of this screw jack, if it needs an effort of 30N to lift a   load of 750N. (0 4 marks)
6. (a) Briefly explain why are the doors and shelves of oven made loosely fitting?
(b) A steel bridge over a motor way is 20m long at 0  0 C.How much longer is it at 20  0 C?
7. (a) Explain with one reason as why Tanzania ports in Dar es Salaam and Zanzibar block and  tackle pulleys are commonly used.  [2 marks]
(b) Exactly explain to why the efficiency of a pulley system is always less than 100%. Give only  two reasons.  [2 marks]
(c) A wheel and axle with an efficiency of 90% is to be used to raise load of 10,000N. The radius  of the wheel is 40cm while that of axle is 5cm, calculate:
(i) The velocity ratio of the wheel and axle  [2 marks]
(ii) The mechanical advantage of the wheel and axle  [2 marks]  (iii) The effort required to raise  the 10,000N load  [2 marks] 
8. (a) Vectors are totally different from scalars in all aspects including direction. What do you  think are two conditions to be satisfied for two vectors to be equal?  [4 marks]
(b) State and explain practically the meaning of triangle law of vector addition.  [2 ½ marks]
(c) Two vectors, one of 8N and the other 6N, are acting on a body. Given that the two forces are  acting perpendicularly to each other. Find the magnitude of the third force which would just  counter balance the two forces.  [6 marks]
SECTION C (30 Marks)  Answer  only two  questions from this section.
9. (a) We say that acceleration due to gravity is constant only if we ignore air resistance. For  which situations can air resistance be ignored? (Give 3 situations)  (05marks)
(b) Explain why water is not used as a barometric liquid?  (05 marks)
(c) If a high power heater is connected to mains, then the bulbs in the house become dim. Why?  (05 marks)
10. (a) During a scuba diving session, a diver descends into the ocean. As the diver goes deeper,  does the pressure on their body increase or decrease? Explain your answer.
(b) In a collision between two objects, object A with a mass of 5 kg and object B with a mass of  3 kg, object A was initially at rest, and object B was moving with an initial velocity of 10 m/s .  After the collision, object A gained a velocity of 4 m/s in the opposite direction. Calculate the  velocity of object B after the collision.
11. (a) George Ohm observed that as the current flows through the circuit, it encounters some  opposition. This opposition determines the amount of current flowing in electric device  depending to the particular material.
(i) State the law that Mr. George formulate.  (02 marks)
(ii) Briefly explain factors affecting resistance of a conductor observed by Mr. George Ohm to  sum up his observation. ( 04 marks)
(b) (i) Distinguish between the concept of conductors, semiconductor and insulators in term of  energy bands  (04.5 marks)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 227

PRESIDENT'S OFFICE
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
TERMIAL EXAMINATION MAY 
FORM  THREE  ENGLISH
TIME: 2 HOURS YEAR 2025
INSTRUCTIONS
1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) of  questions
2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C 
3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, B forty (55) marks and section C carries  thirty (30) marks.
SECTION A (15)
Answer  all  question in this section
1. For each of the following items (i) _(x) choose the most correct answer from  among the given alternative and write its letter beside the item number in the  answer booklet provided
(i) Monica daredto insult her young brother ,the correct tag of the statement is
(a) Is she? 
(b) (b) Willshe? 
(c) (c) Doshe? 
(d) (d) Didn’t she? 
(e) (e) Did she?
(ii) In which tense is the sentence belong?“Mabula and Jege will have been  cultivating the farm by 6:o’clock “
(a) Present perfect continuous 
(b) present perfect
(c) Future perfect continuous 
(d) simple future 
(e) future perfect
(iii) The following are the components of invitation card except 
(a) Sender’s name 
(b) receiver’s address 
(c) purpose of the invitation 
(d) Date and time 
(e) R .S VP contacts /address
(iv) Which expression describes the word “plague”
(a) A group of students walking together 
(b) A large group of insects or locusts 
(c) A group of cats hunting together
(d) A team of lions matching together
(e) A band of musicians dancing together
(v) Our headmaster bought a car last year, the car was stolen after two weeks. Why  is the article “a” is instead of other articles?
(a) it show the time before the word “car”
(b) The first latter in the word “car” has consonant of qualities
(c) The word “car “is in plural form 
(d) It indicate a singular form 
(e) It indicate the second mention thing
(vi) Which one is the feature of conditional sentence type one?
(a) The main clause should be in simple present and second clause in simple future
(b) It should begin with conditional and with simple present
(c) The if clause should be in simple past
(d) It should have one clause
(e) It should be in past perfect in the main clause
(vii) Which sentence shows unfinished actions at a particular time in the past 
(a) He has drown many pictures until now
(b) We will have been eating Ugali before lunch time 
(c) They were studying mathematics when called 
(d) You are eating Ugali so far
 
(viii) Which statement is the passive voice of “you will be cultivating the farms”
(a) The farmers will be cultivated by you
(b) The farms will being cultivated by you
( c) The farms will be being cultivated by you
(d) The farms will been being cultivated by you
(e) The farms will have be cultivated by you
(ix) My teacher said the sentence of “they visited one another “ is the one which 
(a)Reflexive pronouns
(b) Shows possession of genitives
( c)Shows that one visited after the first visit
( d)Shows reciprocal pronoun
(e)Shows demonstrative possession
(x) Which one is the correct tag of “someone made a way with my book “
(a)didn’t he ? 
(b)don’t we? 
(c) didn’tthey? 
(d) Won’t she? /won’the?
(e)don’t he?
 2.   Match   the   item   in   column   “A”   with   their   corresponding   items   in   column   “B”   by  writing its letter against she questions number in the answer sheets provided


SECTION:B 55 (MARKS)
Answer  all  questions in the section
3. Change the following sentences into unfulfilled conditional
i) If he asks me, I will lend him some money
ii) If the bus leaves early , you will arrive there in time
iii) If William sees this mistake , he will be angry
iv)  If the war continues ,more refugees will pour into our country 
v)  If our team is beaten in the final, the coach will be blamed
4. Change the words in brackets by using appropriate prefix to make the  sentences meaningful 
i. That is awrong point ,I------ (agree) with you
ii. In simple past and past participle the verb “go’ is called------- (regular) verb
iii. Mabulahas done something wrong, therefore he -------(behave)to the society
iv. Mariam is not able to write , therefore is ------(capable)to copy the notes
v. Our team is -----(nation)wise
5. Write the correct question tag for the following sentences 
i. Open the door,
ii. Let us leave now,
iii. No one saw him,
iv. Neither of them complained
v. Edward lived here,
6. Change the direct statement into reported statements 
i. “what is your name?” the policeman asked me
ii. “sit here” he ordered me
iii. “I will bring you the money tomorrow “he told me
iv. ‘Are you footballer?’ he asked me
v. ‘Where are you going? ‘his father asked
7. Future expression can be presented in a number of ways .Construct one  sentence under each of the following ways to illustrate future expressions
i. The use of am+going to
ii. The use of is + about to
iii. The use of are + going to
iv. The use of verb be +going to
v. The use of going to
 8. Read the passage below carefully then answer the question that follows
Msela   was   a   boy   who   lived   at   Mapua   village.   The   boy   left   school   when   he   was   very  young   and   joined   the   street   children   due   to   peer   influence.   The   group   involved   in  stealing,   smoking   marijuana   and   other   evils.   Msela   really   enjoyed   the   company   and  he was a ring leader of all unwanted actions.
Some   years   later,   Msela’s   health   started   to   deteriorate.   He   was   serious   coughing.  As   days   went   on,   his   condition   became   worse.   One   day   msela   was   found   along   the  road   pavement   unconsciously.   The   good   hearted   people   took   him   to   the   hospital  where   he   diagnosed   with   tuberculosis   (TB).   Msela   was   admitted   so   that   he   could   be  monitored   and   attended   closely.   After   sometime,   he   started   to   recover   his   health  and finally was discharged.
Msela   decided   to   go   back   to   his   parents   and   ask   for   forgiveness.   His   parents   were  very   happy   to   see   their   son   has   become   a   good   person.   They   forgive   him   and  asked him never to go back to the past life.
QUESTIONS:
a) Why did Msela drop out of school?
b) What message do you get from the story?
c) What advice would you give to Msela?
d) Suggest the title of the story.
SECTION C (30 Marks)
Answer two (2) questions from this section,  Question number nine (09)  is  compulsory
9.   Imagine   that   you   have   been   selected   by   your   English   teacher   to   participate   in  debate   as   a   main   speaker   in   the   motion   which   state   that   “CHILD   LABOUR   SHOULD  BE ABOLISHED” Support the statement by using five points.
10.   With   example,   provide   short   explanation   on   the   following   terms   as   used   in  literature
I. Themes
II. Characters
III. Message
IV. Form
V. Content
VI. Figures of speech
11.   Poetry   is   very   different   from   other   genre   of   literature,   how   truth   is   this  statement.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 226

PRESIDENT'S OFFICE
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES
TERMINAL EXAMINATION MAY -2025
FORM THREE COMMERCE
Instructions
1. This paper consists of three section A, B and C with a total of  eleven (11)  questions.
2. Answer all questions from section A and B and two questions from section C.
3. Section A carries  sixteen (16) marks , section B carries  fifty four (54) marks  and section C  carries  thirty (30)  marks.
4. All writing should be in blue ink except  diagrams  which must be in pencil.
5. All communication devices and any  unauthorized  material are not allowed in the  examination room.
6. Write your  assessment number  at the top right corner of every page.
SECTION A: 16 MARKS
Answer  all  questions
1. For each of the items  (i –x)  choose the most from the given alternatives and write its letter  beside the item number in the answer sheet (booklet) provided.
(i) Suppose you have attended a commercial debate with the motion " auxiliary services are not necessary to traders" which option will you choose as correct to oppose the motion
A. Auxiliary service support producers and not traders
B. Auxiliary services attract more buyers hence low price for the go
C. Auxiliary services act as a link between traders and manufacturers
D. Auxiliary service is used to determine price of the goods produced
E. Auxiliary services facilitate trade to take place smoothly
(ii) Quantity supplied of rice increased from 500 tons to 10,000 tons during Christmas seasons in  2023. What do you think being main reason for this change?
A. Increase in income of consumers
B. Increase in population during the season
C. Increase in price of substitute goods of rice
D. Decrease in price of rice
E. Increase in price of rice
(iii) An entrepreneur should posse's different skills in order to succeed in any endeavour of his  choice. Which among the skills enable entrepreneurs to be able to get best resources such as  manpower, financial and physical resources for success of their venture?
A. Communication skills
B. Leadership and management skills
C. Planning and goals setting skills
D. Marketing skills
E. Networking skills
(iv) Suppose your desire is to own a telephone, your father bought a telephone of your choice in  your birthday ceremony. Which type of utility will you get by having your own telephone?
A. Possession utility
B. Form utility
C. Place utility
D. Marginal utility
E. Time utility
(v) Kb family produce maize for sale in the market. Which feature among the following illustrate  kind of production Kb family involved
A. Kb use simple tools
B. Kb applies division of labour
C. Kb produce maize in a small scale
D. Poor quality of goods produced by Kb
E. Kb produce maize for private use
(vi). Mlimani city is a well-known trading center in Dar es salaam city because it comprises of a  big number of businesses. What is a general term describing this type of trading centre?
A. Hypermarket
B. Departmental store
C. Supermarket
D. Tied shop
E. Chain store
(vii). A shift of demand curve from right to left reflects:
A. An increase in demand
B. A decrease in demand
C. An increase in price resulted from shortage of supply
D. A decrease in price resulted from an increase in supply
E. A constant price causing a shift in demand
(viii). What term is used to mean the element of communication through which an information is  passed from one person to another?
A. Receiver
B. Sender
C. Medium
D. Message
E. Encoder
(ix). Which of the following indicates a face to face selling in which the seller of a commodity  tries to convince a customer to buy products:
A. Personal buying
B. Personal selling
C. Personal advice
D. Aggressive selling
E. Convincing power
(x). Which of the trade consists of the intangible itnports and expotts?
A. Invisible trade
B. Visible imports and visible exports
C. Visible exports
D. Invisible imports
E. Entreport trade
2. Match the explanation in  LIST A  with the most correct response from  LIST B  and write its  letter in the answer sheet(s) provided.
SECTION B (54 Marks)
Answer All questions in this section
3. Some people are arguing that Entrepreneurship is a wastage of time not only to individuals but  also the nations and the world at large. As an expert in commercial field, briefly explain for them  six (6) importance of Entrepreneurship.
4. You are provided with the following information from Kagera Traders store for the year  31.12.2013.
Stock 01.01.2013 555,700
Stock 31.12.2013 424,200
Purchases for the year 3842,000
Sales of the year 5,000,000
Assist Kagera Traders to calculate: 
i. cost of sales
ii. Average stock
iii. Stock turn rate
iv. Gross profit
5. Malingumu is trade who exports petrol from Tanzania to Zambia and he did not know the best  means of transport to be used. As a commercial student
a. Identify and suggest the suitable means of transport to be used
b. Describe four  (4)  advantages and four  (4)  disadvantages of the means transport chosen in  6(a) above
6. Mayele wishes to become an entrepreneur, but he does not know the attributes of being an  entrepreneur. As a commercial student help him by giving not less than five points
7. One of form one students argued that ”aids to trade plays an important role in trade ” justify  the validity of this statement.
8. As a business person, how do you distinguish the following concepts in the context of the  market of your product?
a. A change in quantity demanded and a change in demand
b. A change in quantity supplied and a change in supply
c. An equilibrium price and an equilibrium quantity
SECTION C: (30 Marks)
Answer  two (2)  questions from this section
9. Most of young aged in the society complain that they cannot find opportunities for the sake of  employing them self. You as commerce learned can you advise them how they can find  opportunities in the country. (5 ways)
10. Mizambwa graduated in one of the university in 2015 and he has been always looking for job  in different companies. His friend Mkude advice Mizambwa to have self-employment, you as a  form four student join with Mkude to advice Mizambwa by showing six benefits of self- employment.
11. When a Biology teacher reaches to the topic of disease he decide to use a television diseases  programme to show the student how people suffer from different types of diseases, the media  send the information clearly to the students and every student understood the lesson very well.
a. What type of communication the teacher use?
b. Explain any three advantages and three disadvantages of communication used.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 225

PRESIDENT'S OFFICE
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES
TERMINAL EXAMINATION MAY -2025
FORM THREE CIVICS
Instructions
1. This paper consists of three section A, B and C with a total of  eleven (11)  questions.
2. Answer all questions from section A and B and two questions from section C.
3. Section A carries  sixteen (16) marks , section B carries  fifty four (54) marks  and section C  carries  thirty (30)  marks.
4. All writing should be in blue ink except  diagrams  which must be in pencil.
5. All communication devices and any  unauthorized  material are not allowed in the  examination room.
6. Write your  assessment number  at the top right corner of every page.
SECTION A: 16 MARKS
Answer  all  questions
1. For each of the items  (i –x)  choose the most from the given alternatives and write its letter  beside the item number in the answer sheet (booklet) provided.
i. Mwanaidi cannot Access food, material care, clothes, education and shelter. This means  Mwanaidi is facing?
A. Relative poverty
B. Rural and urban poverty
C. Absolute poverty
D. Situation poverty
E. Poverty cycle
ii. Courtship is important because the period of ……….
A. Joy and love
B. Avoiding HIV/AID
C. Dating
D. Preparation for marriage
E. Avoiding COVID
iii. A political meeting where candidates who are expecting to be the leaders, explain their views,  promises and plans is called?
A. Election propaganda
B. Political game
C. Election campaign
D. By election.
E. Political tolerance
iv. The government which is created temporary by people while waiting for permanent  government is called…...
A. Federal government
B. Revolutions government
C. Transitional government
D. Republic government.
E. Totalitarian
v. Which of the following represent the important condition for Stable marriage?
A. Trust, tolerance and love
B. Trust, love and arrogance
C. Transparency, trust and wealth
D. Agreement, high education and honest.
E. Love, theft and selfishness
(vi)As a civics expert, tell us what message do zebra crossing communicate to vehicle drivers?
A. There may be another vehicle crossing or waiting to cross the road
B. There may be pedestrian crossing or waiting to cross the road
C. To reduce speed because there is a railway crossing the road
D. There may be traffic police monitoring speed limit
E. To reduce speed because there is a nearby game reserve
(vii) If you could be one of the officers of social affairs, what advice would you give to the  government of Tanzania to ensure a healthy motherhood and manageable population growth? 
A. A Promote policy on national education and training
B. To promote environmental education
C. To promote reproductive health education
D. To promote immunization
E. To promote hygienic healthy education
(vii) The situation in which people remain poor throughout their lives despite the struggle to  change the situation is characterized as
A. Relative poverty
B. Poverty line
C. Lower capital income
D. Income poverty
E. Vicious cycle of poverty
(ix) International recognition of a country means the following
A. Being sovereign
B. Being free to decide and implement its own policies
C. Being not part of another nation
D. Has boundaries of a territory
E. Dependence of other countries
(x). A career is an occupation or job that someone does for a long period of his or her life so as to  earn a living. The following are careers except-----------------------
A. Witchcraft and prostitution
B. Engineering and accountancy
C. teaching and nursing
D. Psychology and political science
E. Geology and medicine
2. Match the descriptions in  column A  with the correct items in column B by writing the letter of  the corresponding response against the item number.


SECTION B: (54 Marks)
Answer  all  questions in this Section
3. Many schools in Tanzania has reported an increase in disciplinary cases related to students  misbehavior. In six point briefly explain the impact of such cases
4. Briefly explain six factors that can enhance economic development of the people in Tanzania
5. a) What do you understand by the term Communication?
b) What strategies (means) would you use in non-verbal communication, to communicate with  your fellow student’s. Give five points.
6. In six points, justify why a democratic election is important in maintaining peace and security.
7. Poverty as a social problem faces many people and many countries in Africa. Suppose you are  the officer from Ministry deals with social welfare in Tanzania, give six(06) factors to prove the  persistence of poverty in Tanzania.
8. In which ways the central government can collect revenue? Give  six  points
SECTION C: (30 MARKS)
Answer  ONLY TWO  questions from this section
9. Despite the fact that Tanzania is endowed with many resources, it is economically  underdeveloped. Discuss  six  factors needed for economic development in Tanzania to take off.
10. Female Genital Mutilation (FGM) is unimportant as it has always been though it is celebrated  by some of the African communities. What are the effects of this negative cultural practice? (6  points)
11. Agriculture is a back bone of Tanzanian economy. Using the knowledge in civics, encourage  the farmers by analyzing  six (06)  contributions that the sector can offer in economic  development.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 224

PRESIDENT'S OFFICE
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES
TERMINAL EXAMINATION MAY -2025
FORM THREE CIVICS
Instructions
1. This paper consists of three section A, B and C with a total of  eleven (11)  questions.
2. Answer all questions from section A and B and two questions from section C.
3. Section A carries  sixteen (16) marks , section B carries  fifty four (54) marks  and section C  carries  thirty (30)  marks.
4. All writing should be in blue ink except  diagrams  which must be in pencil.
5. All communication devices and any  unauthorized  material are not allowed in the  examination room.
6. Write your  assessment number  at the top right corner of every page.
SECTION A: 16 MARKS
Answer  all  questions
1. For each of the items  (i –x)  choose the most from the given alternatives and write its letter  beside the item number in the answer sheet (booklet) provided.
i. Mwanaidi cannot Access food, material care, clothes, education and shelter. This means  Mwanaidi is facing?
A. Relative poverty
B. Rural and urban poverty
C. Absolute poverty
D. Situation poverty
E. Poverty cycle
ii. Courtship is important because the period of ……….
A. Joy and love
B. Avoiding HIV/AID
C. Dating
D. Preparation for marriage
E. Avoiding COVID
iii. A political meeting where candidates who are expecting to be the leaders, explain their views,  promises and plans is called?
A. Election propaganda
B. Political game
C. Election campaign
D. By election.
E. Political tolerance
iv. The government which is created temporary by people while waiting for permanent  government is called…...
A. Federal government
B. Revolutions government
C. Transitional government
D. Republic government.
E. Totalitarian
v. Which of the following represent the important condition for Stable marriage?
A. Trust, tolerance and love
B. Trust, love and arrogance
C. Transparency, trust and wealth
D. Agreement, high education and honest.
E. Love, theft and selfishness
(vi)As a civics expert, tell us what message do zebra crossing communicate to vehicle drivers?
A. There may be another vehicle crossing or waiting to cross the road
B. There may be pedestrian crossing or waiting to cross the road
C. To reduce speed because there is a railway crossing the road
D. There may be traffic police monitoring speed limit
E. To reduce speed because there is a nearby game reserve
(vii) If you could be one of the officers of social affairs, what advice would you give to the  government of Tanzania to ensure a healthy motherhood and manageable population growth? 
A. A Promote policy on national education and training
B. To promote environmental education
C. To promote reproductive health education
D. To promote immunization
E. To promote hygienic healthy education
(vii) The situation in which people remain poor throughout their lives despite the struggle to  change the situation is characterized as
A. Relative poverty
B. Poverty line
C. Lower capital income
D. Income poverty
E. Vicious cycle of poverty
(ix) International recognition of a country means the following
A. Being sovereign
B. Being free to decide and implement its own policies
C. Being not part of another nation
D. Has boundaries of a territory
E. Dependence of other countries
(x). A career is an occupation or job that someone does for a long period of his or her life so as to  earn a living. The following are careers except-----------------------
A. Witchcraft and prostitution
B. Engineering and accountancy
C. teaching and nursing
D. Psychology and political science
E. Geology and medicine
2. Match the descriptions in  column A  with the correct items in column B by writing the letter of  the corresponding response against the item number.


SECTION B: (54 Marks)
Answer  all  questions in this Section
3. Many schools in Tanzania has reported an increase in disciplinary cases related to students  misbehavior. In six point briefly explain the impact of such cases
4. Briefly explain six factors that can enhance economic development of the people in Tanzania
5. a) What do you understand by the term Communication?
b) What strategies (means) would you use in non-verbal communication, to communicate with  your fellow student’s. Give five points.
6. In six points, justify why a democratic election is important in maintaining peace and security.
7. Poverty as a social problem faces many people and many countries in Africa. Suppose you are  the officer from Ministry deals with social welfare in Tanzania, give six(06) factors to prove the  persistence of poverty in Tanzania.
8. In which ways the central government can collect revenue? Give  six  points
SECTION C: (30 MARKS)
Answer  ONLY TWO  questions from this section
9. Despite the fact that Tanzania is endowed with many resources, it is economically  underdeveloped. Discuss  six  factors needed for economic development in Tanzania to take off.
10. Female Genital Mutilation (FGM) is unimportant as it has always been though it is celebrated  by some of the African communities. What are the effects of this negative cultural practice? (6  points)
11. Agriculture is a back bone of Tanzanian economy. Using the knowledge in civics, encourage  the farmers by analyzing  six (06)  contributions that the sector can offer in economic  development.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 223

PRESIDENT'S OFFICE
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES
TERMINAL EXAMINATION MAY -2025
FORM THREE CHEMISTRY
Instructions
1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with total of eleven (11) questions
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two (2) question from section C
3. Cellular phones and any unauthorized material are not allowed in the examination room
4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)
5. Non programmable calculator may be used
6. The following constant may be used Atomic masse:
H=1, C=12, N=14, O=16, Na=23, S= 32, Ca=40, Cl= 35.5, Cu= 64 and Zn=65  Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 10 23
GMV at s.t.p = 22. 4 dm 3
1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs
Standard pressure = 760 mm Hg
Standard tempreture = 273K
1 litre = 1 dm 3 = 1000cm 3
SECTION A: (16 marks)
Answer all questions in this section
1. For each of the items (i)-(x) choose the correct answer from given alternatives and write its  letter beside item number in the answer booklet provided
i. An electric current of 0.2A was passed through an electrolyte for 16.67minutes. The quantity  of electricity passed is;
A. 200.04cuolombs
B. 2000.004cuolombs
C. 1000cuolombs
D. 0.254cuolombs
E. 0.00789culombs
ii. The copper (II) oxide reacts with hydrogen gas to form copper metal and water. What will be  the mass of reduced element?
A. 4g.
B. 64g.
C. 18g.
D. 80g.
E. 40g
iii. During the steam reforming method in industrial preparation of hydrogen, the steam reacts  with what compound to produce hydrogen gas?
A. Water.
B. Carbon monoxide.
C. Methane.
D. Sulphur dioxide.
E. Oxide
iv.The basic causes of permanent hardness of water is:-
A. Ca(OH) 2  
B. Ca(HCO 3 ) 2  
C. Mg(HCO 3 ) 2  
D. Na 2 SO4 
E. CaSO 4
v.An element in the periodic table with atomic number 18 belongs to which of the following?
A. Group I and period 1 
B. Group 0 and period 3 
C. Group III and period 3
D. Group V and period 4
E. Group VII and period 4
vi.Domestic utensil made up of iron rust easily as a result of the presence of:-
A. Air and fire
B. Air and water 
C. Water and Oil 
D. Air and Oil 
E. Water and oil.
vii.If element Q of group (H) combines with element R of group (IV) what will be the formula of  the resulting compound.
A. R2Q
B. QR 6
C. R 3 Q
D. R3Q
E. Q2R
vii. The process of giving away water of crystallization to the atmosphere by a chemical  substance is called.
A. Efflorescence
B. Deliquescence
C. Hygroscope
D. Sublimation
E. E.Vaporization
ix. Which among of the following chemical reactions rapidly releases energy in form of light and  heat?
A. Combustion 
B. Decomposition
C. Displacement 
D. Neutralization
E. Precipitation
x. Laboratory Technician prepared a solution containing 26.5g of anhydrous Sodium carbonate  in 5 dm 3  of the solution and provided to Form Four students to calculate Its Molarity. Which  among the following will be the possible answer?
A. 0.05 
B. 0.25
C. 1.25 
D. 5.3
E. 0.025
2. Match the colour formed in  LIST A  with the corresponding metal burning in air in  LIST B
 SECTION B (54 Marks)
Answer  all  questions in this section
3. You are provided with the following fuels fire woods, natural gas, charcoal and kerosene.
a. Giving three reasons, explain why natural gas is the best option among the fuels given  above for domestic purpose.
b. Giving four reasons, explain why fire wood and charcoal which are cheap and most  available fuels are not recommended for domestic uses.
4. (a) A student was preparing food for the family using hot oil on a frying pan. Accidently, the  pan tipped over and a huge fire spread on the kitchen floor.
i. Which fire extinguishers would be suitable for putting out the fire? Explain
ii. Which fire extinguishers would not be suitable for putting out the fire? Explain
(b) The following results were obtained in an experiment to find the molecular formula of  magnesium oxide when magnesium burnt in air:-
Mass of crucible = 12. 6g
Mass of crucible + magnesium = 14.9g
Mass of crucible + magnesium oxide = 16.5g
i. What mass of oxygen combined with magnesium?
ii. What was the empirical formula of this oxide?
5. (a) Different salts behave differently when heated. Use the balanced Chemical equation to  show how carbonates and sulphate behave when Subjected to heat.
b. Write a balanced and ionic equation for reaction between sodium carbonate and  hydrochloric acid.
c. Differentiate ionic equation from molecular equation.
6. (a)The headmaster of Mwembeni secondary school is planning to build a Chemistry  laboratory. You as a young chemist advise him on how the Laboratory features like window and  doors are supposed to be. Give Reasons for your advice.
(b) Mussa placed a large crystals of potassium permanganate in the Bottom of beaker of cold  water and left it for several hours. 
i. What he must observed after five minutes? Explain.
ii. What he must have observed after several hours? Explain. 
iii. Name two processes which have taken place during experiment.
7. A chemistry student prepared an experiment to produce a gas by decomposing a compound  using electricity. A steady current was allowed to flow through the solution for 3 hours. At S.T.P  4.12cm  3  of the gas which relights a glowing splint was produced.
(a) (i) What terminology is used to refer such an experiment set up?
(ii) Work out the current flowing through the circuit
(b) Classify the following salts in terms of their solubility; Silver chloride, Lead nitrate, Zinc  chloride and Barium sulphate
8. (a)Catherine is planning to make fire for cooking ugali for her family. What are necessary  conditions which must be present so that she can make fire successfully for cooking ugali for her  family?
(b)Give a reason for each of the followings
i. Water is universal solvent
ii. Some metal like zinc do not get rust.
iii. Chlorine gas is collected by downward delivery
iv. Carbon dioxide turns lime water into milky colour.
SECTION C (30 MARKS) 
Answer only two questions
9. (a) Putin likes to use hard water to wash his clothes rather than soft water. His wife told him  that, hard water has higher cost than soft water. Give three reasons to support Putin’s wife.
(b) Farida went to the laboratory and found four bottles on the bench, each contain the mixture of  the following: Bottle A contains Iodine and sand, Bottle B contains Alcohol and water, Bottle C  contains iron fillings and powdered calcium carbonate and Bottle D contains Kerosene and  water. Which methods can be used by Farida to separate the mixture of each bottle above?
10. a)In practice , not all ions arrive at a particular electrode are discharged. Give three reasons  which may decide the ion .to be preferentially Selected for discharge.
b). In the electrolytic refining of copper, anode was made of impure copper of 2g while cathode  was made of pure copper of 1.5g. At the end of the experiment cathode was found to weigh 3g.  Calculate the percentage purity and impurity of the impure copper.
11. (a) Despite its expensiveness, hard water treatment is very important in large scale. Explain  three (3) importance of hard water treatment in a day to day life.
(b) What are the  three (3)  methods used for softening permanent hard water?
(c) With the aid of chemical equation, show any method for softening permanent hard water

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 222

Page  1  of  7
OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, REGIONAL ADMNISTRATION AND LOCAL  GOVERNMENT
SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES
TERMINAL EXAMINATION.
FORM ONE TERMINAL-MAY- 2025
SUBJECT: BUSINESS STUDIES
INSTRUCTION   

TIME 2:30HRS

  -Answer all questions
1) In each of the questions 1 to 5, choose the correct among the given alternatives  and write its letter in the table provided below.
1. Who is the final user of goods and services?
A. Distributor
B. retailer
C. manufacturer
D. consumer
2. Which one of the following  IS NOT  considered as a business?
A. An organization which engages in buying and selling of goods
B. An enterprise owned by a single person
C. The process of recording business transactions
D. Any activity aiming at generating profit
3. One of the following is not regarded as a consumers need
A. Clothing
B. Housing
C. Holiday
D. Water
4. Which one among the following IS NOT an input for production?
A. Land
B. Capital
C. Consumer
D. Labour
5. Which one among these is a component of business studies?
Page  2  of  7
A. Entrepreneurship
B. Accounting
C. Business management
D. All of the above
  ANSWERS

2) Match the items from  GROUP A  with those in  GROUP B  by writing the letter of a  correct 


Option in the table provided below,

Page  3  of  7
ANSWERS

3) Briefly explain the following terms,
a) Goods
_______________________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________
b) Exchange
_______________________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________
c) Wants
_______________________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________
d) Business studies
_______________________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________
e) Resources
_______________________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________
4) Briefly explain the concepts of scarcity and opportunity cost

Page  4  of  7
______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________
5) Mr Bomoa is a new form one student who is ambitious to become a business  person. Explain to Mr Bomoa how business studies will help him achieve that  goal.
______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________
______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________
______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________
Page  5  of  7
______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________
______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________
______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________
6) Business studies is a combination of various fields of study. Justify this statement.
______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________
7 Mention four (4) business processes  _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________
Page  6  of  7
_____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________
______________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________
8. Mention five (5) significance of consumption in Business
a)--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ --------
b)--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ --------
c)---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ -----
d)--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ ----------
e)--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ ---------------------------------------------------------
Page  7  of  7
9. With an examples differentiate large scale business from small scale business.  Give three (03) differences 
a)--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ -----
b)--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- -----------------------------------------------
c)---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- ---------------------------------------------
10. Outline five (05) business activities that are carried out in your community
a)--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- ------------------------------------
b)--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- --------------------------------------
c)---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- -------------------------------------
d)--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- ----------------------------------------
e)--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- ------------------------------------------

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BUSINESS EXAM SERIES 221

PRESIDENT'S OFFICE
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES
TERMINAL EXAMINATION MAY -2025
FORM THREE BIOLOGY
Instructions
1. This paper consists of three section A, B and C with a total of  eleven (11)  questions.
2. Answer all questions from section A and B and two questions from section C.
3. Section A carries  sixteen (16) marks , section B carries  fifty four (54) marks  and section C  carries  thirty (30)  marks.
4. All writing should be in blue ink except  diagrams  which must be in pencil.
5. All communication devices and any  unauthorized  material are not allowed in the  examination room.
6. Write your  assessment number  at the top right corner of every page.
SECTION A: 16 MARKS
Answer  all  questions
1. For each of the items  (i –x)  choose the most from the given alternatives and write its letter  beside the item number in the answer sheet (booklet) provided.
(i) Assume your friend accidentally cut his finger, which item will you use instead of gloves to  stop him from bleeding,
A. Socks. 
B. Tin. 
C. Plastic bag 
D. Paper. 
E. Piece of cloth
(ii) During a practical session Adam picked a plant which had the following characteristics;  fibrous root system, non-Woody stem, vascular bundles without cambium and the flowers  contained six sepals and six petals. As a biologist what class of a plant picked by Adam belongs?
A. Dicotyledonae. 
B. Angiospermorphyta. 
C. Coniferophyta
D. Monocotyledonae. 
E. Pteridophyte.
(iii) Which of the following is the site of digestion where both mechanical and chemical  digestion occurs?
A. Stomach. 
B. Oesophagus. 
C. Mouth 
D. Small intestine. 
E. Duodenum
(iv) All of the following are respiratory surface  EXCEPT ,
A. Skin. 
B. Lung 
C. Leaves 
D. Gills. 
E. Heart
(v) Why is it advised to make thoroughly blood screening donor and recipient before blood  transfusion?
A. Ensuring compatibility. 
B. Ensuring incompatibility
C. Ensuring coagulation 
D. Ensuring immunity
E. Ensuring blood groups
(vi) The heart is the major circulatory organ which is responsible for pumping of blood  rhythmically without get fatigue Which type of muscles does the liehrt possess so as to ensure its  efficiency of not getting fatigue?
A. Smooth muscles 
B. Skeletal muscles 
C. Cardiac muscles
D. Rough muscles 
E. Collagen muscles
(vii) The following is a set of raw materials for photosynthesis to occur except;
A. Water, light and oxygen 
B. Carbon dioxide and water
C. Chlorophylls and Sunlight 
D. Chlorophylls and Carbon dioxide
E. Carbon dioxide and oxygen.
(viii) The third step in the scientific method is;
A. Experimentation 
B. Collecting data 
C. Identifying the problem
D. Formulating hypothesis 
E. Conclusion
(ix).In a motor car accident, the bus driver found that he could hardly maintain his equilibrium,  which of the structures was damaged?
A. The semi-circular canal
B. The fore brain
C. The medulla oblongata
D. The Eustachian
E. The cochlea
(x). Dr. Kigulunyembe received medical results from laboratory technician and identified that a  victim is affected by filarial worms. Which of the following disease is typical caused by the  above worms?
A. Lymphoma
B. Oedema
C. Thrombosis
D. Elephantiasis
E. Arteriosclerosis
2. Match the items in  LIST A  with the responses in  LIST B  by writing the letter of the  corresponding responses beside the item number.


SECTION B: (54 MARKS )
Answer  all  questions from this section
3 (a). Makoke is a civil engineering student at certain university. He is doing a research at your  school for the construction of a good laboratory. As a student, explain four qualities he must  consider when constructing a good laboratory.

(b) While walking to home Jilulu was bitten by a snake. She was given an immediate care before  she was sent to hospital.
(i) What name is given to an immediate care given to Jilulu?
(ii)Why do you think is important to do so? Mention any four points
4. (a) Explain why
(i) The rate of breathing increase quickly during exercise?
(ii) Is better to breathe through nose than through the mouse
(b) How are respiratory surfaces adapted to their role? (Give 5 points)
5. Form two students performed an experiment to determine food substance contained in a  sample G. They took 2cm  3  of sample G into a test tube. They added equal volume of sodium  hydroxide followed by three drops of copper 2 sulphate solution. A purple coloration Was  observed.
a) Which food substance present in sample G?
b) State two (2) functions of the food substance that was present in sample G.
c) Name the parts of alimentary canal in which food present in G is firstly digested
d) Identify two (2) natural sources of food substance contained in sample G
e) Give two (2) disorders of food substance contained in sample G when it is insufficient in  children
6. A bread was put in a wet cupboard. After few days black thread like structures which ended up  in a club like structures appeared in the bread.
a) Write the common name of the organism that grew on the bread surface
b) Name the Kingdom and phylum in which the observed organism belongs
c) Outline four (4) advantages of the members of the Kingdom you mentioned in (b) above
7. (a) state any three adaptations of the leaf for photosynthesis 
(b) How do the following factors affect the rate of photosynthesis? 
(i) Chlorophyll
(ii) Sunlight 
(iii) Carbondioxide
8. (a) Human being makes observation by using sense organs. Identify the sense organ that could  help you observe if a coconut is:
i. Round 
ii. Rough
iii. Sweet 
iv. Smelling nice
(b) Observe the following figure of human being and then answer the questions that follow  question
i. State the name of hormone glands labeled, A, B, C,D and E
ii. What is the function of hormone secreted from each glands labeled A, B, C, D and E.
SECTION C. (30 MARKS)
Answer  two  questions in this section
9. (a) Briefly explain how movement is important to the survival of' living things. give three  points
(b) You have been provided with the following list of organisms found in a certain ecosystem,  Herbs, lizards, frogs, grasshopper and snake.
https://myfiles.space/user_files/30996_4958b541bbe404eb/30996_custom_files/img1692685865.png
i. Construct a simple food chain for provided organisms.
ii. From the above food chain you constructed in (b) above, identify organisms which are  producers, primary consumers, and secondary consumers, 
iii. Give the name of the missing group of organisms in the ecosystem.
10. i. Samiliana was making some tea for her mother. She accidentally touched the pan while  switching off the stove. She pushed away the pan and poured all the tea.
a) What action did Samiliana exhibit?
b) Give the meaning of the action, mention other two examples of the action
c) How useful is such an action to organisms. ii. Shortly explain the mechanism of hearing in  human
11. (a) How ABO system is applied in human blood classification.
(b) Mr. Juma, a Rhesus positive man married a Rhesus negative woman. After the birth of their  first born, they experienced a lot of still birth from next conceived pregnancies. This was  happening due to mass destruction of foetal red blood cells;
i. Why the red blood cells of the foetus get destructed
ii. Name the disease that found in the foetus
iii. Suggest the possible treatment for the named disease.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 220

PRESIDENTS OFFICE
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATIONS AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
FORM THREE EXAMINATIONS
COMMERCE
Time: 3:00 Hours August, 202 5
INSTRUCTIONS
1. This paper consist of section A, B and C.
2. Answer ALL questions in section A and B and only two questions from section C
3. Non programmable calculators may be used.
4. Write your name on every page of the question paper.
SECTION A (15 Marks)
Answer  all  questions in this section.
1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given  alternatives and write its letter in the space provided.
i) The art of transmitting information and ideas by word of mouth, writing or by other  means
A) Advertising
B) Communication
C) Insurance
D) Transport
ii) The role of commerce in production process is to make
A) Direct services reach ultimate consumer
B) Distribution of goods and services to the retailer
C) Distribution of goods and service to wholesaler
D) Goods and service produced to reach the ultimate consumer
iii) Given stock at start 80,000, stock at close 100,000, purchases 410,000, sales 455,000.
Rate of stock turn is
A) 5.1 times
B) 3.4 times
C) 4.3 times
D) 2.3 times
iv) Below are some of the factors to consider when locating a warehouse except
A) Number of customer
B) Communication system
C) Cost of construction
D) Flexibility
v) Vehicle includes the following except
A) Pickups
B) Cranes
C) Tankers
D) Dhows
vi) The loading and off-loading places are referred to as
A) Unit of carriage
B) Terminal
C) Way
D) Method of propulsion
vii) The demand of one commodity that causes the demand of another commodity is  called;
A) Joint demand
B) Composite demand
C) Derived demand
D) Competitive demand
viii) ______________ is the exchange of goods for goods
A) Home trade
B) Barter trade
C) Foreign trade
D) Import trade
ix) The level of stock at which placing new order must be done is
A) Minimum stock level
B) Maximum stock level
C) Average stock
D) Order point
x) The type of elasticity of supply that occurs when elasticity of supply is greater than  one is called;
A) Unitary supply
B) Perfect elastic supply
C) Inelastic supply
D) Elastic supply
2. Match the descriptions in  LISTA  with the relevant in  LISTB  by writing the correct  response below the corresponding item number in the table provided
SECTION B (50 MARKS)
Answer all questions in this section
3.   (a) Briefly explain five (05) benefits of warehouses to the economy.
(b) Mr. Magesa had opening stock of Tsh 25,000/= and closing stock of Tsh31,250/=.net  purchases for the year amounted to 187,500/= and his gross profit margin is 40%. His  expenses for the year were Tsh 35,750. Calculate the following;
a) Average stock
b) Cost of goods sold
c) Gross profit
d) Net profit/loss
e) Turn over.
4. (a) Explain five factors that might influence the quantity of maize supplied in a market.


(b) From the table below, draw a demand curve and supply curve in the same pair of  axis and indicate equilibrium point, equilibrium price, and equilibrium quantity.
5. With the help of a well labelled diagram, summarize the concept of production.
6. (a) Mr. Nguvumali a business man who had an account with NMB Bank in Arusha  issued a cheque payable to Ms. Rose amounting TZS 1000,000/= only. Use these  information to describe main parts of the cheque.
(b) Mention five importance of commercial banks which operates in Tanzania
7. Many people argue that self-employment is the solution to the unemployment  problem in Tanzania. Explain any three (3) advantages and two (2) disadvantages  associated with self - employment.
SECTION C (30MARKS)
Answer two questions from this section.
8. You are appointed as a communication officer of CRDB Bank plc, describe types of  communication you will use to communicate with the bank’s staff and customer. Clearly  mention five factors you will consider before choosing a medium communication.
9. Recently, the President Samia emphasized on the importance of youth to engage in  Agriculture and other entrepreneurial activities instead of waiting employment from  government. However, there are a number of challenges hindering this group from  entering entrepreneurship. As an expert in commerce, describe at least six challenges  facing entrepreneurs in Tanzania.
10. Transportation is very important in the economy of any country as it act like vein and  arteries in human being. Describe any five (5) contribution of transportation in  Tanzanian economy.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 219

 
PRESDENT'S OFFICE
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
FORM THREE EXAMINATION - AUGUST 2025
CIVICS
Time: 3:00 Hours 
INSTRUCTIONS 
1. This paper consists of section A, B and C
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two (2) question from section C
3. Write your examination number on your answer booklet (s)
SECTION A (16 Marks)
1. For each of the following (i) - (ii) choose the correct answer from the given  alternatives and write it's letter in the box provided 
(i) Some of the aspects of governance include the following except 
A. accountability. 
B. Rule of law. 
C. Failure of citizens to pay taxes. 
D. Transparency 
(ii) The Declaration that drafted by people from different legal and cultura backgrounds  and its aim was to make sure that human rights are universal recognized and all  countries adapted, promoted and protect them was termed as
A. The universal declaration of human rights. 
B. Environmental and development rights 
C. Environmental declaration. 
D. Universal equality 
(iii) In Tanzania the Bill of rights was included in the Constitution in 
A. 1977. 
B. 1994. 
C. 1963. 
D. 1984
(iv) Mr Meshimeshi is a public servant in one of the government departments who uses  public office for personal gains. How can Mr Meshimeshi be termed?
A. Corrupt worker. 
B. An intelligent worker. 
C. A smart worker. 
D. Good worker
(v) Shakira's husband died and her in law forced Shakira to marry Hussein her late  husband young brother. Such a family decision demonstrate 
A. Gender blindness. 
B. Gender stereotyping. 
C. Gender Equality. 
D. Gender Discrimination
(vi) The Makonde are famous in Tanzania for their skills in making carvings of various  types. How do you characterize such carvings?
A. Tradition. 
B. Performance arts. 
 C. Crafts. 
D. Noms
(vii) In Tanzania the leader of the government business in the parliament of the United  Republic of Tanzania in the
A. Speaker. 
B. Chief of Justice. 
 C. Prime Minister. 
D. President 
(viii) Jauhara is skillful in thinking and behaving in a manner that enables her to express  his feelings strongly and with confidence. What skills does Jauhara portray?
A. Assertiveness skills 
B. Self awareness. 
C. Negotiation skills. 
D. Friendship skills 
(ix) Mariath as the grandmother of Mr Ayman, told her grandson tha Tanzania culture  went into several changes from past time to current time. This can be summarized that  culture is
A. Dynamic. 
B. Complex. 
C. Affected. 
D. Adaptive 
(x) Many Tanzanians cannot access credit from financial institutions due to
A. Lack of political influence. 
B. Lack of entrepreneurship skills and security 
C. Lack of proper identification. 
D. Lack of enough financial institutions 
2. Match the items in LIST A with the correct responses in LIST B by writing the letter of  the most correct response in your answer sheet provide 


SECTION B (54 Marks
Answer all questions from this section
3. Consider yourself as an expert from Tanzania Gender network program (TNGP) ,  explain to the community five cultural practices that should be prohibited in Tanzania  society.
4. Explain five causes on the increase of road accidents in Tanzania.
5. The National Anthem of Tanzania has two stanzas, and it is sung by citizens to  inculcate the sense of patriotizm . As citizen of Tanzania, briefly explain to your  community any five special associations when the Nation anthem is sung.
6. Most of students in secondary schools falls in different problems because of lack of  skills such as how to make decision, lack of individual and social skills. Use the  knowledge you learnt in form one to explain five points on the importance of life skills  in the society 
7. Examine five aspects of team work.
8. "Teaching civics in primary and secondary school is the wastage of time " do you  agree? Support your side with five points.
SECTION C (30 Marks)
Answer two questions from this section 
9.   Analyze five factors which affect the level of development in any nation
10. Suggest five measures to address the challenges facing informal sector in your  society 
11. Explain five points on the role of the government in economic development.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 218

PRESDENT'S OFFICE
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
FORM THREE EXAMINATION - AUGUST 2025
CHEMISTRY
Time: 3:00 Hours 
INSTRUCTIONS 
1. This paper consists of section A, B and C
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and one (1) question from C
3. Cellular phones anda any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
4. Non-programmable calculators may be allowed in the examination room
5. Write your examination number (or your name) on every page of your answer sheet(s)
6. The following constants may be used :
 Automic masses: H=1, 0=16, N=14, S=32, Zn=65, Cl=35.5, Cu=64, Na=23, Ag=108  Electrochemical equivalent of Ag=1.118×10 -3   , Avogadro's number = 6.02×10 23  GMV at s.t.p =  22.4dm , 1 Faraday = 96,500 coulombs, Standard pressure = 760mmHg, Standard temperature  = 273 K, 1 litre = 1 dm3 = 1000cm 3
SECTION A (15 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section 
1. For each of the item (i-x) choose the correct answer in the space provided by writing the letter  of the correct answer
i. The following reaction is an example of : Fe 2 0 3  + Al 2 O +2Fe
A. Combination reaction. 
B. Decomposition reaction. 
C. Displacement reaction. 
D. Double displacement reaction
ii. Which of the following pairs of reagents when added together will have the following ionic  equation: Pb 2 (aq)  + 2Cl- (aq)  -----> PbCl 2(s)
 I. Lead (II) oxide and aqueous potassium chloride. 
 II. Aqueous lead (II) nitrate and aqueous sodium chloride 
 III. Aqueous lead (II) nitrate and dilute hydrochloric acid 
 IV. Lead (II) hydroxide and hydrochloric acid 
A. I and IV only. 
B. II and III only. 
C. IV only. 
D. I, II, III, and IV
iii. Which one of the given is a mineral acid?
A. Lactic acid. 
B. Formic acid. 
C. Tartaric acid. 
D. Hydrochloric acid
iv. Which one of the given is the pH value of pure water?
A. 0. 
B. 7. 
C. 8. 
D. 1
v. Soda ash chemical formula is
A. NaHCO 3. 
B. Na 2 CO 3. 9H 2 O. 
C. Na 2 CO 3. 
D. Na 2 CO 3. 10H 2 O
vi. Skin injury that cause a change in colour of skin 
A. Bruise. 
B. Burn. 
C. Scald. 
D. Shock
vii. Soft drink the chemical formula of caustic potash is
A. NaOH. 
B. Ca(OH) 2. 
C. NH 4 OH. 
D. KOH
viii. pH value less than 7 indicates that the solution is
A. Acidic. 
B. Basic. 
C. Neutral. 
D. No effect
ix. Which one of the following is an amphoteric metal hydroxide?
A. KOH. 
B. Ba(OH) 2. 
C. Pb(OH) 2. 
D. LiOH
x. Range of pH scale is
A. 7 to 10. 
B. 0 to 10. 
C. 0 to 14. 
D. 7 to 14
2. Match the description in list A with the correct response from list B by writing the letter of the  correct response in the space provided 
SECTION B (70 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section 
3. a) A stone is said to be a good example of matter. Give two reasons to support this fact 
 b) With reasons explain why it is necessary to have the following in the laboratory;-
i. Laboratory door open outwards 
ii. Laboratory floor is rough and never polished 
iii. Bucket of sand
4. a) With the aid of a well balanced equations briefly explain how
i. Temporary hardness enters into water
ii. Temporary hardness in water can be removed by boiling 
iii. Permanent hardness in water can be removed by addition of washing soda
 b) In three test tubes A, B and C, three different liquids namely, distilled water, underground  water and distilled water in which a pinch of calcium sulphate is dissolved respectively are taken.  An equal amount of soap solution is added to each test tube and the contests are shaken. In  which test tube will the length of the foam (lather) be longest? Justify your answer.
5. a) You are provided with three test tubes U, V, W which contain distilled water, acidic and  basic solutions. If you are given blue litmus paper only, how will you identify the nature of the  solutions in three test tubes?
 b) Glucose has hydrogen in it, therefore can we classify it as an acid? Explain 
6. a) A student aimed to prepare gas G by using moderate reactive metal with a dilute acid. By  using the information given above, answer the following questions;-
i. What is the name of gas G?
ii. What is the chemical test that distinguishes this gas from other gases?
iii. With two reasons, state the correct means of collecting the gas?
iv. Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction 
. b) Mwikwabe wanted the above reaction (6) (a) to go fast because wants to utilize in various  industrial uses. You as a chemist provide him four means that can be used to make the reaction  faster.
7. a) during large scale water treatment, there two chemicals added at various stages. Name  them and explain the reason of using them in water treatment.

b) Mwajuma was sent to buy the good fuel but was unable to know which fuel was good. You as  seller of the fuels, what are four criteria will you consider to advice Mwajuma to get the fuel she  was ordered?
8. (a) T and K are elements found in the periodic table. The atomic number of T is 16 and that of  K is 19.
i. In which group and period of the periodic table does element T and K appear?
ii. Write the chemical formula of a compound formed between T and K
 (b) (i) Which particles are atoms of the same element in the list of the particles given below 
40 18 38 20 38 18 C and  39 18 D
 (ii) why can't neon react with sodium?
9. a) Define the following terms as they are applied in chemistry contents:-
i. Mole of the substance 
ii. Molar mass 
iii. Molar volume 
 b) Determine the following :-
i. The amount of substance present in 48.8litres of oxygen at S.T.P
ii. The volume of 5g of ammonia gas at S.T.P
iii. The number of ions present in 4.26g of sodium sulphate 
10. (a) define the following terms 
i. Standard solution 
ii. Equivalent point of titration 
iii. Basicity of an acid
(b) 25cm of a solution containing 0.196g of metal hydroxide YOH were neutralized by 35cm of  a 0.1M hydrochloric acid solution 
i. Write down a balanced chemical equation for the reaction 
ii. Calculate the molarity of the metal hydroxide solution 
iii. Calculate the relative molecular mass of YOH
iv. Identify metal Y
11. Mr. Kampango attended an interview when seeking for the job of preparing food for  students at IKIZU SEKONDARY SCHOOL. During an interview he was asked "which type of flame  will you use to prepare food so as to enable students to eat early and attend night  preparation/study on time".
a. What flame did Mr. Kampango mentioned 
b. With three(3) reasons support the answer of Mr. Kampango to choose such a flame.
12. Scientists set scientific procedures to be followed in harmonizing the societies they live in.  With four reasons support why did they agreed in those procedures to some scientific problems  they face in life.
SECTION C (15 Marks) 
Answer only one (1) question 
13. a) Define the following terms as they are applied in chemistry contents;-
i. Electrolysis
ii. Inert electrodes 
b) Masamaki connected the wire terminals to the current of 5A after connecting them to the  electrodes which were immersed in molten silver chloride electrolyte. The cathode electrode  finally found increased by mass of 3.24 Kg of Silver. He forgotten to record the time used in the  experiment then decided to go to Asha ask the time might have spend in that experiment. You  as Asha assist Masamaki to know the time used in the experiment.
14. a) State the difference between hydrated salt and anhydrous salt
b) A sample of mass 28.6g of hydrated sodium carbonate (Na 2 CO 3 10H 2 O) was heated such that  it's water was entirely absorbed by 32g of anhydrous copper (II) sulphate to form a blue  compound of hydrated CuSO 4. XH 2 O) . Evaluate the value of X in the copper (II) sulphate.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 217

PRESIDENTS OFFICE
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATIONS AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
FORM THREE EXAMINATIONS
BOOK KEEPING
Time: 3:00 Hours August, 202 5
Instructions
Answer all questions.
SECTION A (15 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section
1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given
alternatives.
(i) Which of the following books of prime entry is used to record a list of goods sold on  credit?
A. The sales return day book
B. The purchases day book
C. The sales day book
D. The purchases return day book
E. The discount received book
(ii) When preparing a trial balance, what would result if sales made to Ramima sh. 57,000  are wrongly debited to Ramima account as sh. 75,000?
A. Debit column of trial balance will exceed credit column by sh. 75,000
B. Credit column of trial balance will fall by sh. 75,000
C. Debit column of trial balance will exceed credit column by sh. 18,000
D. Credit column of trial balance will exceed debit column by sh. 18,000
E. Debit column of trial balance will exceed credit column by sh. 57,000
(iii) Given balance as per cash book sh. 6,500, uncredited cheque sh. 1,500, bank charges  not yet entered in the cash book sh. 500 and credit transfer received by bank but not yet  entered in the cash book sh. 1,000. What will be the balance as per bank statement?
A. Sh. 7,500
B. Sh. 4,500
C. Sh. 8,500
D. Sh. 5,500
E. Sh. 6,500
(iv) Which of the following is BEST describes the meaning of ‘Purchases.’
A. Items bought
B. Goods bought on credit
C. Goods bought for resale
D. Goods paid for
E. Goods on transit
(v) In the income statement, the sales returns should be
A. Added to cost of goods sold
B. Deducted from purchases
C. Deducted from sales
D. Added to sales
E. Added to purchases.
(vi) A firm bought a machine for 50,000/= it expected to be used for 6 years and then  sold for the 5,000/=. What is the annual amount of depreciation if the straight-line  method is used?
A. 7,500/=
B. 7,000/=
C. 6,500/=
D. 6,750/=
E. 8,000/=
(vii) Which of the following expenditure the government receives no value?
A. Nugatory expenditure
B. Recurrent expenditure
C. Statutory expenditure
D. Development expenditure
E. Recurring expenditure
(viii) From the point of view of your business, which of the following is a liability?
A. A car bought on credit
B. A house bought by cash
C. Cash received from a debtor
D. Bank overdraft
E. Cheque given to Mr. Popo
(ix) Which of the following are the examples of revenue expenditures?
A. Purchases of goods and payment for electricity bill in cash
B. Repair of van and petrol costs of van
C. Buying machinery and paying for installation costs
D. Electricity costs of using machinery and buying van
E. Buying van and petrol costs for van
(x) Which one of the following would not be taken into account when calculating
working capital?
A. Cash
B. Debtors
C. Loan from bank
D. Motor vehicles
E. Creditors
2. Choose the correct term from  LIST B  which matches with the explanation in  LIST
and write its letter in the answer sheet provided.


SECTION B (40Marks)
Answer all questions from this section
3. Indicate the accounts to be debited or credited from the following transactions


4. Explain the meaning of the following terms:

(i) Capital expenditure
(ii) Revenue expenditure
(iii)Accrued expenses
(iv)Provision for bad debts
(v) Pre-paid income
5. Briefly explain five causes of fall of value of non-current assets.
6. You are given the balances of rent and rates accounts as 1st January 2007: Rent and  rates -accrued TZS 31,000
-prepaid TZS 28,900
During the financial year of the business the following transactions took place:
Paid rent by cheque TZS 61,400
Paid rates by cheque TZS 41,200
Closing balance as at 31st December 2007 were:
Rent and rates -accrued TZS 29,900
-prepaid TZS 24,400
Required:  prepare the rent and rates account showing the amount to be transferred to  income statement for the year ended 31st December 2007
SECTION C (45 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section
7. On 1st January 2015 Mikuyu Motors Company ltd purchased Motor lorry worth sh.  12,000,000. The company used the asset for three years. On 31st December 2017 the  lorry was sold for sh. 3,000,000. It is the policy of the company to compute depreciation  using straight line method.
Using the information provided, prepare the Motor Lorry and Provision for
Depreciation on Motor Lorry Account for the three years ending 31st December
2015, 2016 and 2017.  
8. The following is a trial balance extracted from the books of a sole proprietor, Masanja  as at 31st December 2019
The following additional information is provided :



(a) Make a provision for depreciation of plant and machinery at 10% per annum and  fittings at 15% per annum
(b) Increase the provision for bad debts to an amount equal to 4% of sundry debtors
(c) Prepaid insurance amount to 500/-
(d) Rates accrued 400/-
(e) Closing stock was 60,000/-
(f) During the year Masanja took goods worth 2,000/- for his personal use
Required ;
Prepare income statement for the year ending 31st December 2019 and a statement of  financial position as at that date.
9. A businessman started a business on 1st January 2013. During the period to 31 st   December, trade debtors amounted to TZS 1,000,000 after writing off bad debts of TZS  9,000. It was also decided to provide for provision for bad debts equal to 05% of  debtors. 
During the year ended 31st December 2014 debtors stood at TZS 4,404,000 out of  these, debtors of TZS 4,000 are bad and cannot be realized. The provision for doubtful  debts is to be raised to 05% on sundry debtors.
You are required to prepare:
a) Bad debts account and provision for doubtful debts account.
b) Extract from income statement and statement of financial position.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 216

  PRESDENT'S OFFICE
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
FORM THREE EXAMINATION - AUGUST 2025
BIOLOGY 
Time: 3:00 Hours 
 INSTRUCTIONS 
1. This paper consists of section A, B and C
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two (2) question from section C of which  question number 13 is compulsory 
3. Section A carries (20) marks, section B carry (60) and section C carries (20) marks
4. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in  pencil 
SECTION A (20 Marks)
1. Choose the best correct answer and write it's letter in the brackets provided 
(i) A part of the microscope that regulates the amount of light is 
A. Stage. 
B. Mirror. 
C. Diaphragm 
 D. objective lenses
(ii) Areas where bones meet 
A. Orbit. 
 B. Joints. 
C. Socket. 
D. Ball
(iii) A group of cells performing the same function is called
A. A tissue. 
B. A system. 
C. An organ. 
D. An organism
(iv) During digestion process, both mechanical and chemical digestion of food begin in  the 
A. Stomach. 
B. Oesophagus. 
C. Small intestine. 
D. Mouth
(v) An organs responsible for gaseous exchange in mammals is
A. Kidneys 
B. Trachea. 
C. Langs. 
D. Nose 
(vi) A parasite that causes malaria is
A. Amoeba. 
B. Plasmodium 
C. Trypanosome. 
D. Bacteria 
(vii) A patient having blood group B can receive blood of a donor who belongs to
A. Group B only. 
B. Group O only. 
C. Group AB only. 
D. Group B or Group O
(viii) A person whose diet lacks iodine likely to develop a nutritional disorder known as
A. Beriberi. 
B. Ricketts. 
C. Night blindness. 
D. Goitre
(ix) Gaseous exchange in plants does not take place in the 
A. Flowers. 
B. Leaves. 
C. Stem. 
D. Roots
(x) Absorption of food takes place in the 
A. Large intestine. 
B. Small intestine. 
C. Stomach. 
D. Liver
2. The following are matching items, match the items in LIST A with those in LIST B


SECTION B (60 Marks)
 Short answer questions 
3. a) (i) Name three types of muscles 
 (II) State function of synovial fluid 
 b) Give types of skeleton of the following organisms
i. Fish. ii. Earth warm. iii. Grasshopper. iv. Leech
4. a) Explain two differences between coniferophyta and angiospermophyta
 b) Give two advantages and two disadvantages of coniferophyta
5. a) Define photosynthesis 
 b) Give two reasons why photosynthesis is important to living things 
 c) Name three factors that affect the rate of photosynthesis 
6. a) i) Define food webs
 ii) Construct food web of the following organisms, hawk, maize stalk borer,  salamander, mouse and snake 
 iii) Explain what will happen if snoke is removed from the food web you  constructed 
 b) Define respiration 
7. a) Draw a well labelled diagram Cross - section of spinal cord 
 b) Name two parts that form central nervous system 

8. a) Define 
 (i) Tendons
 (ii) Ligaments 
 b) Name three synovial joint found in human body
9. a) What features of the joint enables it to reduce friction?
 b) Explain the following 
 (i) Phototropism
 (ii) Hydrotropism
10. a) Name parts of the body where each waste is produced
 b) Name the major organ through which each waste is excreted
11. a) Give four differences between bean plant and maize plant
 b) List kingdom and division of pines tree 
12. a) Mention two types of photoreceptors cells found in the retina
 b) Give four examples of reflex actions.
SECTION C (20 Marks)
13. Explain 8 economic importance of flowering plants.
14. Briefly explain components of coordination in mammals in order form.
15. Form one students in a certain secondary school were interested to know how to use  the light microscope. Assume you are a biology teacher: educate these students on how  to use the light microscope.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 215

PRESIDENTS OFFICE
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATIONS AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
FORM THREE EXAMINATIONS
BASIC MATHEMATICS
Time: 3:00 Hours August, 202 5
INSTRUCTIONS
1. This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
2. Answer all questions in both sections.
3. Each question in section A carries 6 marks while each question in section B carries 10  marks.
4. All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly.
5. NECTA mathematics table and non-programmable calculator may be used.
6. All communication devices and any unauthorized material are not allowed in the  examination room.
7. Write your name on every page of your answer sheets. 
SECTION A (60 MARKS)
1. (a) Express 0.058492
i. Correct to 3 significant figures
ii. Correct to 3decimal figures
(b) Amos and Pius are riding on a circular path. Amosy complete around 48minutes,  where as Pius complete around in 72minutes. If they started at the direct. After how  many minutes will they meet again at the starting point?
3. A survey conducted to 110 university students about ownership of either Ipad or  Laptop or both. The following three questions were asked requiring responses of “Yes or  No”.


i. Do you own an I pad?
ii. Do you own a laptop?
iii. Do you own an I pad and a laptop?
The results of a survey are given in the table below 
a. Represent these result in a well labelled Venn diagram.
b. How many students own a I pad but not a Laptop?
c. How many students own either an Ipad or a Laptop
d. How many students own neither an Ipad nor a Laptop
4. a. Two lines which interest at point A have equations 7x – 4y = 17 and 5x – 4y = 11
i. Determine the coordinates of points 
ii. Find the equation of the line through point A and B (-3,-2)
b. Find the value of k if the lines 3x-y = 6 and kx-2y = 8 have equal x-intercepts 
5. a. Find the number of sides of a regular polygon whose interior angle is each 170°
b. Given A={32,48,200,90,158} and B={Acute angle, Right angle, Reflex angle, Obtuse  angle}. Draw an arrow diagram to illustrate the relation between sets A and B.
6. a. Along the road going to school, Ghati planted trees on each side of the road. If the  road is 0.75km long and trees are 5m apart. How many trees are there?
b. You are asked to make a fence for a garden using a wire which is 56 metres long. The  fence should be rectangular in shape with an area of 171 square metres. What will be  the dimensions of the fence enclosing the garden?
7. a. The circumference of a circular floor of a room is 25.14cm. Find the radius of the  floor.

b. Andrew bought a car for 720,000 shillings then spent 80,000 shillings on a  maintenance, then he sold the car for 980,000 shillings. Find his percentage profit on  whole transaction.
8. a. A Translation T maps the points (5,7) into (8,9). Find where T maps 
i. the origin
ii. the point (9,7)
b. If the sum and difference of ages of Bethsheba and Patrick are in the ratio 10:8, what  would be the ratio of their respective ages?
9. a. If triangle ABC is similar to PQS. Find the value of x and y in the figure below.
b. In the following figure, AP is perpendicular to BC, line AB=13cm, line BP=5cm and line  AC=15cm


10. a. Solve 2x + 5x = 12 by completing the square.
b. The sum of three consecutive positive integers is 54 what are the numbers?

SECTION B (40 MARKS)
11. a. The set of relation R is defined as R = {(x, y): x ≤ 2, y ≤ 1 and 3x + 2y ≥18}
i. Draw the graph of R
ii. Use the graph above to state the domain and range of R
b. The function is defined as f(x) = x 2  + 4x – 5, Determine 
i. symmetrical line of the function
ii. Maximum or minimum value of a function
iii. Turning point of the function
12. a. A man who is 3m tall, stand on a horizontal surface 10m away from the church  tower and found that, the angle elevated from the eyes of man is 60°. Find the height of  the church tower.
b. If f(x) =  find the domain and range of f
13. a. Miniphy is running a business near a certain college. He is selling pieces of cake  and soda. Each piece of cake costs 1500Tsh, and each bottle of soda costs 500Tsh. In  one afternoon a man made a total 255500Tsh by selling a total of 225 piece of cake and  soda, using the given information, find the number of pieces of cake and bottles of soda  by using substitution method.
b. Find a linear function such that f(2) = -5 and f(3) = -8, hence draw the graph of the  function

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 214

PRESIDENTS OFFICE
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATIONS AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
FORM THREE EXAMINATIONS
PHYSICS 1
Time: 2:30 Hours August, 202 5
Instructions
1. This paper consists sections A, B and C with the total of eleven (11) questions 
2. Answer all questions in both section A and B and only two questions in Section C 
3. Section A carries Sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C  Carries thirty (30) marks.
4. Non-programmable calculator may be used. 
5. Where necessary the following constants may be used: 
i. Density of water = 1000 kg/m 3  or 1 g/cm 3
ii. Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10N/kg. 
iii. Density of mercury =13.6gcm -3
iv. Density of sea water = 1100kg/m 3
SECTION A. (16 MARKS)
Answer all Questions from this section
1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer among the given  alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in your answer.
i. A uniform beam XY is pivoted at one end X, and a vertically upward force of 4N at  Y keeps the beam horizontal. The weight of the beam in Newton’s is? 
A. 8 
 B. 6 
 C. 4 
 D. 2
 E. 1 
ii. A force F Newton’s gives a mass of 2 kg an acceleration of 4m/s 2 .A force of 3F  Newton’s will give a mass of 8kg an acceleration in m/s 2 of ?
 A. 1 
 B. 3 
 C. 6 
 D. 12 
 E. 24 
 iii. In a single rope 4-pulley system, the mechanical advantage is less than 4. Because 
A. The effort may vary. 
B. The upper pulley does not move. 
C. Friction act on a pulleys
 D. The weight of the lower pulley can be neglected. 
E. The road is raised. 
iv. A physics teacher asked the students to explain briefly things which may cause fire  in the physics laboratory. The students tried to answer but some explanations were  not correct. Identify the explanations which were not correct 
A. Electric faults. 
B. Presence of flammable materials. 
C. Carelessness in using gas lighter and match boxes. 
D. The colour of some chemicals supports combustion. 
E. Presence of corrosive materials 
v. A measuring cylinder is filled with oil. A girl says that the pressure at the bottom of  the cylinder depends on? 
1. The height of the oil. 
2. The area at the bottom. 
3. The oil lubrication property. 
4. The oil density. 
Which one of A, B, C, D and E is correct? 
A. 1 and 3 
B. 2 and 4 
C. 1 and 2 
D. 1 and 4 
E. 3 and 4 
vi. A car moving at steady speed has a frictional force on its surface whose size  depends on? A. Its speed and surface area 
B. Its speed only. 
C. Its area only. 
D. Its weight.
 E. Its wheel speed only. 
vii. A cooking oil was mixed with water and poured into a measuring cylinder and  allowed to settle for three minutes, which one will be the observed phenomenon?
A. Meniscus of water appeared convex in shape at the surface. 
B. Cooking oil floats over water. 
C. Water floats over the oil. 
D. Water and oil completely mixed up. 
E. Cooking oil are soluble in water 
viii. The following is a reason why objects in air tend to fall at the same time when  they are released from the same height h above the ground level. 
A. They have the same weight. 
B. There is usually no resistance in the air. 
C. Acceleration due to gravity is the same. 
D. Gravity does not affect
 E. None of the above. 
ix. A house building contractor fitted window glass panes which someone cannot see  through, but the rooms are fully illuminated with light. These types of glass pane  materials are said to be: 
 A. Dim. 
 B. Opaque. 
 C. Translucent. 
D. Transparent. 
E. Black materials. 
x. Apparent weight is equal to:
A. Up thrust
B. Weight of liquid displaced
C. Apparent loss in weight
D. Weight of body when in liquid
  2. Match the response in LIST B with the words in LIST A by a writing the letter of the  correct response beside the item number 
SECTION B. (54 MARKS)
Answer all Questions from this section
3. (a) Why efficiency of a pulley system always less than 100%? Give two reasons.
(04 marks)
(b) A body dipped in a liquid experiences an up thrust. Explain three factors on which  the up thrust depends. (05 marks)
4. (a) A hollow metal sphere of mass 5kg is tied to the bottom of the sea – bed by a  rope. The tension in the rope is 40N. Calculate the volume of the sphere.  (05 marks)
(b) A man climbing uphill tends to bend forward while a man descending downhill  tends to bend backward. Briefly explain.  (04 marks)
5. (a) The velocity of car A relative to car B is 5m/s when the two cars are moving in  the same direction and 15m/s when the two cars are moving in the opposite  directions. Determine the velocity of each car.  (05 marks)
(b) Explain, the force that keeps the earth in its position.  (04 marks)
6. (a) Briefly explain why a straight stick appears to be bent when partially immersed  in a beaker of water?  (04marks)
(b) A pin at the bottom of the vessel 0.16m deep, when the vesselis filled with water  it appear to rise when viewed from above. By what depth does the pin appear to be  raised if the refractive index of water is 1.33?  (05 marks)
7. (a) Explain briefly why ships float while a piece of iron sinks in water?  (04 marks)
(b) A piece of cork of volume 100cm 3  is floating on water. If the density of cork is  0.35g/cm 3 . Calculate the volume of cork immersed in water  (05 marks)
8. (a) A form three student was asked to illustrate the formation of image of a  concave mirror for an object placed beyond centre of curvature. Explain three points  he/she should consider when drawing a ray diagram  (05 marks)
(b) Why do two identical cells in series derive more current through the resistor than  one does, and why do they not double the current?  (04 marks)
SECTION C (30 marks)
Answer any two (2) questions from this section
9. (a) Distinguish between deviation and dispersion  (02 marks)
 (b) Draw a ray diagram to illustrate the meaning of 
 (i) Critical angle  (02 marks)
 (ii) Total internal reflection  (02 marks)
(c) (i) Briefly explain how complementally colours are formed and mention them
 (04 marks)
(ii) Complete the table below by filling the empty spaces (05 marks)
10. (a) Briefly explain three factors that determine the resistivity of the materials
(b) A fine wire has a resistance of 4Ω/m and area of 0.15m 2 . When a coil made from  this wire is connected to a 50V supply a current of 25mA flows.
 (i) What is the length of wire making this coil?
 (ii) Determine the resistivity of this wire.
(c) A potential difference of 24V from a battery is applied to the network of resistors  as shown in the figure below
24V
6Ω
12Ω 8Ω
i. What is the equivalent resistance in the figure above? 
ii. What is the potential difference across 6Ω resistor?
iii. What is the current across 12Ω resistor?
11. (a) A box is being pulled on a floor using a string. The string make an angle of 30 0   with the box as shown in the figure below: 30 0 String Box
 
If the force being applied at the string is 200N. Find:
(i) The force which tend to lift the box (03 marks)
(ii) The force which tends to pull the box forward (03 marks)


(b) How compound microscopes differ from Astronomical telescope?(Three  points) (06 marks)
(c) What are the factors affecting angle of deviation?  (03 marks)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 213

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
FORM THREE EXAMINATION AUGUST 2025
Instructions
i. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of nine (09) questions.
ii. Answer ALL questions in this sections A and B and three (3) questions form section C.
iii. Literary materials are not allowed in the examination room.
iv. Write your name on every page of your booklet(s) /answer sheets.
SECTION A (15 Marks) 
1.   For   each   of   the   items   (i)     (x),   choose   the   correct   answer   from   among   the  given   alternatives   and   write   its   letter   beside   the   item   number   in   the   answer  booklet provided. 
(i) Is   a   feeling   of   growing   tension   and   excitement   felt   by   a   reader   which   makes   reader curious about the outcome of a story or an event within a story. 
a) Episode.  d) Suspense. 
b) Surprise ending.  e) Deus ex machina. 
c) Resolution. 
(ii) One of the following statements differentiates poetry from prose. 
a) Poetry is presented in acts and scenes. 
b) Poetry has main and minor characters. 
c) In poetry the hero is called a persona. 
d) Poetry has stanzas and verses. 
e) Poetry has language economy in terms of short chapters. 
(iii) Why is literature said to be an art?..
a) Because it uses foreign languages. 
b) Because it uses African setting. 
c) Because it uses figurative language. 
d) Because it talks about non fiction. 
e) Because it does not use real characters. 
(iv) The   statement   Life   is   just   like   an   ice-cream,   enjoy   it   before   it   melts”   is   an   example  of. 
a) Metaphor.   
b) Simile.   
c) Personification. 
d) Irony 
e) Euphemism.
(v) Which statement among the following is an example of anastrophe: - 
a) Ten thousands saw I at a glance. 
b) I saw ten thousands at a glance. 
c) I will see ten thousands at a glance. 
d) Did I see ten thousands at a glance? 
e) We saw ten thousands at a glance. 
(vi) The   words   that   are   typed   in   italics   and   enclosed   in   the   parenthesis   (brackets)   in   play/drama indicate:-. 
a) Scenes and acts 
b) Character’s movements. 
c) Stage direction. 
d) Costumes. 
e) Character development. 
(vii) Our   grandfather   likes   telling   us   ancient   stories   with   animal   characters   and   at   the  end   of   each   story   he   asks   us   what   we   have   learnt   from   the   story.   Such   stories   are  called: 
a) Animalism 
b) Fables 
c) Hyena and rabbit stories. 
d) Parables. 
e) Legends. 
(viii) is   a   fictional   tale   that   explains   the   actions   of   gods,   or   heroes,   or   the   cause   of  natural phenomena (i.e. the origin of elements of nature)..
a) Myth.   
b) Legend.   
c) Epic. 
d) d) Folk tale. 
e) e) Narrative.
f)
(ix) Stanzas   are   named   according   to   the   number   of   lines   they   contain.   A   three-line  stanza is called. 
a) Couplet.   
b) Tercet.   
c) Quatrain. 
d) Sestet. 
e) Cinquain.
(x) Which pair of words below shows perfect rhymes:-
a) Through and though. 
b) Fame and came. 
c) Hunger and plumber 
d) Café and life 
e) Say and cry 
2.   Match   the   descriptions   in   List   A   with   the   corresponding   literary   term   in   List   B   by  writing   the   letter   of   the   correct   response   beside   the   item   number   in   the   answer  booklet provided.
 
SECTION B (40 Marks)
Answer  all  questions in this section
2. Mention five ways which can be used in describing a character. 
3. Read the following poem and answer the questions that follow. 
A BABY IS A EUROPEAN (Ewe) 
A baby is a European 
He does not eat our food 
He drinks from his own water pot 
A baby is a European 
He does not speak our tongue 
He is cross when the mother understands him not 
A baby is a European 
He cares very little for others 
He forces his will upon his parents 
A baby is a European 
He is always very sensitive 

The slightest scratch on his skin results in an ulcer 
Answer the following questions. 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE LITERATURE EXAM SERIES 212

PRESIDENT 'S  OFFICE
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
FORM THREE EXAMINATION - AUGUST 2025
HISTORY 
Time 3 hours 
Instructions
1. This paper consist of section A, B and C
2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three questions from section C
3. All writing should be in blue or black ink except for drawings in pencil.
SECTION A (20 marks)
1. For each of the items (i)……(xv) choose the correct answer from among of the given  alternatives and write its letter beside the term number;
i). The first European nation to industrialize was
A. France 
B. B. Belgium 
C. C. Holland 
D. D. Britain
ii).The earliest social organization from which society has passed through
A. Slavery 
B. B. Socialism 
C. C. Feudalism 
D. D. Primitive communalism
iii). By 1914 the entire African continent had been portinated except
A. Ethiopia and Nigeria 
B. Liberia and Mozambique 
C. Ethiopia and Liberia 
D. Ethiopia and Ghana
iv). It was fight between Boers and xhosa
A. Mfecane war 
B. Majimaij war 
C. Kaffir war 
D. Chimlenga war
v). The applied indirect rule in many her colonies except
A. Zimbabwe 
B. Kenya 
C. Uganda 
D. Mozambique
vi) .Which society in Africa waged war against German invasion?
A. Xhosa and Khaikho 
B. Nandi and Hehe 
C. Nama and Herero 
D. Zulu and Asante
vii). The best example of the evolution of man is represented by the discovery made at
A. Fort Jesus 
B. Olduvai gorge 
C. Bagamoyo 
D. Uvinza
 viii). History teaches us why and how people acted upon…
A. Land 
B. People 
C. Environment 
D. Vegetation
ix). The first European to invade the coast of east Africa were
A. Dutch 
B. Portuguese 
C. Boers 
D Spain
x). Man started to be skillful and tool maker at the stage of 
A. Middle Stone Age 
B. Homosapiens 
C. Homo habilis 
D. Homo eructus
xi).The most important factor for interaction among people of African was
A. Agriculture 
B. War 
C. Trade 
D. Pastoralism
xii). Which one was the first treaty signed for the abolition of slave trade in East Africa
A. Moresby treaty 
B. Anglo German treaty 
C. Hemerton treaty 
D. Heligoland treaty
xiii). Important urbancenters like Meroe in western Sudan emerged as a result of 
A. Improve agriculture 
B. salt making 
C. Metal working 
D. Ship building technology
xiv). European took laboureres from Africa during the Trans –Atlantic slave trade were
A. Sick but very strong 
B. Unable to do any work 
C.Strong and hardworking 
D. Weak but resistant to diseases 
xv). The western Sudanic States which engaged in the Trans – Sahara trade were
A. Mali, Songhai and Bunyoro
B. Ghana,Mali and Songhai 
C.  Ghana,Asante and Buganda 
D. Oyo, Benin andSonghai
2. Match the description in list A with the corresponding historical terms in the list B by  writing the letter of the correct response beside the items number in your answer sheet  provided


SECTION B (35 marks)
Answer all questions in this section
3. Briefly answer the following questions
i) Why abolition of slave trade in East Africa took a long time?
ii) How did Ethiopian escaped from colonialism
iii) Why some areas in Africa experienced more intensive scramble for than other areas?
iv) Differentiate Regional trade and local trade
v) How did exploders and Traders facilitated colonialism to Africa?
vi) Why African resistance against colonialists failed?
4. Arrange the following statement in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the  item number
i) In the 1770s the Dutch took some slave to West Indies.
ii) After the defeat of the Portuguese in East Africa, the Arabs dominated the trade of slaves  via the Indian oceans
iii) Slave trade is the process of buying and selling human being as other commodities in the  market.
iv) The Portuguese took slaves to America and to the French sugar and coffee plantation in  Mauritius and Reunion Island.
v) Slave trade along the east Africa coast began before 18 th  century.
5. Draw a sketch map of Africa and locate by using roman numbers the following;
i) The country in which Sultan Seyyid Said from Oman moved to in 1840

ii) The country which was dominated by British after berlin conference of 1884
iii) The northern Africa country which was under the Italy colonial rule during the colonial  domination
iv) The country where Dutch were settled
v) The country where chimurenga war took place
SECTION C (45 marks)
Answer three questions from this section
6. Explain six characteristics of the second exploitative mode of production
7. Account for failure of the Portuguese rule in East Africa. (six points)
8. Explain six limitations of written records as a source of history.
9. While some societies resisted the imposition of colonial rule in Africa, other appeared to  collaborate. Discuss this context giving concrete examples from East Africa ( six points )

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 211

PRESDENT'S OFFICE
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
FORM THREE EXAMINATION - AUGUST 2025
 GEOGRAPHY
Time: 3:00 Hours
Instructions
1. Answer all questions in section A, B and TWO questions from section C.
2. All writing must be in blue or black ink EXCEPT for diagrams which must be in pencil.
3. Section   A   carries   fifteen   (15)   marks,   section   B   fifty   five   (55)   marks   and   section   carries  thirty (30)  Marks.
4. Programmable   calculators,   cellular   phones   and   any   unauthorized   materials   are   not  allowed in the Examination room.
5. Write your name on every page of your answer sheet(s).
SECTION A (15 MARKS)
Answer  ALL  questions from this section.
1. For   each   of   the   item   (-x)   choose   the   correct   answer   among   the   given   alternatives   and  write its letter beside the item number
(i)   Assume   you   asked   to   help   form   one   student   who   failed   to   identify   the   branch   of  geography   which   deals   with   the   study   of   physical   features.   What   branches   of   geography  will you suggest among the following?
A. Human and economic geography
B. Practical geography
C. Mathematical geography
D. Physical geography
E. Human geography
(ii)   Mahugija   was   conducting   research   on   his   first   undergraduate   degree,   through   his  research   he   found   that   when   someone   across   the   international   date   line   eastward  one among the following occur
A. The day become longer than night
B. One day is turned back
C. Greenwich Mean Time is recorded
D. Time is gained by four minutes
E. Time is change negatively
(iii)   Geologist   Kayombo   observed   far   view   of   mountain   Usambara   when   he   was   travelling  at   home   during   holiday,   he   failed   to   classify   this   mountain,   assume   you   were   crossed   to  him in which category you would put this mountain
A. Fold mountain
B. Block mountain
C. Horst mountain
D. Residual mountain
E. Volcanic mountain
(iv)   The   secretary   of   the   UN   addressed   the   world   from   the   New   York   (75 0 W   42 0 N)   at   7:30  pm.   At   what   time   and   day   will   the   people   in   Dar-Es-Salaam   (45 0 E   06 0 S)   hear   the   same  speech
A. 3:30 am Wednesday
B. 12:30 pm Tuesday
C. 11:30 pm Wednesday
D. 3:30 pm Wednesday
E. 8:30 pm Tuesday 
(v)   A   geography   teacher   was   teaching   her   students   that,   the   earth   is   inclined   in   its   orbit  at   which   the   intensity   of   sun   rays   reach   different   part   of   the   earth   varies   and   causes   the  earth   to   experience   seasonal   weather   change,   by   relating   with   revolution   of   the   earth  what result might occur on the earth
A. Day and night
B. Deflection of wind and ocean currents
C. Seasonal of the earth
D. High tides and low tides
E. The day become longer than night
(vi)   Mr   Mahimbo   and   his   students   visit   a   certain   national   park   in   Tanzania   and   see   the  thick   forest,   tree   dwellers,   animals   and   people   who   engage   in   cultivation   of   cocoa   and  coffee. What types of forest will you suggest among the following
A. Equatorial
B. Mediterranean
C. Tropical
D. Tropical savanna
E. Polar climate 
(vii)   Form   three   students   at   kiwanja   cha   Ndege   secondary   school   made   the   program   of  visitingMwanza   regional   offices   of   geographers   and   learn   about   the   forces   causing   earth  movements; choose from the following internal forces that affect the earth.
A. Mass wasting
B. Vertical movements
C. Horizontal movement
D. Volcanicity
E. The chosen B,C and D are correct answers
(viii)   People   living   at   Mtwara   see   the   sun   earlier   than   those   living   at   Bukoba,   this  indicates that.
A. People of Mtwara wakeup earlier
B. The earth rotates from east to west
C. There are many hills and mountains at Bukoba
D. The earth rotates from west to east
E. The earth rotates from north to south
(ix)   Akilimali   grows   flower,   vegetable,   and   other   plants   that   caused   aesthetic  environment. What kind of agriculture is this?
A. Aquaculture
B. Horticulture
C. Garden
D. Port culture
E. Botanist
(x)   Students   from   kilimahewa   secondary   school   conducted   a   study   tour   to   volcanic  region   and   when   they   reach   the   area   they   were   wandering   the   way   hot   water   was  forcefully   emitted   into   the   atmosphere   from   the   ground   due   to   volcanic   eruption.   This  feature is called.
A. Hot spring
B. Crater lake
C. Geyser
D. Water fall
E. Mud flow
2.   Match    the   following   items   in   LIST   A   with   the   correct   response   in   LIST   B,   and   write   its  letter beside the item number in the answer sheet(s) provided
SECTION B (55Marks)
Answer  all  questions from this section.
2. With reference to the map, answer the following questions.
(i) What is a map?
(ii) Outline five qualities of a good map.
(iii) Outline five methods used to show relief features on the map.
(iv) Outline five importance of a map.
3. (a) Describe the following terms.
(i) Vulcanicity.
(ii) Diastrophism.
(b) Differentiate between the following terms.
(i) Magma and lava.
(ii) Faulting and folding.
4. Samwel   was   talking   with   his   grandfather   who   believes   that   the   earth’s   shape   is   flat  like   a   table.   By   using   four   evidences   describe   how   Samwel   will   prove   to   his   grandfather  that the earth is spherical. 
5. (a)   Most   of   geographers   have   various   perspectives   toward   classification   of   rocks,   as   form   three   student   who   study   geomorphologic   process,   briefly   classify   rocks   according  to the mode of formation.
(b) Explain how rocks are important for both social and economic development.

7.   Study   carefully   the   climate   data   given   for   station   A   and   then   answer   the   following  questions. 
 
a) Calculate the mean annual temperature.
b) What is the annual range temperature?
c) Calculate the total annual rainfall.
d) With two reasons suggest the type of climate for station A.
e) With   evidences   suggest   four   economic   activities   which   might   be   carried   out   in   this  climate.
  SECTION C (30 Marks)
Answer  TWO  questions from this section.
8. Forest   have   significant   contribution   to   social,   economic   and   ecological   development,  since   they   provide   various   products   for   human   beings   such   as   timber,   poles,   woods,   logs  and   honey.   With   examples   explain   six   points   that   likely   to   happen   if   the   forest   is  destroyed.
9. Denmark   is   one   of   the   most   nations   where   wind   energy   is   highly   used.   The   energy   is  renewable   source   since   it   does   not   get   exhausted.   What   are   the   cons   of   the   energy   in  the state?
10. Mwajuma   and   Rose   are   form   three   students   who   prefer   to   study   about   mass   wasting  that   said   to   be   the   movement   of   weathered   materials   down   the   slope   due   to   the  gravitational   force.   As   a   form   three   student   who   study   mass   wasting,   with   examples  explain the factors affecting the rate of mass wasting.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 210

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 209

PRESDENT'S OFFICE
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
FORM THREE EXAMINATION - AUGUST 2025
ENGLISH LANGUAGE 
Time: 3:00 Hours 
INSTRUCTIONS 
1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of Eleven (ii) questions 
2. Answer all questions in section A and B, and two (02) questions in section C.
3. Write your name on every page of your answer sheet.
4. All writings must be in blue or black ink 
5. Cellular phones and other unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination  room. 
SECTION A: (15 MARKS)
Answer all questions in this section
1. For   each   of   the   items   (i)     (x)   choose   the   most   correct   answer   among   the   given  alternatives   and   write   the   letter   of   the   correct   response   beside   the   item   number   in   the  spaces provided 
i Which of the following sentences express future action? 
A. Musa is going to school now 
B. Musa was going to school 
C. Musa will be going to school now 
D. Musa will go to school 
ii “A woman with  Whom  I share a husband,” Lawino said. The underlined word is a 

A. Reflexive pronoun 
B. Relative pronoun 
C. Possessive pronoun 
D. Interrogative pronoun 
iii When   you   visit   Serengeti   National   Park   you   can   see   a   _____   of   lions   wondering  everywhere 
A. Bunch 
B. Pride 
C. Swarm
D. Pack
iv “I am a soldier,” he said. What did he say? 
A. He said that I am a soldier 
B. He said that he is a soldier 
C. He said that he was a soldier 
D. He said that he was a soldier 
E. He said that he were a soldier 
v “If I were you I would be a rich person”. The above sentence is used to express 
A. Habitual situation 
B. Conditional situation 
C. A life experience 
D. Imitation situation 
vi Chacha and Marwa are friend. They _____ go to school together. 
A. Is 
B. Both
C. Each
D. Are 
vii He has been sleeping for two days. The underline word represents. 
A. Expression of relation of time 
B. Expression of duration of time 
C. Expression of specific time 
D. Expression of preposition of manner 
viii One of the following is set comprises of Abstract Nouns 
A. Kidney, love, chair, wind 
B. Joy, sorrow, death, justice 
C. Childhood, anger, forest, hand
D. Tanzania, Kenya, ball, water
ix Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct? 
A. They saw him few days ago
B. They saw him few days to come 
C. They seen him today 
D. They are seeing him tomorrow 
x Bandeco ______ English ______ Kiswahili 
A. Likes – to 
B. Prefers – more than 
C. Prefers – to 
D. Prefers – than 
2. Match   the   sentences   in   “COLUMN   A”   With   their   corresponding   description   that  indicate the state of completion of an event in the past in “COLUMN B”


SECTION B: (55 MARKS)
3. A   question   tag   turns   a   statement   into   a   question   and   it   is   often   used   for   checking  information   that   we   think   is   true   or   want   to   confirm.   Now,   what   are   the   appropriate   tag  questions in the sentences below:
i. She is not my sister 
ii. Japheth passed away 
iii. Asha plays netball very nice 
iv. Let us go home 
v. They kick us out of the pitch 
4. Rewrite the sentence “I go to school”in
i. Present perfect tense 
ii. Present continuous tense 
iii. Simple past tense 
iv. Future progressive tense 
v. Past perfect progressive tense
 
5. A)   In   each   of   the   sentences   below,   one   word   is   wrong.   Identify   the   wrong   words   then  correct them by writing the correct spelling for each word. 
i The birthday party will start at 7:00 pm
ii Children like eating lice 
iii I am going to visit my ant 
iv Ally is a week boy. He can’t lift a 20kg bag on his hand.
v Please, may you have a sit before we proceed further 
 B)   There   are   special   names   given   to   a   group   of   things   in   English.   For   example:   a   group  of   knives,   spoons   and   forks   is   called   cuttery.   Use   the   words   “choir,   students,   staffs,  audience, crews, committee and jazz” to complete the following expressions 
i People listening to or watching a performance …………………..

ii A   group   of   process   as   employees   charged   with   carrying   out   the   work   of   an  established organization ……………………….
iii A group of people appointed to do a special work …………………..
iv A group of people in a class for learning purpose ……………………
6. A   sentence   is   a   word   or   group   of   words   that   carry   a   meaningful   idea   or   massage.  Therefore,   a   complete   sentence   must   be   meaningful   to   the   listeners   or   readers.   Now,  rearrange the group pf words below to form a meaningful complete sentence. 
i Make, we, flour, bread, from, wheat 
ii Cat, on, a, drew, Juma, blackboard, the 
iii In, the, jug, is, milk, the 
iv East, sun, the, said, the, rises, teacher, that, in, the 
7. In   English   language,   a   statement   sentence   can   be   changed   into   a   question.   Likewise  a   question   can   also   be   changed   into   a   statement   sentence.   Now,   change   the   statements  below into questions as instructed after each statement. 
i She is the most beautiful lady in our village. (change into “Yes/No question”)
ii They [lay football every day. (Change into “Yes/No question”)
iii He killed his own mother. (change into “Yes/No question”)
iv She goes to school every day. (change into “Yes/No question”)
v Jaturi went to school in the evening. (change into “Wh – question”)
8. A) Read the passage below, and then answer the questions that follow 
Onyango’s   family   has   two   children   who   are   Ouko   and   Stella.   Ouko   is   a   boy   and   Stella   girl.   Ouko   got   married   to   Rose   and   Stella   got   married   to   John.   Ouko   and   Rose   have   two  children   Gabriel   and   Hawa.   Gabriel   is   a   boy   and   Hawa   is   afgirl.   John   and   Stella’s   children  are Abdul and Amina. Abdul is a boy and Amina is a girl. 
QUESTIONS
i What is the relationship between Ouko and Rose? 
ii What is the relationship between Ouko and Stella? 
iii What is the relationship between Stella and Abdul? 
iv What is the relationship Ouko and Amina?
v What is the relationship between Stella and Gabriel? 
B)   Quantifies   are   words   that   show   how   much   of   something   is   used   with   Quantifier   can  be   a   single   word   or   phrase   and   can   be   used   with   both   countable   and   uncountable  nouns. As a form three students construct one sentence for each of the quantifier below. 
i Much 
ii Many
iii A lot of 
iv Little 
v a few 
SECTION C (30 MARKS)
Answer Only two (2) questions in this section
9. Write   altter   to   your   uncle;   Safari   Njema   of   Mugumu.   Tell   him   about   “the   all   students  lunch   Programme”   initiated   in   your   school   in   which   all   students   are   required   to   get  lunch   in   the   school   during   the   afternoon   before   proceeding   with   the   evening   sessions.  Ask   him   to   help   or   assist   you   with   some   requirements   needed   like   rice,   maize,   beans   and  money   to   buy   other   things   and   pay   the   cooks.   Your   name   is   Kulwa   Corona   of   Ligero  Secondary School, P.O.Box 1234 Rorya. 
10. MzeeYadunia   aged   65   years   old,   was   heard   complaining   about   the   “All   students   lunch  programme”   initiated   by   the   government   recently.   Mzee   went   further   and   claimed   that  he   will   not   contribute   anything   to   his   daughter   who   is   a   form   three   student   in   nearby  school.   According   to   YaduniaMengi,   the   programme   is   nothing   but   the   wastage   of  earnings   to   the   poor   citizens   and   hence   overloading   the   parents.   As   a   form   three  students,   how   will   you   convince   MzeeYadunia   to   go   with   the   time   and   pay   his  daughter’s contributions warm heatedly? (with not less than 200 words, give four points)
11. As   a   form   three   student,   how   can   you   differentiate   the   poetry   from   other   genres   of  literature? (Give five points)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 208

 
PRESDENT'S OFFICE
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
FORM THREE EXAMINATION - AUGUST 2025
CIVICS
Time: 3:00 Hours 
INSTRUCTIONS 
1. This paper consists of section A, B and C
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two (2) question from section C
3. Write your examination number on your answer booklet (s)
SECTION A (16 Marks)
1. For each of the following (i) - (ii) choose the correct answer from the given  alternatives and write it's letter in the box provided 
(i) Some of the aspects of governance include the following except 
A. accountability. 
B. Rule of law. 
C. Failure of citizens to pay taxes. 
D. Transparency 
(ii) The Declaration that drafted by people from different legal and cultura backgrounds  and its aim was to make sure that human rights are universal recognized and all  countries adapted, promoted and protect them was termed as
A. The universal declaration of human rights. 
B. Environmental and development rights 
C. Environmental declaration. 
D. Universal equality 
(iii) In Tanzania the Bill of rights was included in the Constitution in 
A. 1977. 
B. 1994. 
C. 1963. 
D. 1984
(iv) Mr Meshimeshi is a public servant in one of the government departments who uses  public office for personal gains. How can Mr Meshimeshi be termed?
A. Corrupt worker. 
B. An intelligent worker. 
C. A smart worker. 
D. Good worker
(v) Shakira's husband died and her in law forced Shakira to marry Hussein her late  husband young brother. Such a family decision demonstrate 
A. Gender blindness. 
B. Gender stereotyping. 
C. Gender Equality. 
D. Gender Discrimination
(vi) The Makonde are famous in Tanzania for their skills in making carvings of various  types. How do you characterize such carvings?
A. Tradition. 
B. Performance arts. 
 C. Crafts. 
D. Noms
(vii) In Tanzania the leader of the government business in the parliament of the United  Republic of Tanzania in the
A. Speaker. 
B. Chief of Justice. 
 C. Prime Minister. 
D. President 
(viii) Jauhara is skillful in thinking and behaving in a manner that enables her to express  his feelings strongly and with confidence. What skills does Jauhara portray?
A. Assertiveness skills 
B. Self awareness. 
C. Negotiation skills. 
D. Friendship skills 
(ix) Mariath as the grandmother of Mr Ayman, told her grandson tha Tanzania culture  went into several changes from past time to current time. This can be summarized that  culture is
A. Dynamic. 
B. Complex. 
C. Affected. 
D. Adaptive 
(x) Many Tanzanians cannot access credit from financial institutions due to
A. Lack of political influence. 
B. Lack of entrepreneurship skills and security 
C. Lack of proper identification. 
D. Lack of enough financial institutions 
2. Match the items in LIST A with the correct responses in LIST B by writing the letter of  the most correct response in your answer sheet provide 


SECTION B (54 Marks
Answer all questions from this section
3. Consider yourself as an expert from Tanzania Gender network program (TNGP) ,  explain to the community five cultural practices that should be prohibited in Tanzania  society.
4. Explain five causes on the increase of road accidents in Tanzania.
5. The National Anthem of Tanzania has two stanzas, and it is sung by citizens to  inculcate the sense of patriotizm . As citizen of Tanzania, briefly explain to your  community any five special associations when the Nation anthem is sung.
6. Most of students in secondary schools falls in different problems because of lack of  skills such as how to make decision, lack of individual and social skills. Use the  knowledge you learnt in form one to explain five points on the importance of life skills  in the society 
7. Examine five aspects of team work.
8. "Teaching civics in primary and secondary school is the wastage of time " do you  agree? Support your side with five points.
SECTION C (30 Marks)
Answer two questions from this section 
9.   Analyze five factors which affect the level of development in any nation
10. Suggest five measures to address the challenges facing informal sector in your  society 
11. Explain five points on the role of the government in economic development.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 207

PRESIDENTS OFFICE
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATIONS AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
FORM THREE EXAMINATIONS
COMMERCE
Time: 3:00 Hours August, 2025
INSTRUCTIONS
1. This paper consist of section A, B and C.
2. Answer ALL questions in section A and B and only two questions from section C
3. Non programmable calculators may be used.
4. Write your name on every page of the question paper.
SECTION A (15 Marks)
Answer  all  questions in this section.
1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given  alternatives and write its letter in the space provided.
i) The art of transmitting information and ideas by word of mouth, writing or by other  means
A) Advertising
B) Communication
C) Insurance
D) Transport
ii) The role of commerce in production process is to make
A) Direct services reach ultimate consumer
B) Distribution of goods and services to the retailer
C) Distribution of goods and service to wholesaler
D) Goods and service produced to reach the ultimate consumer
iii) Given stock at start 80,000, stock at close 100,000, purchases 410,000, sales 455,000.
Rate of stock turn is
A) 5.1 times
B) 3.4 times
C) 4.3 times
D) 2.3 times
iv) Below are some of the factors to consider when locating a warehouse except
A) Number of customer
B) Communication system
C) Cost of construction
D) Flexibility
v) Vehicle includes the following except
A) Pickups
B) Cranes
C) Tankers
D) Dhows
vi) The loading and off-loading places are referred to as
A) Unit of carriage
B) Terminal
C) Way
D) Method of propulsion
vii) The demand of one commodity that causes the demand of another commodity is  called;
A) Joint demand
B) Composite demand
C) Derived demand
D) Competitive demand
viii) ______________ is the exchange of goods for goods
A) Home trade
B) Barter trade
C) Foreign trade
D) Import trade
ix) The level of stock at which placing new order must be done is
A) Minimum stock level
B) Maximum stock level
C) Average stock
D) Order point
x) The type of elasticity of supply that occurs when elasticity of supply is greater than  one is called;
A) Unitary supply
B) Perfect elastic supply
C) Inelastic supply
D) Elastic supply
2. Match the descriptions in  LISTA  with the relevant in  LISTB  by writing the correct  response below the corresponding item number in the table provided
SECTION B (50 MARKS)
Answer all questions in this section
3.   (a) Briefly explain five (05) benefits of warehouses to the economy.
(b) Mr. Magesa had opening stock of Tsh 25,000/= and closing stock of Tsh31,250/=.net  purchases for the year amounted to 187,500/= and his gross profit margin is 40%. His  expenses for the year were Tsh 35,750. Calculate the following;
a) Average stock
b) Cost of goods sold
c) Gross profit
d) Net profit/loss
e) Turn over.
4. (a) Explain five factors that might influence the quantity of maize supplied in a market.
(b) From the table below, draw a demand curve and supply curve in the same pair of  axis and indicate equilibrium point, equilibrium price, and equilibrium quantity.



5. With the help of a well labelled diagram, summarize the concept of production.
6. (a) Mr. Nguvumali a business man who had an account with NMB Bank in Arusha  issued a cheque payable to Ms. Rose amounting TZS 1000,000/= only. Use these  information to describe main parts of the cheque.
(b) Mention five importance of commercial banks which operates in Tanzania
7. Many people argue that self-employment is the solution to the unemployment  problem in Tanzania. Explain any three (3) advantages and two (2) disadvantages  associated with self - employment.
SECTION C (30MARKS)
Answer two questions from this section.
8. You are appointed as a communication officer of CRDB Bank plc, describe types of  communication you will use to communicate with the bank’s staff and customer. Clearly  mention five factors you will consider before choosing a medium communication.
9. Recently, the President Samia emphasized on the importance of youth to engage in  Agriculture and other entrepreneurial activities instead of waiting employment from  government. However, there are a number of challenges hindering this group from  entering entrepreneurship. As an expert in commerce, describe at least six challenges  facing entrepreneurs in Tanzania.
10. Transportation is very important in the economy of any country as it act like vein and  arteries in human being. Describe any five (5) contribution of transportation in  Tanzanian economy.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 206

PRESDENT'S OFFICE
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
FORM THREE EXAMINATION - AUGUST 2025
CHEMISTRY
Time: 3:00 Hours 
INSTRUCTIONS 
1. This paper consists of section A, B and C
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and one (1) question from C
3. Cellular phones anda any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
4. Non-programmable calculators may be allowed in the examination room
5. Write your examination number (or your name) on every page of your answer sheet(s)
6. The following constants may be used :
 Automic masses: H=1, 0=16, N=14, S=32, Zn=65, Cl=35.5, Cu=64, Na=23, Ag=108  Electrochemical equivalent of Ag=1.118×10 -3   , Avogadro's number = 6.02×10 23  GMV at s.t.p =  22.4dm , 1 Faraday = 96,500 coulombs, Standard pressure = 760mmHg, Standard temperature  = 273 K, 1 litre = 1 dm3 = 1000cm 3
SECTION A (15 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section 
1. For each of the item (i-x) choose the correct answer in the space provided by writing the letter  of the correct answer
i. The following reaction is an example of : Fe 2 0 3  + Al 2 O +2Fe
A. Combination reaction. 
B. Decomposition reaction. 
C. Displacement reaction. 
D. Double displacement reaction
ii. Which of the following pairs of reagents when added together will have the following ionic  equation: Pb 2 (aq)  + 2Cl- (aq)  -----> PbCl 2(s)
 I. Lead (II) oxide and aqueous potassium chloride. 
 II. Aqueous lead (II) nitrate and aqueous sodium chloride 
 III. Aqueous lead (II) nitrate and dilute hydrochloric acid 
 IV. Lead (II) hydroxide and hydrochloric acid 
A. I and IV only. 
B. II and III only. 
C. IV only. 
D. I, II, III, and IV
iii. Which one of the given is a mineral acid?
A. Lactic acid. 
B. Formic acid. 
C. Tartaric acid. 
D. Hydrochloric acid
iv. Which one of the given is the pH value of pure water?
A. 0. 
B. 7. 
C. 8. 
D. 1
v. Soda ash chemical formula is
A. NaHCO 3. 
B. Na 2 CO 3. 9H 2 O. 
C. Na 2 CO 3. 
D. Na 2 CO 3. 10H 2 O
vi. Skin injury that cause a change in colour of skin 
A. Bruise. 
B. Burn. 
C. Scald. 
D. Shock
vii. Soft drink the chemical formula of caustic potash is
A. NaOH. 
B. Ca(OH) 2. 
C. NH 4 OH. 
D. KOH
viii. pH value less than 7 indicates that the solution is
A. Acidic. 
B. Basic. 
C. Neutral. 
D. No effect
ix. Which one of the following is an amphoteric metal hydroxide?
A. KOH. 
B. Ba(OH) 2. 
C. Pb(OH) 2. 
D. LiOH
x. Range of pH scale is
A. 7 to 10. 
B. 0 to 10. 
C. 0 to 14. 
D. 7 to 14
2. Match the description in list A with the correct response from list B by writing the letter of the  correct response in the space provided 
SECTION B (70 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section 
3. a) A stone is said to be a good example of matter. Give two reasons to support this fact 
 b) With reasons explain why it is necessary to have the following in the laboratory;-
i. Laboratory door open outwards 
ii. Laboratory floor is rough and never polished 
iii. Bucket of sand
4. a) With the aid of a well balanced equations briefly explain how
i. Temporary hardness enters into water
ii. Temporary hardness in water can be removed by boiling 
iii. Permanent hardness in water can be removed by addition of washing soda
 b) In three test tubes A, B and C, three different liquids namely, distilled water, underground  water and distilled water in which a pinch of calcium sulphate is dissolved respectively are taken.  An equal amount of soap solution is added to each test tube and the contests are shaken. In  which test tube will the length of the foam (lather) be longest? Justify your answer.
5. a) You are provided with three test tubes U, V, W which contain distilled water, acidic and  basic solutions. If you are given blue litmus paper only, how will you identify the nature of the  solutions in three test tubes?
 b) Glucose has hydrogen in it, therefore can we classify it as an acid? Explain 
6. a) A student aimed to prepare gas G by using moderate reactive metal with a dilute acid. By  using the information given above, answer the following questions;-
i. What is the name of gas G?
ii. What is the chemical test that distinguishes this gas from other gases?
iii. With two reasons, state the correct means of collecting the gas?
iv. Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction 
. b) Mwikwabe wanted the above reaction (6) (a) to go fast because wants to utilize in various  industrial uses. You as a chemist provide him four means that can be used to make the reaction  faster.
7. a) during large scale water treatment, there two chemicals added at various stages. Name  them and explain the reason of using them in water treatment.
b) Mwajuma was sent to buy the good fuel but was unable to know which fuel was good. You as  seller of the fuels, what are four criteria will you consider to advice Mwajuma to get the fuel she  was ordered?
8. (a) T and K are elements found in the periodic table. The atomic number of T is 16 and that of  K is 19.
i. In which group and period of the periodic table does element T and K appear?
ii. Write the chemical formula of a compound formed between T and K
 (b) (i) Which particles are atoms of the same element in the list of the particles given below 
40 18 38 20 38 18 C and  39 18 D
 (ii) why can't neon react with sodium?
9. a) Define the following terms as they are applied in chemistry contents:-
i. Mole of the substance 
ii. Molar mass 
iii. Molar volume 
 b) Determine the following :-
i. The amount of substance present in 48.8litres of oxygen at S.T.P
ii. The volume of 5g of ammonia gas at S.T.P
iii. The number of ions present in 4.26g of sodium sulphate 
10. (a) define the following terms 
i. Standard solution 
ii. Equivalent point of titration 
iii. Basicity of an acid
(b) 25cm of a solution containing 0.196g of metal hydroxide YOH were neutralized by 35cm of  a 0.1M hydrochloric acid solution 
i. Write down a balanced chemical equation for the reaction 
ii. Calculate the molarity of the metal hydroxide solution 
iii. Calculate the relative molecular mass of YOH
iv. Identify metal Y
11. Mr. Kampango attended an interview when seeking for the job of preparing food for  students at IKIZU SEKONDARY SCHOOL. During an interview he was asked "which type of flame  will you use to prepare food so as to enable students to eat early and attend night  preparation/study on time".
a. What flame did Mr. Kampango mentioned 
b. With three(3) reasons support the answer of Mr. Kampango to choose such a flame.
12. Scientists set scientific procedures to be followed in harmonizing the societies they live in.  With four reasons support why did they agreed in those procedures to some scientific problems  they face in life.
SECTION C (15 Marks) 
Answer only one (1) question 
13. a) Define the following terms as they are applied in chemistry contents;-
i. Electrolysis
ii. Inert electrodes 
b) Masamaki connected the wire terminals to the current of 5A after connecting them to the  electrodes which were immersed in molten silver chloride electrolyte. The cathode electrode  finally found increased by mass of 3.24 Kg of Silver. He forgotten to record the time used in the  experiment then decided to go to Asha ask the time might have spend in that experiment. You  as Asha assist Masamaki to know the time used in the experiment.
14. a) State the difference between hydrated salt and anhydrous salt
b) A sample of mass 28.6g of hydrated sodium carbonate (Na 2 CO 3 10H 2 O) was heated such that  it's water was entirely absorbed by 32g of anhydrous copper (II) sulphate to form a blue  compound of hydrated CuSO 4. XH 2 O) . Evaluate the value of X in the copper (II) sulphate.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 205

PRESIDENTS OFFICE
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATIONS AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
FORM THREE EXAMINATIONS
BOOK KEEPING
Time: 3:00 Hours August, 2025
Instructions
Answer all questions.
SECTION A (15 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section
1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given
alternatives.
(i) Which of the following books of prime entry is used to record a list of goods sold on  credit?
A. The sales return day book
B. The purchases day book
C. The sales day book
D. The purchases return day book
E. The discount received book
(ii) When preparing a trial balance, what would result if sales made to Ramima sh. 57,000  are wrongly debited to Ramima account as sh. 75,000?
A. Debit column of trial balance will exceed credit column by sh. 75,000
B. Credit column of trial balance will fall by sh. 75,000
C. Debit column of trial balance will exceed credit column by sh. 18,000
D. Credit column of trial balance will exceed debit column by sh. 18,000
E. Debit column of trial balance will exceed credit column by sh. 57,000
(iii) Given balance as per cash book sh. 6,500, uncredited cheque sh. 1,500, bank charges  not yet entered in the cash book sh. 500 and credit transfer received by bank but not yet  entered in the cash book sh. 1,000. What will be the balance as per bank statement?
A. Sh. 7,500
B. Sh. 4,500
C. Sh. 8,500
D. Sh. 5,500
E. Sh. 6,500
(iv) Which of the following is BEST describes the meaning of ‘Purchases.’
A. Items bought
B. Goods bought on credit
C. Goods bought for resale
D. Goods paid for
E. Goods on transit
(v) In the income statement, the sales returns should be
A. Added to cost of goods sold
B. Deducted from purchases
C. Deducted from sales
D. Added to sales
E. Added to purchases.
(vi) A firm bought a machine for 50,000/= it expected to be used for 6 years and then  sold for the 5,000/=. What is the annual amount of depreciation if the straight-line  method is used?
A. 7,500/=
B. 7,000/=
C. 6,500/=
D. 6,750/=
E. 8,000/=
(vii) Which of the following expenditure the government receives no value?
A. Nugatory expenditure
B. Recurrent expenditure
C. Statutory expenditure
D. Development expenditure
E. Recurring expenditure
(viii) From the point of view of your business, which of the following is a liability?
A. A car bought on credit
B. A house bought by cash
C. Cash received from a debtor
D. Bank overdraft
E. Cheque given to Mr. Popo
(ix) Which of the following are the examples of revenue expenditures?
A. Purchases of goods and payment for electricity bill in cash
B. Repair of van and petrol costs of van
C. Buying machinery and paying for installation costs
D. Electricity costs of using machinery and buying van
E. Buying van and petrol costs for van
(x) Which one of the following would not be taken into account when calculating
working capital?
A. Cash
B. Debtors
C. Loan from bank
D. Motor vehicles
E. Creditors
2. Choose the correct term from  LIST B  which matches with the explanation in  LIST
and write its letter in the answer sheet provided.
SECTION B (40Marks)
Answer all questions from this section
3. Indicate the accounts to be debited or credited from the following transactions
4. Explain the meaning of the following terms:
(i) Capital expenditure
(ii) Revenue expenditure
(iii)Accrued expenses
(iv)Provision for bad debts
(v) Pre-paid income
5. Briefly explain five causes of fall of value of non-current assets.
6. You are given the balances of rent and rates accounts as 1st January 2007: Rent and  rates -accrued TZS 31,000
-prepaid TZS 28,900
During the financial year of the business the following transactions took place:
Paid rent by cheque TZS 61,400
Paid rates by cheque TZS 41,200
Closing balance as at 31st December 2007 were:
Rent and rates -accrued TZS 29,900
-prepaid TZS 24,400
Required:  prepare the rent and rates account showing the amount to be transferred to  income statement for the year ended 31st December 2007
SECTION C (45 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section
7. On 1st January 2015 Mikuyu Motors Company ltd purchased Motor lorry worth sh.  12,000,000. The company used the asset for three years. On 31st December 2017 the  lorry was sold for sh. 3,000,000. It is the policy of the company to compute depreciation  using straight line method.
Using the information provided, prepare the Motor Lorry and Provision for
Depreciation on Motor Lorry Account for the three years ending 31st December
2015, 2016 and 2017.  
8. The following is a trial balance extracted from the books of a sole proprietor, Masanja  as at 31st December 2019
The following additional information is provided :
(a) Make a provision for depreciation of plant and machinery at 10% per annum and  fittings at 15% per annum
(b) Increase the provision for bad debts to an amount equal to 4% of sundry debtors
(c) Prepaid insurance amount to 500/-
(d) Rates accrued 400/-
(e) Closing stock was 60,000/-
(f) During the year Masanja took goods worth 2,000/- for his personal use
Required ;
Prepare income statement for the year ending 31st December 2019 and a statement of  financial position as at that date.
9. A businessman started a business on 1st January 2013. During the period to 31 st   December, trade debtors amounted to TZS 1,000,000 after writing off bad debts of TZS  9,000. It was also decided to provide for provision for bad debts equal to 05% of  debtors. 
During the year ended 31st December 2014 debtors stood at TZS 4,404,000 out of  these, debtors of TZS 4,000 are bad and cannot be realized. The provision for doubtful  debts is to be raised to 05% on sundry debtors.
You are required to prepare:
a) Bad debts account and provision for doubtful debts account.
b) Extract from income statement and statement of financial position.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 204

  PRESDENT'S OFFICE
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
FORM THREE EXAMINATION - AUGUST 2025
BIOLOGY 
Time: 3:00 Hours 
 INSTRUCTIONS 
1. This paper consists of section A, B and C
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two (2) question from section C of which  question number 13 is compulsory 
3. Section A carries (20) marks, section B carry (60) and section C carries (20) marks
4. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in  pencil 
SECTION A (20 Marks)
1. Choose the best correct answer and write it's letter in the brackets provided 
(i) A part of the microscope that regulates the amount of light is 
A. Stage. 
B. Mirror. 
C. Diaphragm 
 D. objective lenses
(ii) Areas where bones meet 
A. Orbit. 
 B. Joints. 
C. Socket. 
D. Ball
(iii) A group of cells performing the same function is called
A. A tissue. 
B. A system. 
C. An organ. 
D. An organism
(iv) During digestion process, both mechanical and chemical digestion of food begin in  the 
A. Stomach. 
B. Oesophagus. 
C. Small intestine. 
D. Mouth
(v) An organs responsible for gaseous exchange in mammals is
A. Kidneys 
B. Trachea. 
C. Langs. 
D. Nose 
(vi) A parasite that causes malaria is
A. Amoeba. 
B. Plasmodium 
C. Trypanosome. 
D. Bacteria 
(vii) A patient having blood group B can receive blood of a donor who belongs to
A. Group B only. 
B. Group O only. 
C. Group AB only. 
D. Group B or Group O
(viii) A person whose diet lacks iodine likely to develop a nutritional disorder known as
A. Beriberi. 
B. Ricketts. 
C. Night blindness. 
D. Goitre
(ix) Gaseous exchange in plants does not take place in the 
A. Flowers. 
B. Leaves. 
C. Stem. 
D. Roots
(x) Absorption of food takes place in the 
A. Large intestine. 
B. Small intestine. 
C. Stomach. 
D. Liver
2. The following are matching items, match the items in LIST A with those in LIST B
LIST A
LIST B
i. Type of respiration which requires oxygen
ii. Disease caused by lack of proteins 
iii. Loss of water vapour from the plants
iv. Brings about movement in animals 
v. Universal recipient 
vi. Absorb water and mineral salts from the soil 
vii. A sexually transmitted disease 
viii. A component of oxskeleton of insects
ix. Displacement of bones at a joint 
x. They have needle shaped leaves
A. Conifers
B. Chitin 
C. Blood group 
D. Translocation 
E. Blood group AB
F. Anaerobic respiration
G. Aerobic respiration 
H. Root hairs
I. Kwashiorkor
J. Locomotion 
K. Syphilis 
L. Transpiration
M. Dislocation







SECTION B (60 Marks)
 Short answer questions 
3. a) (i) Name three types of muscles 
 (II) State function of synovial fluid 
 b) Give types of skeleton of the following organisms
i. Fish. ii. Earth warm. iii. Grasshopper. iv. Leech
4. a) Explain two differences between coniferophyta and angiospermophyta
 b) Give two advantages and two disadvantages of coniferophyta
5. a) Define photosynthesis 
 b) Give two reasons why photosynthesis is important to living things 
 c) Name three factors that affect the rate of photosynthesis 
6. a) i) Define food webs
 ii) Construct food web of the following organisms, hawk, maize stalk borer,  salamander, mouse and snake 
 iii) Explain what will happen if snoke is removed from the food web you  constructed 
 b) Define respiration 
7. a) Draw a well labelled diagram Cross - section of spinal cord 
 b) Name two parts that form central nervous system 
8. a) Define 
 (i) Tendons
 (ii) Ligaments 
 b) Name three synovial joint found in human body
9. a) What features of the joint enables it to reduce friction?
 b) Explain the following 
 (i) Phototropism
 (ii) Hydrotropism
10. a) Name parts of the body where each waste is produced
 b) Name the major organ through which each waste is excreted
11. a) Give four differences between bean plant and maize plant
 b) List kingdom and division of pines tree 
12. a) Mention two types of photoreceptors cells found in the retina
 b) Give four examples of reflex actions.
SECTION C (20 Marks)
13. Explain 8 economic importance of flowering plants.
14. Briefly explain components of coordination in mammals in order form.
15. Form one students in a certain secondary school were interested to know how to use  the light microscope. Assume you are a biology teacher: educate these students on how  to use the light microscope.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 203

PRESIDENTS OFFICE
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATIONS AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
FORM THREE EXAMINATIONS
BASIC MATHEMATICS
Time: 3:00 Hours August, 2025
INSTRUCTIONS
1. This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
2. Answer all questions in both sections.
3. Each question in section A carries 6 marks while each question in section B carries 10  marks.
4. All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly.
5. NECTA mathematics table and non-programmable calculator may be used.
6. All communication devices and any unauthorized material are not allowed in the  examination room.
7. Write your name on every page of your answer sheets. 
SECTION A (60 MARKS)
1. (a) Express 0.058492
i. Correct to 3 significant figures
ii. Correct to 3decimal figures
(b) Amos and Pius are riding on a circular path. Amosy complete around 48minutes,  where as Pius complete around in 72minutes. If they started at the direct. After how  many minutes will they meet again at the starting point?
3. A survey conducted to 110 university students about ownership of either Ipad or  Laptop or both. The following three questions were asked requiring responses of “Yes or  No”.
i. Do you own an I pad?
ii. Do you own a laptop?
iii. Do you own an I pad and a laptop?
The results of a survey are given in the table below 
a. Represent these result in a well labelled Venn diagram.
b. How many students own a I pad but not a Laptop?
c. How many students own either an Ipad or a Laptop
d. How many students own neither an Ipad nor a Laptop
4. a. Two lines which interest at point A have equations 7x – 4y = 17 and 5x – 4y = 11
i. Determine the coordinates of points 
ii. Find the equation of the line through point A and B (-3,-2)
b. Find the value of k if the lines 3x-y = 6 and kx-2y = 8 have equal x-intercepts 
5. a. Find the number of sides of a regular polygon whose interior angle is each 170°
b. Given A={32,48,200,90,158} and B={Acute angle, Right angle, Reflex angle, Obtuse  angle}. Draw an arrow diagram to illustrate the relation between sets A and B.
6. a. Along the road going to school, Ghati planted trees on each side of the road. If the  road is 0.75km long and trees are 5m apart. How many trees are there?
b. You are asked to make a fence for a garden using a wire which is 56 metres long. The  fence should be rectangular in shape with an area of 171 square metres. What will be  the dimensions of the fence enclosing the garden?
7. a. The circumference of a circular floor of a room is 25.14cm. Find the radius of the  floor.
b. Andrew bought a car for 720,000 shillings then spent 80,000 shillings on a  maintenance, then he sold the car for 980,000 shillings. Find his percentage profit on  whole transaction.
8. a. A Translation T maps the points (5,7) into (8,9). Find where T maps 
i. the origin
ii. the point (9,7)
b. If the sum and difference of ages of Bethsheba and Patrick are in the ratio 10:8, what  would be the ratio of their respective ages?
9. a. If triangle ABC is similar to PQS. Find the value of x and y in the figure below.
b. In the following figure, AP is perpendicular to BC, line AB=13cm, line BP=5cm and line  AC=15cm
10. a. Solve 2x + 5x = 12 by completing the square.
b. The sum of three consecutive positive integers is 54 what are the numbers?
SECTION B (40 MARKS)
11. a. The set of relation R is defined as R = {(x, y): x ≤ 2, y ≤ 1 and 3x + 2y ≥18}
i. Draw the graph of R
ii. Use the graph above to state the domain and range of R
b. The function is defined as f(x) = x 2  + 4x – 5, Determine 
i. symmetrical line of the function
ii. Maximum or minimum value of a function
iii. Turning point of the function
12. a. A man who is 3m tall, stand on a horizontal surface 10m away from the church  tower and found that, the angle elevated from the eyes of man is 60°. Find the height of  the church tower.
b. If f(x) =  find the domain and range of f
13. a. Miniphy is running a business near a certain college. He is selling pieces of cake  and soda. Each piece of cake costs 1500Tsh, and each bottle of soda costs 500Tsh. In  one afternoon a man made a total 255500Tsh by selling a total of 225 piece of cake and  soda, using the given information, find the number of pieces of cake and bottles of soda  by using substitution method.
b. Find a linear function such that f(2) = -5 and f(3) = -8, hence draw the graph of the  function

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 202

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSESSMENT

LITERATURE IN ENGLISH 

FORM THREE 

TERMINAL EXAMINATION - MARCH, 2025

TIME: 3:00 HRS  

INSTRUCTION:

  • This paper consists of 10 questions
  • Answer all questions in section A , B and C
  • Section A carry (15) marks section B (40) marks and section C ( 45) marks

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the give alternatives and write its letter in the answer booklet provided.
  1. One of the following expresses a factual information about the study of literature. Which one is it?
  1. In order to transform the wicked people in the society
  2. In order to understand our past and determine our future
  3. In order to understand our culture
  4. In order to be enlightened about different techniques and styles
  1. Which of the following is one of the unique features of poetry as compared to other forms of literature
  1. Poetry employs the excessive use of figures of speech
  2. Poetry is loud, people speak in tongues
  3. Poetry is a lengthy fictitious narrative
  4. Poetry directly addresses concerns of individuals
  1. The following items are found in a literary theatre except
  1. Costumes and masks
  2. Ropes and marbles
  3. Audience and curtains
  4. Adjudicator and actors
  1. Suppose your friend asks you to write his/her story, according to information he/she gives. What kind of writing are you being asked to present?
  1. Biography
  2. Eulogy
  3. Elegy
  4. Narrative
  1. In case you hear your sister singing some old songs for her child to sleep, what literary aspect has been provoked?
  1. Proverbs
  2. Tongue twister
  3. Riddles
  4. Lullaby
  1. A situation whereby a narrator of a story talks of another person’s account is referred to as;
  1. Point of view
  2. Straight forward narration
  3. Flashback
  4. Dialogue
  1. Agnes write by implying a style whereby the reader is tasked with supplying the words that appear not complete by him/herself. This literary approach is referred to as
  1. Simile
  2. Ellipsis
  3. Metonymy
  4. Fiction
  1. My grandmother often tell me stories of how cunning the hare is. In Literature, what is this termed as?
  1. Traditional stories
  2. Drama
  3. Anecdote
  4. Fable
  1. One of the following sets describe components of form, identify it
  1. Character, conflict and style
  2. Character, language and style
  3. Character, theme and language
  4. Character, language and relevance
  1. _______ is an example of written Literature
  1. Ballad 
  2. Style 
  3. Epitaph 
  4. Onomatopoeia
  1. Match the descriptions in list A with the corresponding type character in list B by writing the letter in answer sheet provide

Column A

Column B

  1. Meow, zzz, whirls
  2. Gun for war, pen for school
  3. Mr, Peter piper picked piece of pickled paper
  4. Is this your back that is bent?
  5. Sun wondered
  1. Alliteration
  2. Personification
  3. Rhetoric
  4. Symbolism
  5. Onomatopoeia

Answers

i

ii

iii

iv

V

 

 

 

 

.

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer all question

  1. Define the following terms as used in Literature
  1. Simile
  2. Irony
  3. Satire
  4. Style
  5. Flashback
  1. Provide an answer for the following literary explanation/s
  1. A type of narration whereby a story is told from the beginning to the end.
  2. A group of people acting in a play
  3. Clothes that are worn by actors on stage
  4. People listening to or reading a literary piece of work
  5. Any form of literary work conveyed by word of mouth
  1. Compare and contrast the following literary terms
  1. Poet and playwright
  2. Stanza and verse
  3. Form and content
  4. Fairy tale and myth
  5. Novel and novella
  1. Fill in the blank space with the most appropriate answer
  1. Aisha endangers her life in a play, this play is __________
  2. Jameson is in conflict with antagonist character, he must be a ________
  3. My father was reading a lengthy fictitious narrative, the book must have been ________
  4. This story has issues that happened in the past and are being presented in the present, this technique is ___________
  5. Hante is a fictitious name that has been used in the story to reflect a bad person in the society. This arrangement in Literature is known as ______________
  1. Explain five characteristics of play that makes it different from novel
  1. _________________________________________________________
  2. _________________________________________________________
  3. _________________________________________________________
  4. _________________________________________________________
  5. __________________________________________________________
  1. Mention five readings that you study under the subject Literature in English
  1. __________________
  2. ___________________
  3. ______________________
  4. _____________________
  5. _____________________

SECTION C (45 MARKS)

Answer 3 questions from this section.

LIST OF READINGS

Plays

  • The Lion and the Jewel - Soyinka, W.
  • Trials of Brother Jero - Soyinka, W.
  • The Dilemma of a Ghost - Aidoo, A.A.
  • The Government Inspector - Gogol,N.

 Novels

  • A Walk in the Night and Other Stories - Guma,A
  • Houseboy - Oyono, F.
  • The Old Man and the Medal - Oyono,F.
  • The Concubine - Amadi, E.

 Poetry

  • Selected poem - Tanzani Institute of Education 
  • Growing up with poetry - David Rubadiri

9. Identify any poem that you have attempted as a class and analyse language use, themes, message and its relevance to the society

10. Pick one character in either of the class readings that you have attempted and explain why their presence in the play is very important

11. With the aid of any novel/short story that you have attempted as a class, discuss five ideas that have been communicated in the novel and how they relate to our societies

1

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE LITERATURE EXAM SERIES 201

OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, REGIONAL ADMINSTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

MID TERM EXAMINATION. 2025

HISTORY FORM THREE

Instructions

  1.    This paper consists of three section A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2.    Answer all questions from section A and B and two questions from section C.
  3.    Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B carries fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4.    All writing should be in blue ink except diagrams which must be in pencil.
  5.    All communication devices and any unauthorized material are not allowed in the examination room.
  6.    Write your assessment number at the top right corner of every page.

 

SECTION A: 16 MARKS

Answer all questions

1. For each of the items (i –x) choose the most from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet (booklet) provided.

(i) Tanzania is expected to conduct the next election in 2025. In which millennium will this election be conducted?

  1.   20th millennium
  2.   2nd millennium
  3.   3rd millennium
  4.  21st millennium
  5. 25th millennium

(ii) The abolition of slave in East Africa involves several stages, but one among them led to the closure of slave market in Zanzibar.

A. The frere treaty
B. The Helgoland treaty
C. The Moresby treaty
D. The delimitation treaty
E. The Hamertorn treaty

(iii) Pili is a form one student who originated from Zigua tribe. In this society the system of inheritance is based on father’s clan. What is the proper term which is the best to describe his society?

  1.   Matrilineal society
  2.   Patrilineal society
  3.   Clan society
  4.  Ntemiship society
  5. Age set political organization

(iv) The historical event which helps to avoid the danger of explosion of war among the imperialist power was,

  1.   Abolition of slave trade
  2.   Partition of Africa
  3.   Berlin conference
  4.  Bandung conference
  5. Manchester conference

(v) About 2.5 million years the creature known as HOMO appeared, first it was discovered and named HOMO because it presents modern human being The first homogenus was known as handy man because of the ability to make and use tools, the name hominid was known as;

  1.   Australopithecus
  2.   A Farensis
  3.   Ardipithecus ramadius
  4.  Homo habilis
  5. Ramapithecas

(vi) From the North Africa Muslims, Arabs brought the manufactured goodssuch as cotton, textiles and garments which were exported across the Sahara Desert to west Africa They acted as guiders and middle men during the trade These Arabs traders come from which North African societies?

  1.   Luba and Lunda
  2.   Sofara
  3.   Greco- Romans
  4.  Barber and Tuaregs
  5. Nyamwezi and Dahomey

(vii) Identify from the following processes and development which led to the emergence of industrial capitalism in Europe by 1850s

  1.   Rapid development of the factory system of production
  2.   Development of mercantilism
  3.   Development of forms of monopolies
  4.  Development of companies and Associations
  5. Emergence of slave trade in the West

(viii) When did the theory of evolution of man become more publicly known?

  1.   After discovery of man`s remains by Leakey at Olduvai Gorge
  2.   After the birth of Charles Darwin
  3.   After the publication of the book “The origin Species”
  4.  After the scientific discovery of Homo-Habilis and Homo-Erectus
  5. After the spread of religious books like Bible and

(ix) Why salt making industries were important in pre-colonial Africa?

  1.   It enabled people to eat uncooked food
  2.   It facilitated the development of heavy industries
  3.   It played a vital role in food preservation and healing
  4.  It enable some societies to make ornaments of copper alloys
  5. It was a source of vitamins

(x). The Hehe resistance in Tanganyika was the African active reaction against.

  1.   Italy invasion
  2.   Portuguese invasion
  3.   French domination
  4.  British invasion
  5. German colonial occupation
  1.    Match the items in list A with the correct response in list B by writing the letter of the response beside the item number.

List A

List B

 i. Linked Africa to Portuguese mercantilism

 ii. The founder of Mali Empire

 iii. Led the Ngoni group which settled in Ufipa

 iv. The last leader of the Boer movement

 v. A leader of Nyamwezi Chiefdom

 vi. The second and last King of Ndebele.

  1.   Samora Machel
  2.   Carl Peters
  3.   Wairihu itote
  4.  Zwangendaba
  5. Fredrick De Klerk
  6. Sundiata Keita
  7.  Vasco Da Gama
  8.  Isike
  9. Mansa Mussa
  10. Green revolution
  11.   Lobengula

 

SECTION B. 54 MARKS

3. Briefly answer the following questions

  1.    Wamuja is an illiterate man with 91 years old. He narrates past political events to his grand Child who is twenty years old. Why such method used by Mzee Wamuja is considered as unreliable source of historical information?
  2.    Why German colonial agents would not forget the Hehe resistance?
  3.    How would you relate the French assimilation policy and destruction of African culture?
  4.    Why some historians consider Chancellor Otto Von Bismarck as the architect of the partition of the African continent?
  5.    How European Nationalism led to the outbreak of first world war?
  6.    How did the early nationalist's movement contribute to the struggle for independence in Africa?

4. (a) Why British preferred indirect rule in most of African colonies? (Give three (3) points)

(b) How the discovery of Iron changed the development of man's life during the pre-colonial era? Give three (3) points.

5. Re-arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 - 6 beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

  1.    Homo eractus lived approximately between 1.9 million to 300,000. years ago, the first to make advanced tools like hand axes, had advanced brain size. Remarkable changes were linguistic development and ability to stand upright.
  2.    Ardipithecus was the earliest human ancestor lived from about 5.8 to 4.4 million years ago. These were divided into two, the ardipithecus Kadaba, and ardipithecus Ramadius, they resemble ape like features. Their fossils were discovered in Ethiopia.
  3.    Homo Sapiens also known as intelligent man who lived from about 400,000 to 70,000 yrs ago. Their fossils have been discovered in Taung cave in South Africa, Laetoli in Tanzania and broken hills in Ethiopia.
  4.    Austropithecus human ancestor lived from about 4.2 to 2.0 million years ago. Austropithecus also means Southern ape. The first fossils were discovered in Southern Africa by Raymond Dart in Taung site. Other were Austropithecus Aferensis and Boisei who discovered in Tanzania.
  5.    The British scientist Charles Darwin in his book titled the origin of species, published in 1859 describe the origin of man as evolved from simplest to complex form. The theory explain man originate from simplest to complex form. The theory explain man originate from ape like features about 13 million years ago.
  6.    Homo habilis also known as the handy man lived about 2.5 to 1.6 million years ago. They were the first human to make and use tools. The fossils were discovered in Olduvai gorge in Tanzania, Koobi Fora in Kenya, and Sterkfontein in South Africa.

 

6. Draw a sketch map of Africa and locate the following by using Roman numbers;

  1.    The British East African colony where indirect rule policy was more successful.
  2.    The Portuguese colony whose nationalist leader was assassinated by a parcel bomb in Dar es salaam
  3.    The Germany colony that resisted Direct rule Policy in 1904 - 1907
  4.    The country where the Apartheid Policy was 
  5.    The British colony where indirect rule policy was first experimented in Africa

7. With examples explain six (6) principles of Berlin conference.

8. Elaborate six (6) impacts of long-distance trade among the people of East Africa.

9. Human being used to live in caves at forest with wild and dangerous animals. His life depends on hunting and gathering fruits, roots, and others. In sometimes lived in cold condition and eat row meat. Later his life changed after discovered fire in the middle stone age. What were the importance of fire to man’s life during the middle stone age to Neolithic age (six (6) point )

10. It was astonishing and unbelievable” the Arab government was an aware of holly revolution of Zanzibar. With concrete examples explain six fruits of revolution to the people of Zanzibar

SECTION C. 30 MARKS

11. Asses why most of the Portuguese colonies in Africa gained their political independence through the barrel of gun as their last alternative means. Give out six (6) points

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 200

THE OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT.

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

MARCH 2025

GEOGRAPHY FORM THREE

TIME: 2:30HRS

 

INSTRUCTIONS

  1.     This paper consists of three(3) sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions
  2.     Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B seventy (70) marks and section C fifteen (15) marks.
  3.    Answer ALL questions in all sections
  4.    Write your names and stream on the top center in every page of your examination
  5.    ALL answers should appear in this question paper in the space provided.

SECTION A

1. For each of the items (i)-(x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided. (@1mark=10 marks)

(iii) Tanzania is expecting to benefit a lot from the current Standard Gauge Railway (SGR) project. The following are some of the importance of this project except;

  1.   A It will cause civil war
  2.   B It will improve trade relations with neighboring countries.
  3.   It will create employment opportunities
  4.   It will encourage industrial development
  5.   It will save time for transportation.

(iv) If you are living in urban center and you are interested in keeping livestock. What type of livestock keeping would be suitable for you?

  1.   Nomadism 
  2.   Ranching 
  3.   Transhumance
  4.   Pastoralism 
  5.   Sedentary

(v) Form four students at Pengo village (75°W, 78° N) were watching the football on TV at 7.30 pm on Tuesday. At what time and day people in Keira village (45° E, 06° S) will be watching the same match?

  1.    3:30 am Wednesday 
  2.   12:30 pm Tuesday
  3.   11:30 am Wednesday 
  4.   3:30 pm Wednesday
  5.   09:30 am Tuesday

i. The solar system is made-up of the sun, planet and other heavenly bodies which revolve around the sun, which planet has the shortest orbit?

  1.   Pluto 
  2.   Mercury 
  3.   Mars
  4.   Earth 
  5.   Venus

(ii) Suppose you want to carry out a field study on factors which used to classify the climate of a place, what are the best components of weather you are going to consider?

  1.   Temperature and rainfall 
  2.   Temperature and cloud cover
  3.   Rainfall and sunshine 
  4.   Cloud cover and humidity
  5.   Sunshine and humidity

(iii) The tourist reported enjoying the temperature of Ihefu wetland in Mbeya at 1500 meters above sea level, which is 32C. They also planned to travel from Ihefu to Unguja in Zanzibar which is at sea level. What might be the temperature experienced by the tourist in Zanzibar?

  1.   23°C
  2.   0.6 °C
  3.   9 °C
  4.   41 °C
  5.   19 °C

(iv)The name given to a boundary that demarcates solid materials from the molten mantle is known as:

  1.   Asthenosphere
  2.   Gutenberg
  3.   Mohorovic
  4.   Mesosphere
  5.   Core

(v) All the following are famous tourist attraction sites in Tanzania except?

  1.   Mikumi wildlife, Tarangire and Ruaha
  2.   Serengeti national park, Mount Kilimanjaro and Mikumi
  3.   Selous reserve, Tarangire and Mikumi Park
  4.   Tsaro, Turkana and Oldonyo Lengai
  5.   Tarangire, Ruaha reserve and Serengeti national park

(vi) Dormant volcanic mountains are those which:

  1.   Have never experience eruption
  2.   Have erupted once but are no longer active
  3.   Continue to erupt occasionally
  4.   Erupt only when there is an earthquake
  5.   Erupt every

ix. The people of Utengule Village are served by electricity from TANESCO and sometimes they use energy that they produce from Organic materials after being broken down by bacteria in an oxygen free environment. What is the name of such energy source?

  1.   Hydroelectric power
  2.   Biogas
  3.   Solar energy
  4.   Wind energy
  5.   Solar energy

2. Match the items in List A with response in List B by writing the letter of the correct response below the corresponding item number in the table provided.

List A

List B

  1.          The lines drawn on the map to join places with the same amount of atmospheric pressure.
  2.          The lines drawn on the map to join places with the same amount of sunshine.
  3.          The instrument used to measure the amount of rainfall.
  4.          The instrument used to measure the amount of clouds
  5.          The instrument used to measure the speed of wind
  6.          An instrument used to measure temperature.
  1.   Oktas
  2.   Thermometer
  3.   Isohyets
  4.   Isohels
  5.   Isotherms
  6.    Rain gauge
  7.   Millimeter
  8.   Anemometer
  9.      Wind vane
  10.     Isobars

SECTION B. 70 MARKS

3. (a) Classify three pollutants from manufacturing industries.

(b) Explain three effects of these pollutants to the people and environment.

4. (a) Convert the following scales according to the instructions given

  1.    “One centimeter on the map represents two and half a kilometer on the ground”. Convert this scale into Representative fraction (R.F.) scale.
  2.    1:100000. Convert into statement scale.
  3.     1:50000. Convert into statement scale.

(b) State the compass direction for each of the following compass bearings.

  1.    280º ..
  2.    135º ..
  3.     45º ....

(c) How can the positions of objects be shown in any topographical map? Mention four(4) points.

5. Define the following terminologies:

(a) Bush following

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ....

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

(B)Land reclamation

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

(c)Hydrological cycle . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ..

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ...

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

(d)Water pollution . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .. . . . . . 

(e)Tourism . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

6. (a) Point out five ways to which Tanzanians benefits from solar energy.

i. ____________________________________________________________________

ii. _______________________________________________________________________

iii. ________________________________________________________________________ 

iv. ________________________________________________________________________

(b) In which ways the Tanzania society benefits from weather forecasting?

Give five points

i. ____________________________________________________________________

ii. _____________________________________________________________________

iii. _____________________________________________________________________

iv. _____________________________________________________________________

v. _____________________________________________________________________

7. John, a form two student from Mgudeni Secondary School was unable to differentiate some geographical terms; he decided to seek advice from his fellow students. As among of form two students, help John him to differentiate the following geographical terms,image

i) Plains and plateaus

ii) Umbra and penumbra

iii) Secondary and tertiary activities

iv) Natural forest and artificial forest

v) Solar energy and solar system

8. Mr. Kasheko was watching the video program showing the ejection of molten materials with in the earth`s crust or onto the earth `s exterior. This process accompanied with the outbreak of ashes,gases and smokes. This molten materials sometimes cool solidify within the earth’s crust to form both hypabyssal and plutonic rocks. And sometimes other materials reach the surface to form volcanoes.

  1.     What is the genetic process observed by Mr. Kasheko from the video program?
  2.    With examples explain the types of features produced by the process named in (a) above?
  3.     Outline five (5) environmental impact resulted from the process in (a) above.
  4.    8. (a) What is a river capture?
  5.     (b) With a well labeled diagram, show features formed in (a) above.

 

9. (a) What is a river capture?

(b) With a well labeled diagram, show features formed in (a) above.

10.(a) Planet Earth is composed of different land masses known as continents from which we can get different relief features . Mention at least five (5) of them.

(b) All land masses are surrounded by large body of salt water as Oceans.Mention five of them.

SECTION C. 15 MARKS

11. With reference to Rufiji River Basin Project and TVA, explain how community surrounding these project can benefit from them. (Six points)

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 199

THE OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT.

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

MARCH 2025

PHYSICS FORM THREE

TIME: 2:30HRS

 

Instructions

1. This paper consist of sections A, B and C with total of eleven (11) questions

2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.

3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks

4. Non-Programmable calculators and mathematical table may be used.

5. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

6. Where necessary the following constants may be used:

  1.    Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s 2
  2.    Density of water = 1.0 g/cm 3
  3.    Linear expansivity of brass = 19 × 10 −6°C −1
  4.    Linear expansivity of iron = 10 × 10 −6°C −1
  5.    Specific heat capacity of aluminium = 900 J/kg°C

SECTION A (16 Marks)

(Answer all questions in this section)

1. For each of the items (i –x) choose the most from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet (booklet) provided.

(i) A car is initially at rest on a flat road. The driver applies a force on the accelerator, and the car starts moving forward. Which of the following correctly explains this situation?

  1.  The applied force causes the car to overcome inertia and accelerate.
  2.  The applied force increases the car's weight, causing it to move forward due to gravitational force.
  3.  The applied force interacts with the car's fuel, generating a combustion force that propels the car forward.
  4.  The applied force acts as a magnetic force, enabling the car to move forward through electrostatic interactions.
  5.   The applied force causes the friction between the car and the road to decrease, allowing the car to move forward.

(ii) In a wind turbine, which factor affects the amount of electricity generated the most?

  1.  Wind speed
  2.  Blade length
  3.  Wind direction
  4.  Turbine weight 
  5.   Turbine height

(iii) In a laboratory experiment, a metal rod and a plastic rod are taken out from a freezer and placed on a table. Both rods start to warm up and their temperatures start to increase. Which of the following best describes why the metal rod feels colder to touch compared to the plastic rod?

  1.  Metal conducts heat better than plastic
  2.  Metal has a lower specific heat than plastic
  3.  Metal has a higher thermal expansion than plastic 
  4.  Metal evaporates heat faster than plastic
  5.   Metal has a higher temperature coefficient of resistance than plastic

(iv) What causes water to form droplets on a freshly waxed car when it is raining? 

  1.  Cohesion between water molecules
  2.  Adhesion between water molecules
  3.  Adhesion between water and the waxed surface 
  4.  Cohesion between the wax and the car surface
  5.   Adhesion between the car surface and the raindrops

(v) A group of students are setting up a system of pulleys to lift a heavy object. The weight of the object is 400 N. They want to make it easier to lift the object by reducing the effort force required. Which of the following arrangements of pulleys would be most suitable for this purpose?

  1.  A single fixed pulley
  2.  A single movable pulley
  3.  A system with two fixed pulleys
  4.  A system with two movable pulleys 
  5.   A system with three fixed pulleys

(vi) A body is said to be in equilibrium if

  1.  It moves with uniform speed
  2.  The net force acting on it is zero
  3.  The upward and downward forces are equal
  4.  Its center of gravity is low positioned
  5.   Its center of gravity is high

(vii) What happens when a liquid changes into gaseous state?

  1.  Some surface molecules absorb latent heat of vaporization and escape
  2.  It gives its own latent heat that can be used to heat up the surrounding
  3.  The potential and kinetic energies of the molecules increase
  4.  The molecules attractive forces to one another increases and their average kinetic energy decreases
  5.   There is no adhesive force between molecules.

(viii) A bus carrying heavy load on its top carrier is likely to overturn because;

  1.  It runs faster 
  2.  Its center of gravity is low 
  3.  Its center of gravity is high
  4.  Its equilibrium is neutral 
  5.   It is at stable equilibrium

(ix) The extremely narrow bore on the liquid-in-glass thermometer in which the thermometric liquid flows during expansion or contraction is known as;-

  1.  Capillary tube 
  2.  Steel index 
  3.  Stem 
  4.  Constriction 
  5.   Bore

(x) Which of the following conditions must be satisfied for a body to float?

  1.  Apparent weight is equal to the difference between real weight of the body and its up thrust
  2.  Upthrust equal to the weight of the fluid displaced
  3.  Real weight of the body equals to its upthrust
  4.  Apparent weight is equal to the product of real weight of the body and its upthrust
  5.   Density of a body is equal to the density of surrounding fluid

2.       Match the property of the mirror in list A with their corresponding mirrors in list B, by writing the letter of the correct response beside the corresponding item number

List A

List B

(i) Has wide field of view

(ii) Used as shaving mirrors

(iii) Forms laterally inverted images

(iv) They have spherical shape

(v) Are used in periscope

(vi) Are used in car head light

A.    Convex mirror

B.      Plane mirror

C.      Parabolic mirror

D.     Concave mirror

E.      Curved mirror

F.       Inclined mirror

G.     Rotating mirror

H.     A coustic mirror

 

 SECTION B (54 Marks)

3.       (a) Form one students from Mzumbe secondary school visited Kilimanjaro Mountain. When climbing the Mountain to high altitude, one of the students got the problem of nose bleeding.

i.      Comment on why student got such problem?( 02 marks)

ii.      Why astronauts wear space suits?(02 marks)

 (b)  The acceleration due to gravity on Jupiter is about 2.6 times that on the earth. A spacecraft has a weight of 24500 N on earth.

  (i) What is the mass of the spacecraft?(03 marks)

  (ii) What would be its weight on Jupiter?(03 marks)

4.  (a) (i) Explain why sun is seen is moving from east to west.

 (ii) In building construction Architecture wants to add two forces in order to obtain the resultant of two force. Identify two laws which guide the architecture and state them.

 

(b)  (i) Explain why it is easy to keep moving body than to start stationary body to move.

 (ii) A body of mass 40kg is placed in a straight track inclined at an angle of  to horizontal. If the body is held from shipping by friction, calculate normal 

reaction and friction force.

5.  (a) Mr. Samwel put the coin on a card placed over the mouth of a bottle. When the card is flicked away with the figure the coin drops neatly into the bottle.

 (i) Which law demonstrated by Mr.Samwel? (01 mark)

 (ii) State the law identified in (i) above (02 marks)

(b)   A screw jack has a screw pitch of 5mm and the effort arm 16 cm 

 (i) State two forms of energy in which the energy supplied to the screw jack is finally converted     to (2 marks).

(ii) Determine the percentage efficiency of this screw jack, if it needs an effort of 30N to lift a     load of 750N. (04 marks)

 

6. (a) A pulley system machine is used to lift a body of weight 400N when an effort of 100N is applied. If the efficiency of this machine is 80%, draw a sketched diagram of this machine (5 marks)

(b) Uniform metal beam of length 5 m and mass 9 kg is suspended horizontally by two wires attached at 50cm from the left end of the beam and 150 cm from the right end of the beam. Furthermore, loads of 60N and 150 N are placed at the quarter and three-quarter length of the beam respectively, from the left end. Determine the tension in each wire? (4 marks)

 

7. (a) Vectors are totally different from scalars in all aspects including direction. What do you think are two conditions to be satisfied for two vectors to be equal? [4 marks]

 

(b) State and explain practically the meaning of triangle law of vector addition. [2 ½ marks]

 

(c) Two vectors, one of 8N and the other 6N, are acting on a body. Given that the two forces are acting perpendicularly to each other. Find the magnitude of the third force which would just counter balance the two forces. [6 marks]

 

8. (a) A body dipped in a liquid experiences an upthrust. Explain three factors on which the upthrust depends. (4.5 marks)

 

(b) Two identical free running trolleys are on a smooth horizontal runway. One trolley is at rest and the other approaches it at constant speed of 20m/s.

(i) Use the principle of conservation of momentum find the common speed of two trolleys after the collision. (3.5 marks)

(ii) Why the kinetic energies before and after the collision are different? (2 marks)

 

9. a) A cube of wood of side 5.0cm and density 600kgm-3 is placed in water

i. What fraction of the volume of the wood would be immersed in water?

ii. What force must be applied to the cube so that the top surface of the cube is on the same level as the water surface?

 

b) A passenger ferry boat with vertical sides has a water-line area of 1500m2. When fully loaded with passengers it sinks by 0.6cm. If the average mass of a passenger is 60kg. Calculate the number of passengers on boat.

 

10. a) Use a well labeled diagram to explain the working principle of a hydraulic press in a simple machine

b) A uniform pencil AB weighing 40g can be balanced horizontally on a knife edge at 2cm from the end A when a mass of 60g is hung from this end. What is the length of a pencil?

SECTION C. 15 MARKS

11. (a) A bottle containing ammonia solution is placed at the back of the laboratory. Give a reason why its smell may not be detected in other parts of the laboratory if the temperature of the solution is kept very low. (04 Marks)

 

(b) (i) What is a windmill?

(ii) Mention three disadvantages of energy caused by wind.

(iii) Does wind itself possess energy? Explain. (05 Marks)

 

c) A pressure cooker will cook beans faster than an open saucepan. Give explanation on this observation. (04 Marks)

 

(d) An alloy of copper and tin has a volume of 1005cm3. The density of copper is 8.905g/ cm3 and of tin 7.305g/cm3. How much volume of each metal must be used if the alloy is to have the density of 7.625g/cm3? (05 Marks)

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 198

OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT,

SECONDARY -EXAMINATION SERIES

MATHEMATICS MARCH EXAMINATION- FORM THREE

Instructions

  • This paper will consist of sections A and B with a total of 14 questions
  • Answer all questions in both sections A and B
  • Section A will carry 60 marks and section B will carry 40 marks
  • Mathematical tables/ Calculator may be used
  • Write your Examination number on the top right corner of your answer booklet provided. Use R = 6400 and π= 3.14

SECTION A (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. a) Mangoes are to be exactly divided into groups of 20, 30 or 36. What is the smallest number of mangoes required?

 

b) Anna was given 60,000 shillings by her mother she spent 35 percent of the money to buy shoes and 10 percent of the remaining money to buy books. How much money remained?

 

2. a) If log y + 21og (3x+ l) = l . Express y in terms of x

 

b) Given a recurring decimal 0.9666666... write it as a fraction.

 

3. (a) Solve the value of x if 

https://myfiles.space/user_files/30996_4958b541bbe404eb/30996_custom_files/img1658054663.png

 

(b) If log 2 = 0.3010, without using mathematical tables, find the value of log 5

 

4. a) Use the number line to find the value of -3×-4

b) A village received 452009 bags of fertilizer to be distributed to 4500 Farmers. Estimate the number of bags each farmer got?

 

5. (a) A lecture hall has 20 rows of a seats with 100 seats in the back row, each row have 2 fewer number of seats than the row immediately behind it .How many seats are their in the lecture hall?

 

(b) Mabrouk invested a certain amount of money in a saving account whose interest rate was 8% compounded annually .After three year ,he got 500,000/=

(i) How much did the invest at the start.

(ii) How much did he received as interest at the end of 3 years?

6. (a) Without using tables, find the value of https://myfiles.space/user_files/30996_4958b541bbe404eb/30996_custom_files/img173193996257.png   and simplify your answer.

 

(b)The sides of a right angled Triangle are (2x + 1)Cm, (12x)Cm and (12x + 1)Cm. Find the value of x in cm if the hypotenuse is (12x + 1)cm

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 197

OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT.

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES, MID TERM EXAMS-2025

ENGLISH FORM THREE

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B carries fifty-four (54) marks and section C carries 30 marks.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the Examination Room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

SECTION A (16 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

1. For each of the following items (i)-(x) choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet or booklet provided.

(i) When do you use salutation “Dear Sir/Madam” in application letters?

  1. When the recipient is your family member
  2. If you do not know the recipient
  3. If you know the recipient
  4. When the recipient is in the same town
  5. When the recipient is in different town [ ]

(ii) If I am a girl, all my uncles and aunts will call me a

  1. Sister
  2. Daughter
  3. Niece
  4. Nephew
  5. Cousin [ ]

(iii) “Msonda is a professional footballer in Young African Sports club. This sentence is in

  1. Present perfect
  2. Future perfect
  3. Simple present
  4. Simple past
  5. Present progressive [ ]

(iv) The man who was here is my friend. The bolded word indicates

  1. Adjective
  2. Noun
  3. Article
  4. Preposition
  5. Pronoun [ ]

v) I don’t know ……….. she will come.

  1. Weather
  2. Weather
  3. While
  4. Shall
  5. That

vi) An animal that gives us wool is called …………

  1. Sheep
  2. A cat
  3. A cow
  4. A tiger
  5. A ship

vii) Weather report: “it’s seven o’clock in Frankfurt and ……………….

  1. There is snow
  2. It’s snowing
  3. It snows
  4. It snowed
  5. Snowed

viii) Don’t make so much noise, Kulwa, …………to study for her English language test.

  1. Try
  2. Tries
  3. Tried
  4. Is trying
  5. Had tried

ix) “Make sure nobody is in the library before you lock up the door”. The teacher ordered me. The bolded word here means……………………….

  1. All
  2. Enough
  3. Few
  4. Some
  5. No one

x) Seldom did Anna wear shoes. This means Anna…………………….

  1. Wore shoes often
  2. Will never wear shoes
  3. He never wear shoes
  4. Wore shoes rarely
  5. Does not wear shoes

2. Match the following terms about meeting in List A with their corresponding descriptions in List B by writing its letter beside the corresponding number.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. . . . . . . . . . . . to cancel a meeting
  2. . . . . . . . . . . . to confirm a meeting
  3. . . . . . . . . . . . to postpone a meeting
  4. . . . . . . . . . . . to bring a meeting forward
  5. . . . . . . . . . . . to accept an invitation to a meeting
  6. . . . . . . . . . . . to start a meeting
  1. To change the time or date of a meeting
  2. To have a meeting at a later time or date
  3. To have a meeting at an earlier time or date.
  4. To say that a meeting will take place
  5. To say that you will go to a meeting
  6. To decide that a meeting will not take place
  7. To read the meeting agenda

SECTION B: (54 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

3. (a) State the type of adverbs in the underlined words

  1. Please, sit here
  2. It will rain heavily in Tabora next week
  3. The teachers teach us daily
  4. He passed the examination easily

(b) The present events can be expressed in different forms on how and when they happened. Construct the sentence with the following structure.

  1. Subject + was/were + main verb (present participle form)
  2. Present perfect continuous (Sentence in negative form)
  3. Two actions which are in progress at the same time.
  4. An action which is frequently repeated in present.
  5. An action that have been completed at the present time,

4. Write the synonyms of the following words

  1. Buy
  2. Huge
  3. Toilet
  4. Tense
  5. Difficult
  6. Happy
  7. Holiday
  8. Travel
  9. Start

5. (a) The Past events can be expressed in different forms depending on how and when they happened. Construct two sentences for each of the following:

(i)The simple past with regular form of a verb

(ii)The past progressive

(iii)The past perfect

(iv)The simple past with irregular form of a verb.

(b) Re-write the following sentences according to the instructions given after each:

(i)His knew house is full of modern furniture (correct the sentence)

(ii)No sooner had the match between Simba and Yanga begun, than Yanga scored a goal. (Re-write starting with: As soon as……………………)

(iii)He walked ___________ (majesty) to the platform and snatched the microphone from the speaker. (put the word in bracket in its correct form)

(iv)”Are you leaving today?” Jessica asked me. (Change it into reported speech

6. Re write the following sentences according to the instructions given after each

  1. Alan is tall. He can fix the blackboard.( Join the sentences using..........enough to...)
  2. Mr Alex did not come. Dr Leon did not come too.( Join the sentence using ....... neither....nor)
  3. Haika plays piano. Asha plays piano too.(Join both........)
  4. Mr Akilimali was sturbbon. His father was also sturbbon .(Use as.........as)
  5. The weather is bad. We are enjoying ourselves. (Begin Although............
  6. We had good players yet we lost three matches (Begin Inspite of..........

7. Suppose you watched the game between Simba Sports Club and Young Africans, use each of the following words to construct sentences to narrate the event.

  1. Time
  2. Fans
  3. Whistle
  4. Possession
  5. Foul
  6. Linesmen
  7. Score
  8. Full time

8. Use the given details below and write an application letter from the following advertisement.

VACANCY ANNOUNCEMENT.

National Bureau of Standard (NBC), a company registered under the section 101 of the companies' ordinance 1988 and incorporated by the federal government invites application for a DRIVER which was advertised in The Citizen Newspaper on 23rd may, 2023.

Position: A driver — male/ female

Qualification and experiences.

Form four leaver

Driving license from reputable college with class A, B, C, D and E of driving

1-year experience up to maximum of 3 years' experience in the job.

He/she should be not having any criminal offence.

He/she should have height of 167 cm and above.

Clerk job description.

Driving officers of the company

Supervising the car's services

Protecting the car and use it for office use only

Salary: salary range from Tshs 500,0001= to Tshs 700,000/=.

Age: from 18 years old up to 30 years' old

Application process: submit before 4:00 pm on 31"june, 2023.

Apply to the director of National bureau of standard (NBC) COMPANY of P.O.BOX 345567 DAR-ES-SALAAM.

Use your address as P.O.BOX 4764 HANDENI. And sign your name as YATAPITA YANAMWISHO.

HR Department

National NBC COMPANY

6thfloor, NIIIF Tower, SAMORA AVENUE, POSTA.

Phone 0255-88773456. Fax number 0255-6743289

SECTION C: 45 (MARKS)

Answer only three (03) questions from this section

9. Suppose you are a peace maker on the war between Russia and Ukraine that has erupted. Write a speech of not more than 250 words addressing them on the three (3) effects of war and three (3) resolutions towards the war.

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS NUMBER 10 —12 NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES.

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES

A Wreath for Fr. Mayer - S. N. Ndunguru (1977), Mkuki na Nyota

Unanswered Cries - Osman Conteh, Macmillan

Passed Like a Shadow - B. M Mapalala (2006), DUP

Spared - S. N. Ndunguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota

weep Not Child - Ngugi wa Thiong'o (1987); Heinemann

The Interview - P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan

PLAYS

Three Suitors: One Husband -O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen

The Lion and the Jewel -W. Soyinka (1963), OUP

This Time Tomorrow -Ngugi wa Thiong'o (1972), Heinemann

The Black Hermit -Ngugi wa Thiong'o (1968), Heinemann

POETRY

Songs of Lawino and Ocol -O. P'Bitek (1979), EAPH

Growing up with Poetry -D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989), Heinemann

Summons -R. Mabala (1960), TPH

10. Analyze the use of sense devices in the two poems you have read and appreciated. Give three points for each poem.

11. There is growing negligence and violation of children’s rights done to them by their parents or close relatives, which may lead to child’s detrimental future. Support this statement by using two novels you have read. (three points from each).

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 196

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE MID TERM TEST MARCH 2025

061 COMMERCE

TIME: 3 Hours

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C.
  2. Answer all questions in section A, B, and two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Calculators and cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the following items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in your answer booklet provided.

  1. Teachers, doctors and lawyers are said to be involved in production. Their contributions may be grouped under.
  1. Commercial occupations
  2. Distributive occupations
  3. Direct services
  4. Indirect services
  1. Businessmen who do not have permanent business premises are called;
  1. Itinerant traders
  2. Brokers
  3. Gamblers
  4. retailers
  1. I bought 100 units of a certain commodity from Suhail. The gross price is shs. 10 per item and trade discount is allowed at 20%. If I settle the debt within 30 days I will be allowed a cash discount of 4%. I intend to pay immediately. How much should I pay?
  1. 500/=
  2. 450/=
  3. 894/=
  4. 768/=
  1. . . . . .Is a means used by producers to identify their products from other manufacturers.
  1. Brand name
  2. Sorting
  3. colors
  4. price fixing
  1. The principal document in an insurance contract is:
  1. Policy
  2. Cover note
  3. Proposal form
  4. Certificate
  5. Premium
  1. One of the following is a method used by the government to collect money from most people whether foreigners or citizens whenever they buy goods for use
  1. Fees
  2. Direct tax
  3. Cooperation tax
  4. Indirect tax
  1. The decrease in price for motor vehicle will probably increase the demand for petrol. The relation between these two products is:-
  1. Derived demand
  2. Joint demand
  3. Competitive demand
  4. Composite demand
  1. One among the following is NOT a function of bank of Tanzania (B.O.T.)
  1. It acts as a banker to commercial banks
  2. It lends money to the discount house if there is no other source
  3. It is the sole currency issuing authority
  4. It advises the government on financial matters
  1. When a current account show a large amount of withdrawal than deposit:
  1. Bank draft
  2. Bank overdraft
  3. Bank profit
  4. Bank chargers
  1. The following is not advantage of mail order shop
  1. The buyer gets trouble and discomfort in buying in shops
  2. There are no bad debts because sales are through cash
  3. It is not necessary to maintain expensive show rooms
  4. The price is cheaper because middlemen are eliminated
  1. A contract of carriage of goods by water are generally called:-
  1. Bill of lading
  2. Charter party
  3. Marine contract
  4. Voyage charter
  1. Advertising is important because it mainly;
  1. Creates employment for a large number of people
  2. Creates demand for the goods and services
  3. Reduces the price of goods and services
  4. Creates market for quality goods
  1. The most essential characteristics of money is:
  1. Acceptability
  2. Portability
  3. Durability
  4. Scarcity
  1. Which one is not an importance of motivation?
  1. Good human relationship
  2. Higher level of performance
  3. Desire to work freely and independently
  4. Low level of performance
  1. Supermarkets are different from the other large-scale business because they use
  1. After-sales services
  2. Self-service system
  3. Transport system
  4. Consumer protection system.

2. Match the item is column A with the responses in column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in your answer booklet.

COLUMN A

COLUMN B

  1. General line wholesalers
  2. Peddlers
  3. Hawkers
  4. Credit control
  5. Intermediate goods
  1. Goods which are in progress i.e. not ready for final consumption e.g. Timber
  2. All activities of the central bank in regulating the lending capacity of commercial banks and other financial institution
  3. traders who carry goods along their body parts like shoulders or hands
  4. specialize in only one type of good in a given line of products e.g. cement only
  5. Wholesalers in which retailers buy goods and pays them through the counter
  6. Those goods which human being cannot live without them e.g. Food
  7. Deals with wide variety of goods within one line of products e.g. hardware
  8. Trader who use simple means of transport like carts, bicycles or animals.

SECTION B (50 marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Write short notes on the following

  1.                Dumping
  2.                Postal remittance
  3.                Quasi partner
  4.                Marketing research
  5.                Promissory note

4. (a) Outline five (5) advantages of specialization.

(b) Give five (5) ways in which land is useful as a factor of production.

5. The following balances were extracted from the books of Malaya’s clock business for the year 2020.

  •                   Opening stock sh. 23,000/=
  •                   Purchases sh. 115,000/=
  •                   Carriage inwards sh. 3,000/=
  •                   Purchases return sh. 18,000/=
  •                   Sales sh. 200,000/=
  •                   Sales return sh. 15,000/=
  •                   Closing stock sh. 30,000/=
  •                   Current assets sh. 45,000/=
  •                   Current liabilities sh. 90,000/=
  •                   Fixed assets sh. 180,000/=
  •                   General expenses are 10% of the gross profit.

From the above information calculate:

  1.                Cost of goods sold
  2.                Gross profit
  3.                Net profit
  4.                Rate of stock turnover
  5.                Mark up
  6.                 Margin
  7.                Working capital

6. (a) Define partnership deed

(b) Mention five (5) contents of partnership deed.

7. Briefly explain four (4) factors that a bank manager should put into consideration before providing loan to customer.

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

8. (a) Briefly explain four (4) methods used by a country to control the volume of imports.

  1.                Critically analyze (4) four disadvantage associated with sole proprietorship.
  1.                (a) What is cooperative society?
  1.                “Despite of having shortcoming of marketing boards but played an important roles in our country.” Justify this statement by giving five (5) points

10. Musuta is a trader who exports fresh fish and flowers from Tanzania to Japan and he did not know the best means of transport to be used. As a commercial student:

  1.                Identify and suggest the suitable means of transport to be used.
  2.                Describe five (5) advantages and three (3) disadvantages of the means transport chosen in (a) above.

Page 1 of 5

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 195

OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT.

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES, MID TERM EXAMS-2025

CIVICS FORM THREE

Instructions

  1.      This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2.      Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.      Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B carries fifty-four (54) marks and section C carries 30 marks.
  4.      Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the Examination Room.
  5.      Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

SECTION A (16 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

1. For each of the following items (i)-(x) choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet or booklet provided.

i) Mr. Anjunju is a chairperson of Makange village who is repeatedly reported to missuse of power and embezzlements. Which village organ has a mandate to remove him from power

  1.    Village council 
  2.     Village assembly
  3.     Village committees
  4.    Village Executive Officer 
  5.     By-laws

ii) Amushi has lost two friends in road accidents last month and now refuses to eat or drink. Which remedy may you propose to help him?

  1.    Stigmatization 
  2.     Taking him to orphanage
  3.     Use corporal punishment 
  4.    Guidance and Counseling
  5.     Taking him to hospital for medication

iii). Assume you have completed standard seven education 'evel, what type of work will you considered with?

  1.    Mental work
  2.     Physical and mental works
  3.     Social work
  4.    Political work
  5.     Physical work

(iv) Which of the following statements do you think is not true about the function of the National Electoral Commission?

  1.    Register voters
  2.     Announce the date of election
  3.     To register new political parties
  4.    To supervise election of president and members of the parliament
  5.     To conduct election transparently and professionally

(v)Always during the annual village assembly meetings, the chairperson of Mibungo village displays the village income and expenditure report in front of its citizens. Which among of the following democratic principles was the chairperson practicing?

  1.    Transparency 
  2.     Citizen's participation
  3.     Civic responsibility 
  4.    Separation of powers
  5.     Rule of law

(vi) After opening the school, the school Headmistress called for a school Baraza and advised students to join various clubs. Which type of Human rights was the Headmistress fulfilling?

  1.    Freedom of association
  2.     Right to education
  3.     Moral rights
  4.    Freedom of expression
  5.     Liberty to assertiveness day

(vii) The situation in which people remain poor throughout their lives despite the struggle to change the situation is characterized as

  1.    Relative poverty
  2.     Poverty line
  3.     Lower capital income
  4.    Income poverty
  5.     Vicious cycle of poverty

viii).Local government is the type of government which formed to assist the central government. For your own experience, identify the lowest local government unit in the urban authority in Tanzania.

  1.    Councils
  2.     Municipals
  3.     Mtaastreet
  4.    Village
  5.     Town

ix). Women discrimination is a torn to the women in many Tanzanian societies. Which organization can help women to address socio-cultural practices that prevent women from participation in production activities.

  1.    FGM and TGNP
  2.     TAMWA and WAMA
  3.     NGOs and TAWLA
  4.    WAMA and FGM
  5.     TAWLA and TLP

x). Members states eliminate trade barriers and harmonize monetary policies are------

  1.    Free market economy
  2.     Trade liberalization
  3.     SAPs
  4.    ASP
  5.     SADC

2. Match the following explanations in LIST A with the Corresponding symbols from LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the space provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1.   It symbolizes the freedom, peace, unity, hope and enlightenment of Tanzanians.
  2.   It signifies national identity as well as the resources of the nation.
  3.   Its long neck reflects Tanzanians ability to be visionary while still seeing the past and present.
  4.   Official stamp that signifies the authority of the government of the country and the ownership of the documents and assets.
  5.   It signifies the independence and sovereignty of Tanzania
  6.   Is body of laws and principles which are used to govern the country?
  1.    The Giraffe
  2.     The National Flag
  3.     The Presidential Standard
  4.    The Uhuru Torch
  5.     The National Anthem
  6.      The National Currency
  7.    The National Constitution
  8.    The coat of Arm
  9.       The National Language

SECTION B: (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this Section

3. Briefly explain six factors that can enhance economic development of the people in Tanzania

4. In six points, justify why a democratic election is important in maintaining peace and security.

5. In six points, how would you prove the persistence of poverty in Tanzania?

6. It seems to be known and proved that, most Tanzanian youths fail to develop their economic positions because of lack of creativity and laziness. Briefly advice them on how work can change and improve their economic and social development. Give six points.

7. In which ways the central government can collect revenue? Give six points

8. A leader is mostly decorated with his or her characteristics and criteria. Suppose you are a consultant on leadership matters. Explain this statement by using six points.

SECTION C: (30 MARKS)

Answer ONLY TWO questions from this section

9. Briefly explain by giving six points why do you think the government of Tanzania is conducting campaign against (FGM) female Genital mutilation?

 

10. Tanzania as one among the African countries that are striving to achieve economic development, is faced with a lot of hindrances caused by different things. What do you think are the challenges facing the education sector in this country? (5 points)

 

11. Life skills are the abilities that a person has to do something well. As an educated person explain to your community where an individual can acquire or learn life skills. (five points)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 194

THE OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT.

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

MARCH 2025

CHEMISTRY FORM THREE

TIME: 2:30HRS

 

INSTRUCTIONS

  1.    This paper consists of three section A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2.    Answer all questions from section A and B and two questions from section C.
  3.    Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B carries fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4.    All writing should be in blue ink except diagrams which must be in pencil.
  5.    All communication devices and any unauthorized material are not allowed in the examination room.
  6.    Write your Examination number at the top right corner of every page.

SECTION A (16 Marks)

(Answer all questions in this section)

1. For each of the items (i –x) choose the most from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet (booklet) provided.

i. Which of the following is not a use of a solvent? 

  1.  Bleaching agent
  2.  Greasing.
  3.  Stain removal.
  4.  Cleaning
  5.   Universal solvent

ii. In which step of scientific procedures does the hypothesis is either proved or disproved?

  1.  Data collection and analysis.
  2.  Experimentation.
  3.  Data interpretation
  4.  Formulation of hypothesis.
  5.   Conclusion

iii. Which of the following groups consist of home Care products?

  1.  Yeast, plastic and disinfectant.
  2.  Clothes, soap and stone.
  3.  Air freshener, detergent and antiseptic.
  4.  Petrol, air freshener and paints.
  5.   Air freshener, detergent and disinfectant

iv. An electric current of 0.2A was passed through an electrolyte for 16.67minutes. The quantity of electricity passed is;

  1.  200.04cuolombs
  2.  2000.004cuolombs
  3.  1000cuolombs
  4.  0.254cuolombs
  5.   0.00789culombs

v. What is the correct meaning of ionization energy?

  1.  Energy required to remove an electron from the inner most shell
  2.  Energy required to remove electron from the outer most shell
  3.  Energy required to add electron to the inner most shell
  4.  Energy required to add electron to the outer most shell
  5.   Energy required to attract electron towards the nucleus of an atom

vi. An increase in temperature of a gas in enclosed system/container causes an increase in pressure of the gas. This is because it increase the.

  1.  Number of gas molecules
  2.  Combination of gas molecules
  3.  Number of collision between gas molecules
  4.  Average velocity of a gas molecules
  5.   Kinetic energy of the gas particles

vii. Which of the following is not the use of chromatography?

  1.  To analyze blood in crime scenes
  2.  To detect different fibres
  3.  To detect water pollution
  4.  To bleach dye or colour
  5.   To test purify of organic substance

viii. Which of the following pairs constitute the best methods for treating and purifying water?

  1.  Chlorination and aeration 
  2.  Chlorination and decantation 
  3.  Chlorination and filtration
  4.  Chlorination and sedimentation
  5.   Chlorination and distillation

ix. 1.4g of potassium hydroxide is dissolved in water to form 250cm3 of Solution.

What is the Molarity of this solution?

  1.  0.001M
  2.  0.1M
  3.  1.4M
  4.  5.6M
  5.   6.0M

x. An electric current was passed through a concentrated solution of hydrochloric acid using carbon electrodes. The substance liberated at anode was.

  1.  Copper
  2.  Hydrogen
  3.  Oxygen
  4.  Sodium
  5.   Chlorine

2. Match the items in LIST A with the responses in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response besides the item number in the answer sheet provided

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Biogas

(ii) Biomass 

(iii) Natural gas producer gas 

(iv) Water gas

(v) Ethanol

  1.  Industrial gas which is a mixture of hydrogen and carbon monoxide
  2.  Non-renewable gaseous fuel
  3.  Industrial gaseous fuel which is a mixture of nitrogen gas and carbon monoxide
  4.  Gaseous fuel derived from decomposition of biological wastes 
  5.   A fuel derived from plants such as cassava, sorghum and sugar cane
  6.   Renewable sources of energy
  7.  Water gas and ammonia
  8.  Ammonia and butane

 

3. Aisha drew a periodic table and then put a shadow on the element with atomic number 8 

(a) What type of chemical bond is found between atoms of the element?

(b) Compound X contains 24.24% Carbon, 4.04% Hydrogen and 71.72% Chlorine.

Given that, the vapour density of X is 49.5.

(i) Calculate molecular formula of the compound X

 

4. (a) Write ionic equation for the precipitation of Barium sulphate from Barium chloride and Sodium sulphate

(b) It is not advisable to sleep inside the house which is not well ventilated with a burning wooden charcoal. Give a reason for that and write the chemical equation to support your answer.

(c) Consider the following elements of group seven n order of which they appear in their group in the periodic table F, C 1, Br, and I

  1.          Which element is more electronegative
  2.          Name the least electronegative element
  3.          Which element has the largest atom?
  4.          Write the electronic configuration of the chlorine atom (9marks)

 

5. (a) Distinguish between Temporary Hardness and Permanent Hardness of Water basing on their ions.

(b) By use of equations, show how each of the type of hardness in (a) above can be eliminated.

(c). Giving four reasons, explain why people who use hard water can expect high costs than people who use soft water. (9 marks)

 

6. (a)Catherine is planning to make fire for cooking ugali for her family. What are necessary conditions which must be present so that she can make fire successfully for cooking ugali for her family?

(b)Give for each of the followings

  1. Water is universal solvent
  2. Some metal like zinc do not get rust.
  3. Chlorine gas is collected by downward delivery
  4. Carbon dioxide turns lime water into milky colour.

7. (a)What do you understand the term chemical equation?

(b)Write ionic equation for the following chemical reactions.

  1.    Milk of magnesia is used to relieve indigestion
  2.    A divalent metal displacing monovalent metal from its soluble nitrate

8. (a) Differentiate the temporary hardness of water from permanent hardness of water basing on their content.

 

(b) Consider the sample of water taken indifferent places at Arusha region. The samples were boiled and treated with the soap while others were treated with soap before boiling to obtain different results:

 

Sample Of Water

Unboiled

Boiled


Arusha Dc
Oldonyo Sambu
Maroroni
Njiro

Volume of Soap used(cm3)
1.0
8.5
10.5
5.9

Volume of Soap used(cm3)
1.0
8.5
3.8
1.0

 

(i) Which sample contains temporary hardness of water? (Give reason)

(ii) Which sample contains permanent hardness of water? (Give reason)

(iii)   What do you think will be the cause of variation of volume of soap of Maroroni water? 

(c) Mention the methods (s) used to soften sample of water at Njiro.

 

9. Element R having atomic number 20 combines with element S having atomic number 17 to form a certain compound

(a)Write the formula of the compound and state the type of bond formed in the compound

(b) Give any three properties of the compound formed in 7(a) above

 

10. a) How many chlorine molecules are in 20cm3 of chlorine gas at s.t.p.

b) Calculate number of ions present in 5g of copper (II) Nitrate

 

10. (a) Gas A was prepared in the laboratory by isolating it from atmospheric air. During it's preparation air was allowed to pass through sodium hydroxide then over heated copper metal.

(i) Identify gas A.

(ii) By using equation, explain what happened when gas A passed through sodium hydroxide and in heated copper metal.

(iii) Write two uses of gas A

 

(b) (i) What will happen when copper is strongly heated in air at higher temperature and lower temperature respectively.

(ii) Explain how the pure copper is obtained from its ore?

SECTION C. 15 MARKS

11. (a) Makame’s daughter was sick. When he took her to the hospital, she was

Prescribed some medicine including a bottle of syrup. The bottle was written “shake well before use”.

(i) What does this statement signify?

(ii) Give two differences between the prescribed medicine in 10(a) above and the mixture of sugar and water.

 

(b) Students of mining course at a certain college conducted research on extraction of iron. They found that iron can be obtained from its ore in four stages. Briefly explain to them the four stages they should follow to extract it.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 193

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM TREE MID TERM TEST MARCH-2025

033/1 BOOK-KEEPING

Time: 3 Hours        MARCH, 2025

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with a total of 9 questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries twenty (20) marks, section B forty (40) marks and section C forty (40) marks.
  4. Non programmable calculators may be used.
  5. Cellular phones, and other authorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your examination number on every page of your Answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given

Alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided

  1. If sales is 20,000 and profit make up is 25%, determine the amount of cost price
  1. 13,600
  2. 12,000 
  3. 16,000 
  4. 12,900 
  5. 20,600
  1. Which book of prime entry records the sale or purchase of non-current Assets?
  1. General journal 
  2. Sales journal 
  3.  Purchases journal 
  4. Cash book 
  5. Sales return day book
  1. If cash sale amount to Tshs 100,000/= paid direct into the bank account, the correct double entry will be to
  1.  Debit sales account and credit cash account by sh.100, 000
  2. Debit cash account and credit bank account by sh.100, 000 
  3. Debit bank account and credit sales account by sh.100, 000
  4. Debit bank account and credit cash account by sh.100, 000
  5. Debit sales account and credit bank account by sh.100, 000
  1. How much is to be reimbursed if a petty cashier has spent Tsh.189,00/=while his cash float is Tsh.200,000/=
  1. Tsh,11,000/= 
  2. Tsh 389,000/= 
  3. Tsh,189,000/= 
  4. Tsh,200,000/= 
  5. Tsh,21,000/=
  1. Working capital is a term meaning.
  1. The excess of current liabilities over current liabilities
  2. The excess of the current assets over the current liabilities
  3. the excess of the current assets over non-current liabilities
  4. The excess of current assets over non-current assets.
  5. The excess of non-current Assets over current liabilities
  1. Natasha and Ndengwe share profits and losses in the ratio 3:2. Their partnership recorded net profits of shs. 1,400, interest on capital shs. 420, partners’ salaries shs. 100 and drawings shs. 280, Determine Ndengwe’s share of the profits.
  1. TZS 840 
  2. TZS 560 
  3. TZS 464 
  4. TZS 696 
  5. TZS 506
  1. From the following categories of errors, identify the category of errors which affect only one account
  1. Casting errors
  2. Errors of principle
  3.  Errors of omission. 
  4. Errors of original entry.
  5.  Errors of commission.
  1. In the business of C. Sangster, who owns a clothing store, which of the following is the capital expenditure?
  1. Fixtures and New Van bought
  2. Shop fixtures bought and wages of assistants
  3. Wages of assistants and new van bought 
  4. Wages of assistants and Petrol for Van
  5.  Fixtures and salaries.
  1. Manufacturing account is used to calculate:
  1. Production cost paid in the year
  2. Total cost of goods produced
  3. Production cost of goods completed
  4. Gross profit on goods sold
  5. Prime cost of goods manufactured
  1. Depreciation can be described as the : _______
  1. Amount spent to buy a non –current asset
  2. Salvage value of a non-current asset consumed during its period
  3. Cost of the non-current asset consumed during its period
  4. Amount of money spent replacing non-current asset
  5. Cost of old asset plus new assets purchased
  1. A bank reconciliation statement is a statement:
  1. Sent by bank when the account are overdrawn
  2. Drawn to verify cash book balance with the bank statement balance
  3. Drawn up by the bank to verify the cash book
  4. Sent by the bank to the customers when errors are made
  5. Sent by the bank customers to the friends.
  1. If two totals of trial balance do not agree, the difference must be entered in:
  1. A real account
  2. The trading accounts
  3.  A nominal account
  4. The capital account 
  5. A suspense account
  1. The accounting equation is expressed in the financial statement called:
  1. statement of financial position
  2. income statement
  3. expenditure statement
  4.  reconciliation statement
  5. statement of change in equity
  1. If we take goods for own use, we should
  1. Debit drawings Account: Credit Purchase Account
  2. Debit Purchases Account: Credit Drawings Account
  3. Debit Drawings Account: Credit Inventory Account
  4. Debit Sales Account: Credit Inventory account
  5. debit inventory Account: Credit Drawing Account
  1. if a partnership maintains a fixed capital account, then the partner’s share

of profits is:

  1. Credited to the partner’s drawings account
  2. debited to the partner’s capital account
  3.  credited to the partner’s capital account
  4. credited to the partner’s current account 
  5. debited to the partner’s current account

2. For each of the items (i)-( v) match the narrations of bank reconciliation Items in column A with their corresponding names in column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer sheet provided

COLUMN A

COLUMN B

  1. these are payments made by a firm or person through cheque but they are not yet sent by customers to the bank to effect those payments.
  2. These are payments received by a firm or person by cheque but they are not yet passed through the banking system.
  3. These are fees deducted by the bank for different services made on the current account.
  4. These are payments made by the customer firm direct to the bank account of supplier firm.
  5. These are payments directed by the account holder to be made by the bank on his behalf.
  1. Standing order
  2. Dishonored cheques
  3. Unpresentedcheques
  4. Errors
  5. Unaccredited cheques
  6. Dividents
  7. Direct transfers
  8. Bank charges

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. In 1991 Mr. Chipepeto bought a motor car for the cost value of sh.8, 000,000/= with the aim of assisting him in business. But three years later he decided to dispose it for a book value of sh.6,700,000/=

  1. What is the term used to mean the difference between cost value and book value.
  2. Outline four reasons that could be the causes for him to dispose the car for less than the cost value.

4. The DSM Rotary club, has provided you with the following information:-

As at 31st December

2000

2001

Subscription in arrears

6400

8800

Subscription in advance

1200

3400

Subscription during the year

-

20,200

Insurance expenses owing (in arrears)

3700

2700

Insurance expenses prepaid (in advance)

4400

5200

Insurance paid during the year

-

16,800

Required: Prepare A Subscription account and Insurance account, clearly showing amounts to be transferred to income and expenditure accounts for year 2001.

5. Define the following terms

  1. Discount received
  2. Invoice
  3. Discount allowed
  4. Carriage inwards
  5. Carriage outwards

6. (a) Mr. Kyamba wants to start a business, but before commencement he needs to learn book keeping. Outline five objectives for him to study book keeping.

(b) Briefly explain three types of a cash book.

SECTION C (40 MARKS)

Answer two questions only from this section.

7. Panguso& company limited own a manufacturing industry which had the following records for the year ended at 31st December 2007.

  • Inventory at 1st January 2007: 
  • raw materials sh.760, 000
  • Finished goods sh 360,000
  • Purchases of raw material sh.420, 000
  • Sales of finished goods sh.2, 490,000
  • Factory Fuel & power sh.320, 000
  • Royalty sh.500, 000
  • Depreciation of works machine sh.88, 000
  • Market value sh.1,800,670
  • General office expense sh.10, 740
  • Manufacturing wages sh.170, 000
  • Inventory at 31 stDec 2007: raw material sh.900, 000
  • Finished goods sh.580, 000
  • Works in progress sh.734, 000

You are required to prepare

  1. Statement of manufacturing costs for the year ended at 31 stDec 2007
  2. Income statement for the year ended at 31.12.2007

8. XY Ltd provides for depreciation of its machinery at 20% per annum on cost; it charges for a full year in the year of purchase but no provision is made in year of sale/disposal.

Financial statements are prepared annually to 31th December. 2015

  • January 1 Bought machine ‘A’ 10,000
  • July 1 Bought machine ‘B’ 6,000

2016

  • March 31 Bought machine ‘B’ 8,000

2017

  • October 7 Sold machine ‘A’ – proceeds 5,500
  • November 5 Bought machine ‘D’ 12,000

2018

  • February 4 Sold machine ‘B’ – proceeds 3,000
  • February 6 Bought machine ‘B’ 9,000
  • October 11 Exchanged machine ‘D’ for machine valued at 7,000

Prepare;

  1. The machinery account for the period 1st January 2015 to 31st December 2018
  1. The accumulated provision for depreciation on machinery account, for the period 1st January 2015 to 31st December 2018.

9. The financial of the GGM trading company ended on 30th November 2014. You have been asked to prepare a total amount receivable and total amount payable for the draft final amounts. You are able to obtain the following information for the financial year the book of original entry.

Sales

– Cash 344,890

– Credit 268,187

Purchase

– Cash 14,440

– Credit 496,600

  • Total receipts from customers 600,570
  • Total payment to suppliers 503,970
  • Discount allowed to credit customer 5,520
  • Discount received from credit suppliers 3,510
  • Refund given to cash customers 5,070
  • Balance in sales ledger setoff against balance in the purchase ledger 700
  • Bad debt written off 780
  • Increase in the allowance for doubtful debts 900
  • Credit note issued to credit customers 4,140
  • Credit note received from credit suppliers 1,480

According to the audited financial statement for the previous year account receivable and account payable as to 1st December 2013 were 26,550 and 43,450 respectively

  • Required;

Draw up the relevant total accounts entering end of year total for account receivable and account payable.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 192

OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT 

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY FORM THREE MARCH

TIME 2:30 HOURS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of three section A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2. Answer all questions from section A and B and two questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B carries fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4. All writing should be in blue ink except diagrams which must be in pencil.
  5. All communication devices and any unauthorized material are not allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your assessment number at the top right corner of every page.

(i) Assume your friend accidentally cut his finger, which item will you use instead of gloves to stop him from bleeding,

  1. Socks. 
  2. Tin. 
  3. Plastic bag 
  4. Paper. 
  5. Piece of cloth

(ii) During a practical session Adam picked a plant which had the following characteristics; fibrous root system, non-Woody stem, vascular bundles without cambium and the flowers contained six sepals and six petals. As a biologist what class of a plant picked by Adam belongs?

  1. Dicotyledonae. 
  2. Angiospermorphyta. 
  3. Coniferophyta
  4. Monocotyledonae. 
  5. Pteridophyte.

(iii) Which of the following is the site of digestion where both mechanical and chemical digestion occurs?

  1. Stomach. 
  2. Oesophagus. 
  3. Mouth 
  4. Small intestine. 
  5. Duodenum

(iv) All of the following are respiratory surface EXCEPT,

  1. Skin. 
  2. Lung 
  3. Leaves 
  4. Gills. 
  5. Heart

(v) Why is it advised to make thoroughly blood screening donor and recipient before blood transfusion?

  1. Ensuring compatibility. 
  2. Ensuring incompatibility
  3. Ensuring coagulation 
  4. Ensuring immunity
  5. Ensuring blood groups

(vi) The heart is the major circulatory organ which is responsible for pumping of blood rhythmically without get fatigue Which type of muscles does the liehrt possess so as to ensure its efficiency of not getting fatigue?

  1. Smooth muscles 
  2. Skeletal muscles 
  3. Cardiac muscles
  4. Rough muscles 
  5. Collagen muscles

(vii) The joints which allow movement in many (all) directions are;

  1. Glind and hinge joints 
  2. Glind and pivot joints 
  3. Ball and socket joints 
  4. Ball and glind joints 
  5. Socket and hinge joints

(viii) A feeding relationship in which both species benefits from the relationship is known as; 

  1. Commensalism 
  2. Parasitism 
  3. Mutualism
  4. Saprophytism 
  5. Symbiosis

(ix) The following is a set of raw materials for photosynthesis to occur except;

  1. Water, light and oxygen 
  2. Carbon dioxide and water
  3. Chlorophylls and Sunlight 
  4. Chlorophylls and Carbon dioxide
  5. Carbon dioxide and oxygen.

(x) The third step in the scientific method is;

  1. Experimentation 
  2. Collecting data 
  3. Identifying the problem
  4. Formulating hypothesis 
  5. Conclusion

2. Match the phrase in list A with response in list B by writing the letter of the correct response.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Chemical component of foods
  2. An organic nutrient that an organism requires in small quantities
  3. An important nutrient for baby growth and repair of worn-out cells and tissues
  4. An organic compound composed of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen
  5. Poor nutrition resulting from an insufficient or poorly balanced diet or defective assimilation of foods
  1. Protein
  2. Roughage
  3. Micro-nutrient
  4. Nutrients
  5. Malnutrition
  6. Carbohydrate
  7. Rickets
  8. Food guide pyramid

 

SECTION B. 70 MARKS

3. a) Explain one (1) role played by the following substances in digestion a

i) Bile

 ii) maltase enzyme  

iii) Hydrochloric acid

b) How do animals like human beings benefit from the process of photosynthesis occurring in plants.

4. A bread was put in a wet cupboard. After few days black thread like structures which ended up in a club like structures appeared in the bread.

a)   Write the common name of the organism that grew on the bread surface

b)   Name the Kingdom and phylum in which the observed organism belongs

c)   Outline four (4) advantages of the members of the Kingdom you mentioned in (b) above

5.      (a) state any three adaptations of the leaf for photosynthesis 

(b) How do the following factors affect the rate of photosynthesis? 

(i)     Chlorophyll

(ii)     Sunlight  

(iii)    Carbondioxide

6. a) An accident occurred at Mtakuja village, MR. Zuma and the fellows helped the injured people by covering up their wounds, and keeping them calm , then they sent them to the hospital. What were the four necessities of Mr. Zuma’ s actions?

b) Mention and give functions to five components of first aid kit.

 

7.(i) Use your biological knowledge to explain the following biological arguments;

a) Why fungi are classified in both as plants and also as animals.

b) Why most of Bryophytes do not grow tall but are short and spread out? 

c) Why viruses are obligate parasite?

(ii) With examples to each mention any three movable joints found in mammalian skeleton

 

8. (a) Mr. Moshi reminded all science students to always follow laboratory safety rules.

By giving three (3) reasons, explain why it is necessary to adhere to this remainder?

(b) If you go to any science (Biology) Laboratory, you will come across containers carrying different chemicals. Draw and name chemical warning sign that can be found in the containers of the following chemicals: (i) Pesticides and poison

(ii) Concentrated sodium hydroxide

(iii) Spirit

 

9 (a) Explain how a plant cell prevent bursting when placed in hypotonic solution

(b) What will be the effect in recipient's blood when he/she has been transfused an incompatible blood from the donor.

(c) State any three precautions to be taken during blood transfusion

 

10. (a) (i) What are the raw materials for photosynthesis

(ii) List one product of photosynthesis

(b)State how the ileum is adapted for absorption function.

 

SECTION C.

11. Food preservation is very important in Human life. Discuss its importance under the following guideline

(a) Need for preservation

(b) Local (traditional) food preservation methods and their biological effects

(c) Advantages of local food preserving methods.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 191

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

 

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

 

FORM THREE ANNUAL EXAMINATION

 

CHEMISTRY

TIME: 3 HOURS                                                                                             NOVEMBER 2024

Instructions

1.  This paper consists of section A, B and C with total of eleven (11) questions

2.  Answer all questions in section A and B and two (2) question from section C

3.  Cellular phones and any unauthorised material are not allowed in the examination room

4.  Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

5.  Non programmable calculator may be used

6.  The following constant may be used

Atomic masse:

H=1, C=12, N=14, O=16, Na=23, S= 32, Ca=40, Cl= 35.5, Cu= 64 and Zn=65

Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023

GMV at s.t.p = 22. 4 dm3

1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs

Standard pressure = 760 mm Hg

Standard temperature = 273K

1 litre = 1 dm3= 1000cm3

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i)-(x) choose the correct answer from given alternatives and write its letter beside item number in the answer booklet provided

(i) Which of the following is not a use of a solvent?

A.  Bleaching agent

B.  Greasing.

C.  Stain removal.

D.  Cleaning

E.   Universal solvent

 

(ii) In which step of scientific procedures does the hypothesis is either proved or disproved?

A.  Data collection and analysis.

B.  Experimentation.

C.  Data interpretation

D.  Formulation of hypothesis.

E.   Conclusion

 

(iii) Which of the following groups consist of home Care products? A. Yeast, plastic and disinfectant.

B.  Clothes, soap and stone.

C.  Air freshener, detergent and antiseptic.

D.  Petrol, air freshener and paints.

E.   Air freshener, detergent and disinfectant

 

(iv) An electric current of 0.2A was passed through an electrolyte for 16.67minutes. The quantity of electricity passed is;

A.  200.04cuolombs

B.  2000.004cuolombs

C.  1000cuolombs

D.  0.254cuolombs

E.   0.00789culombs

 

(v) Imagine you are told to locate at its appropriate position an element with atomic number 18 in the modern periodic table. Where will you place it? 

A.  Group I and period 1 

B.   Group O and period 3 

C.   Group VII and period 4 

D.  Group III and period 3 

E.   Group V and period 2 

 

 (vi) What will happen when sulphur dioxide is mixed with potassium dichromate (iv) solution in Presence of sulphuric acid? A. Sulphur will be formed.

B.  Green chromate (iii) sulphate will be formed

C.  Blue water will be formed.

D.  Sulphur dioxide gas will be formed

E.   Orange potassium sulphate will be formed

 

(vii) Which of the following reaction is a most convenient method of producing sulphur dioxide during contact process

A.  Iron (ii) sulphide react with oxygen to form sulphur dioxide and iron(iii) oxide

B.  Zinc sulphide reacts with oxygen to form sulphur dioxide and zinc oxide

C.  Sulphur reacts with oxygen to form sulphur dioxide

D.  Oxygen reacts with hydrogen to form water

E.   Sulphur dioxide reacts with oxygen to form sulphur trioxide

 

(viii) The copper (ii) oxide reacts with hydrogen gas to form copper metal and water.

What will be the mass of reduced element? A. 4g.

B.  64g.

C.  18g.

D.  80g.

E.   40g

 

(ix) During the steam reforming method in industrial preparation of hydrogen, the steam reacts with what compound to produce hydrogen gas? A. Water.

B.  Carbon monoxide.

C.  Methane.

D.  Sulphur dioxide.

E.   Oxide

 

(x) What will be the simplest test for the hardness of water? A. Shaking water with chalk.

B.  Mixing water with soap less detergent.

C.  Formation of scum.

D.  Shaking water with soap solution.

E.   Formation of dolomite

 

image 

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. (a) Students are advised to use a non- luminous flame for heating in the laboratory

(i)     Explain how a Bunsen burner produces a non- luminous flame

(ii)   Give a reason as to why advice above given to students.

(iii)  What are the functions of the air holes and barrel in the Bunsen burner?

(b)Why hydrogen peroxide preferred to potassium chlorate during preparation of oxygen gas?

(c) Why iron is not usually recommended in construction of steam pipes and boilers? (d) What would happen to a well stoppered bottle full of water left in deep freezer over night? Why does this happen.

 

4.            People of Uweto region were complaining about the water they are using in everyday activities that contain different contaminants and pollutants like bad smell, coloured matter, floating materials and other different solid substances. The Uweto people wish their water to be treated and purified but they do not know what to do in treating and purifying water. As a Chemist help Uweto people on how to treat and purify their urban water

 

5.            (a) Suppose you went to visit your friend in their school and found students arguing with some facts. Help them by providing the reasons on these facts below: 

(i)      Cold foods do not smell from a distance 

(ii)    Cooking pots, pans and utensils are made up of metals. 

(iii)  Saturated sugar solution can dissolve more sugar after being heated. 

(iv)   It is not advised to use water to extinguish class B fire. 

(v)     Liquids and gases are categorized as fluids. 

(b) After two months some parts with iron materials on Kamara’s house appeared to form a permanent reddish brown coating. Explain four (4) methods that could be used by Kamara to prevent that substance formed on iron materials in his house.

6. (a) In electrolytic production of hydrogen gas, dilute mineral acid is used. Which Method is used in its collection? Give a reason.

(b) Explain how copper necklace can be decorated by pure silver by electrolysis process (c) During electrolysis of brine, sodium was deposited at cathode and chlorine gas released at anode. If 2.0g of sodium were collected at cathode; find the volume of

chlorine gas at s.t.p.

 

7. (a) Neutralization is applied in various useful situations with the aid of balanced chemical equation where necessary; describe any four usefulness of neutralization.

image(b) 2.91 g of a monobasic acid, HX, were dissolved in water and made up to 250 cm3 with water. This solution was titrated with 0.108 M sodium hydroxide solution. 25 cm3 of the sodium hydroxide solution required 22.5 cm3 of the HX solution for complete neutralisation. The equation for the reaction is. HX (aq) + NaOH (aq)  NaX(aq) + H2O(l)

(a)  Calculate the concentration in (i) g l-1 (ii) mol l-1 of the acid.

(b)  Calculate the molar mass of HX.

 

8. (a) Gas A was prepared in the laboratory by isolating it from atmospheric air. During it'spreparation air was allowed to pass through sodium hydroxide then over heated copper metal.

(i)     Identify gas A.

(ii)   By using equation, explain what happened when gas A passed through sodium hydroxide and in heated copper metal.

(iii)  Write five uses of gas A

(b) What will happen when copper is strongly heated in air at higher temperature and lower temperature respectively.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer only two questions

9. You paid a visit to a certain village which has a scarcity of cooking fuel but plenty of raw materials for generating biogas. How would you advise the villagers with regard to the given aspect?

(a)  Nature of the gas.

(b) Raw materials for the generating the gas (c) The process involved in generating the gas.

(d) Three advantages of using biogas over charcoal.

 

10.  Electrolysis is used in various process. Justify this by giving six points

 

11.  Explain how you can handle the chemicals having the warning signs of flammable, corrosive, explosive, harmful and toxic in the laboratory

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 190

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

 

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

 

FORM THREE ANNUAL EXAMINATION

 

BIOLOGY

TIME: 3 HOURS                                                                                               NOVEMBER 2024

 

Instructions

1.  This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.

2.  Answer all questions. All answers must be written in the spaces provided.

3.  Section A and C carry fifteen (15) marks each and section B carries seventy (70) marks.

4.  All writings must be in blue or black ink except drawing which must be in pencil. 5. All communication devices, calculators and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the Mock Assessment room.

6. Write your Mock Assessment Number at the top right corner of every page.

 

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among given alternative and write its latter in booklet given.

i. Nyerere observed  using a microscope an organism moving by help of Pseudopodia. This organism is likely to be

A.  Amoeba 

B.  Euglena

C.  Paramecium 

D. Plasmodium  E. Spirogyra ii. A problem of hiccup can be solved by 

A. Drinking enough amount of water

B Eating enough food

C.  Reducing amount of carbondioxide 

D. Swallowing large amount of air  E. Taking small amount of water

iii. In order to maintain proper health to individual the following factors should be practical except 

A.  Have time for break and leisure 

B.  Practical regular physical exercise

C.  Reduce unhealthy food intake

D. Sleep in well-ventilated room E. Take medical drugs regularly

iv. What happens to blood cell when put into a solution which higher concentration of glucose?

A.  Glucose enter blood cells from glucose solution

B.  Glucose leave the glucose solution into blood cells

C.  Water and glucose leave blood cells at equal rates

D.  Water enters the blood cell form glucose solution 

E.   Water leave the blood cell into glucose solution 

v. A cross-section ally cut stem was immersed in Iodine solution for five minutes and appeared to have a blue black colour. Which part of the stem stained blue black?

A.  Cambium 

B.  Endodermis 

C.  Pericycle D. Phloem vi. Identify one adaptation of human respiratory system in its role

A.  Has a nostril that allow passage of gases

B.  Has cilia for trapping dust and germs

C.  Has hairs for capturing micro-organism

D. It is moist to allow mucus secretion  E. Produces mucus to warm entering hair

vii. During a camping trip, a friend experience an insect bite with mild swelling and redness which component of first Aid would you be most beneficial for initial relief

A.  Anti-histamine cream

B.  Instant cold pack

C.  Alcohol wipe 

D.  Elastic Bandage

E.   Triangular Bandage 

viii. An organelle found both plant and animals cell known as power house of cell for energy generation from food molecule is

A.  Vacuole 

B.  Golgi

C.  Cell-wall

D. Mitochondria E. Chloroplast ix. Which of the following is the end product of starch digestion in duodenum.

A.  Glucose

B.  Amine Acid

C.  Fats 

D.  Maltose

E.   Peptide

x. All things around an organism makes up its 

A.  Ecosystem

B.  Abiotic Component 

C.  Biotic component 

D.  Niche 

E.   Natural environment 

2. Match the items in LIST A with correct response in LIST B by writing its letter below item number.

LIST A

LIST B

i. Structure for gaseous exchange in humans ii. Structure which trap dust in Trachea  iii. Structure which protect lungs from injury  iv. Process which release energy in absence of oxygen 

v. Organism which break down sugar to carbon

dioxide and alcohol vi. Accumulated of lactic acid in muscles

A.  Anaerobes 

B.  Aerobic respiration 

C.  Anaerobic respiration

D.  Ribs

E.   Larynx

F.   Cilia

G.  Bronchiole

H.  Alveoli

I.    Yeast 

J.    Oxygen debt

 

SECTION B 70 marks

Answer all questions

3. a) Identify the organism which are used for gaseous exchange for the following organism i. Cow  ii. Frog iii. Maize leaf  iv. Fish 

v. Earth worm

b) The figure below shows experimental set-up to investigate various aspect of gaseous exchange.

  image 

Answer the following questions

 

i.  What aspect of gaseous exchange is experiment  designed to investigate?

ii. Explain function of Lime water iii. Explain why Lime water in test tube B turned Milky iv. Explain why there was no change in test tube A v. Describe the term gaseous exchange

 

4.            i) Explain why people urinate frequently after taking alcohol  ii) Determine the pathway of water reabsorption in nephrons and determine hormone affected by alcohol

 

5.            a) State three actions which take place in human body in response to each of the following 

i. When temperature of surrounding is low  ii. When body temperature rise due to increase in surrounding temperature 

 

b) Briefly explain why people look pale when they fell cold 

 

6. a) Explain two significance of reproduction 

b) Explain why it is not possible for insect to visit and pollinate wind pollinated flower

 

7. a) Plant dispersed its seeds Naturally. The seedling formed were examined two weeks later. They were found is differ in height. Suggest three environment factor which caused the difference.

b) Explain factors that may hinder fertilization in humans

 

8. Digestion of food materials in the Ileum produces end product by help of various enzymes. Justify 

 

 

 

 

SECTION C (30 MARKS) 

Answer any two questions

9. a) Mr. Juma a biology teacher at Kibuzu secondary school put a piece of bread on a wet cup board after a few  days certain gray substance were observed to grow on a piece of bread .

i. Name the organism that grow on bread surface ii. Name the kingdom in which the observed organism belongs  iii. List any three advantage of Kingdom to which the organism named above belong.

 

b) Animals are considered to be Heterotrophs while plants are said to be autotrophs 

i. Name the process that make plants to be called autotrophs ii. Write chemical equation for process above iii. What will happen if the process does occurs in environment?

 

10.         Most women prefer bottle breast feeding currently. Advice them on advantage of breast feeding.

 

11.         On his way home, Mohammed heard a loud voice of lion. Describe the mechanism which enabled James is hear the voice.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 189

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

 

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

 

FORM THREE ANNUAL EXAMINATION

 

COMMERCE

TIME: 3 HOURS                                                                                               NOVEMBER 2024

INSTRUCTIONS

1.  This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with total of eleven (11) questions

2.  Answer all questions in section A, B and only two (2) questions from sections C 

3.  Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B carries fifty –four (54) marks and section C carries fifteen (30) marks

4.  Budget your time wisely 

SECTION A: (16 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the following items (i) to (x) choose the correct answer and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheets provided.

i. Salma a trader is checking and recording stocks in his shop. Identify activity is Salma performing 

A.  Stock valuation

B.  Stock calculation

C.  Care of stock 

D.  Stock control 

E.   Placing of ctock

ii. Officer from TRA went to Anna a wholesaler, at midnight and forced him to pay tax.

To avoid conflict which principle officer could use?

A.  Principle of simplicity 

B.  Principle of certainly 

C.  Principle of subrogation 

D. Principle of subrogation E. Principle of convenience

iii. A machinga use bicycle moving area of kibaha selling fish and vegetables. Which type of trade the Machinga belongs?

A.  Hawker

B.  Peddlers

C.  Cheap jacks

D. Market trader E. Roadside trader

iv. Elon Musk want to open an industry here in Tanzania to produce cell phone. What he needs to have before starting production 

A.  Customers

B.  Market 

C.  Trade mark 

D.  Brand

E.   Package 

v. A type of demand for a commodity serve the same purpose as served by other commodity is regarded as

A.  Joint demands 

B.  Inter-sectional

C.  Derived demand 

D.  Composite demands

E.   Competitive demands

 

You requested money from your father to pay for your school fees, but your father told you that he currently does not have such money. But after a few days of working hard, he finds the money and pays for your school fees. Which quality of money was demonstrated in this case? 

A.  Divisibility 

B.  Durability 

C.  Cognisability 

D.  Scarcity 

E.   Homogeneity 

vii. There are many type of account offered by commercial banks, the suitable for employee is?

A.  Current account 

B.  Fixed deposit account 

C.  Loan account 

D. Saving account E. Company account  viii. Which of the following set analyses the major ingredients  of marketing mix? 

A.  Procurement, production, promotion and pricing

B.   Distribution, production, policies and pricing

C.   Production, promotion, pricing and distribution

D.  Production, pricing, promotion and policies

E.   Product, pricing, promotion and advertising

 

ix) “Omo removes dirty and stains, ordinary powder leaves behind.” Which form of advertising is best described by this example? 

A.  Informative 

B.  Competitive 

C.  Generic 

D. Persuasive  E. Sponsorship 

x. Dangote wants to share information with his suppliers, out of the following, what should he consider first?

A.  Name of the media owner

B.  The relationship between the media and user

C.  Number of people to use the media

D.  Cost of media 

E.   Competitive media

2. Matching the items in List A against with the response in List B and write the letter of the correct answer in the table below.

List A

List B

i. A document notifying the buyer of the reduction in amount he/she owes the seller resulting from an

A. Packing note 

overcharge on the invoice

ii.             A document for acknowledgement in writing of a payment received

iii.           A document used by the seller to correct an undercharge on the invoice 

iv.           Document of communication from prospective

buyers to sellers to find out if certain goods are available 

v.             A document showing a list of items package in a particular container 

vi.           A printed booklet prepared by the seller which gives description of the goods available for sale such as price, quantity, quality and size

B.  Inquiries 

C.  Debit note

D.  Receipt 

E.   Credit note 

F.   Delivery note

G.  Advice note 

H.  Catalogue

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

3.  In delivery of information the sender always select media to deliver the message to the audience. Explain the relevant factors to be considered by the sender when selecting the medium to disseminate the information. (six points)

 

4.  Using five (5) points, tell local business people in your community the importance of commerce in their daily business environment. 

 

5.  Business opportunities are created from many sources, one being studying human wants. As a commercial student, explain any other five (5) sources. 

6.  Mr. Malume has decided to start a wholesale trade which will cost 10,000,000/=Tzs. He decides to get loan from NMB Bank. What factors will the bank manager take into account before granting a loan? Defend by explaining five (5) points 

7.  Mwajuma is working as a machine operator for more than twelve years at JKY factory located at Mbagala Dsm and in all that time has never changed her job. What are the benefit  that could be enjoyed by Mwajuma and the business by concentrating on one job in twelve year? Explain six (6) points

8.  (a) Identify the three (3) main type of intermediaries in import trade

(b) Explain three (3) importance of bill of landing in exporting of goods.

SECTION C: (30 MARKS)

Answer TWO questions only

 

9.     Many companies have been established to provide various goods and services, but in recent years there have been a large number of companies that have ceased operation. What are the reasons behind the situation? Give six (6) reasons. 

10.  In 2021 a country named X faced over supply of money in the economy which later led to economic problem including inflation, use your knowledge on baking to advice country X on the  tools that her central bank should employ to control excessive supply of money 

11.  (a) Explain five (5) method a country may use to control the volume of imports.

(b) Discuss three (3) problems faced by Tanzania for being involved in international trade.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 188

 

OFISI YA RAIS, TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

 

MTIHANI WA MWISHO WA MUHULA WA PILI

KISWAHILI

KIDATO CHA TATU

(Kwa watahiniwa Walioko na Wasiokuwa Shuleni)

MUDA: SAA 3                                                       2024 OCTOBER

Maelekezo

1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na moja (11). 

2. Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A na B na maswali mawili (2) kutoka sehemu C ambapo swali la tisa (9) ni la lazima 

3. Sehemu A ina alama kumi na sita (16), sehemu B ina alama hamsini na nne (54) na sehemu C ina alama thelathini (30)

4. Zingatia maelekezo ya kila sehemu na ya kila swali

5. Vifaa vya mawasiliano na vitu visivyoruhusiwa havitakiwi katika chumba cha Mtihani. 

6. Andika Namba yako ya mtihani katika kila ukurasa wa kijitabu chako cha kujibia. 

 

SEHEMU A (Alama 16)

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii

1. Katika kipengele (i) – (x) chagua jibu sahihi kisha andika herufi ya jibu hilo kwenye kijitabu chako cha kujibia. 

 

(i) Mshititi Dkt. Yahya A. Sovu alialikwa kwenye Kongamano la Wanaisimu lililofanyika katika Viwanja vya Nyamagana. Katika kongamano hilo aliwasilisha mada ya “Uchanganuzi wa sentensi”, ambapo alibainisha hatua na vipengele vyote vya uchanganuzi wa sentensi kwa kutumia mikabala husika. Je, katika uwasilishaji wake kipengele cha “Chagizo” alikitaja kutumika katika mkabala gani? 

A. Kisintaksia 

B. Kiupatanishi 

C. Kisasa 

D. Kimapokeo 

E. Kimuundo 

 

(ii) Wanaopewa kazi ya kujenga ndio hao hao wanaobomoa badala ya kujenga. Kwa kupitia riwaya ya Joka la Mdimu ni mhusika gani mwenye sifa hiyo? 

A. Shiraz Bhanj 

B. Brown Kwacha 

C. Cheche 

D. Amani 

E. Tino 

 

(iii) Lipi kati ya maandiko yafuatayo huandikwa kwa lengo la kueleza mahitaji mbalimbali kwa mtu anayehusika? 

A. Kumbukumbu za mikutano 

B. Risala 

C. Hotuba 

D. Barua 

E. Insha 

 

(iv) Pamoja na kujifunza darasani maana na aina za lahaja bado rafiki yako Oko ameshindwa kubainisha ni wapi lahaja ya Kimtang’ata inazungumzwa katika jumuiya ya watu wa Pwani ya Afrika Mashariki. Msaidie kubaini sehemu inayozungumzwa lahaja hiyo. 

A. Kaskazini mwa Tanga 

B. Kaskazini mwa Mafia 

C. Kaskazini mwa Unguja 

D. Kaskazini mwa Lamu 

E. Kaskazini mwa Somalia 

 

(v) Usomaji upi husaidia kupima uwezo wa kutamka maneno kwa ufasaha na kutumia lafudhi ya lugha husika? 

A. Kusoma kwa makini 

B. Kusoma kwa ziada 

C. Kusoma kwa sauti 

D. Kusoma kwa burudani 

E. Kusoma kimya 

 

(vi) Mdogo wako wa Kidato cha Pili amepewa kazi ya kutunga hadithi, mwisho wa hadithi hiyo ni “Asiyesikia la mkuu huvunjika guu.” Je, hiki ni kipera gani cha hadithi? 

A. Tarihi 

B. Soga 

C. Visasili 

D. Ngano 

E. Vigano 

 

(vii) Wanafunzi wenzako wa kidato cha Nne wanabishana juu ya sifa za tangazo rasmi. Tumia maarifa uliyoyapata kwenye mada hiyo kumaliza ubishani huo kwa kubainisha ipi si sifa ya tangazo hilo. 

A. Hutolewa baada ya kuratibiwa na mamlaka 

B. Hutolewa kwa kufuata taratibu maalumu 

C. Hutolewa na kubandikwa siku maalumu 

D. Hutolewa na mashirika ya serikali, binafsi au dini 

E. Hutolewa kwenye maeneo maalumu 

 

(viii) Mauja alimwambia Mabala “Ili uwe mahiri wa lugha ya mazungumzo huna budi kuwa mtumwa huru katika lugha husika.” Ukiwa kama mtaalam wa lugha ya Kiswahili Mauja anamaanisha nini kwa Mabala? 

A. Mabala azingatie muundo, misimu na mitindo ya lugha 

B. Mabala azingatie mandhari, ujumbe, dhamira na mada 

C. Mabala azingatia umri, mada, muktadha na muundo 

D. Mabala azingatie mada, lengo, muktadha na uhusiano 

E. Mabala azingatie, lengo, rika, muundo na mila 

 

(ix) Makundi ya ngeli za Nomino hayatofautiani na makundi ya matunda sokoni kwani kila ngeli hupangwa katika kundi lake. Je, ni ngeli ipi inayohusiana na viumbe vyenye uhai tu? 

A. KI-VI 

B. LI-YA 

C. U-YA 

D. I - ZI 

E. A-WA 

 

(x) Ufupishaji wa Habari una misingi yake ambayo haipaswi kukiukwa. Ni upi msingi wa kazi hiyo? 

A. Kuzingatia wazo kuu 

B. Kuzingatia lugha yenye mvuto 

C. Kuzingatia muundo wa kazi hiyo 

D. Kuzingatia mtindo wa kazi hiyo 

E. Kuzingatia mbinu za kisanaa 

 

2. Oanisha maana za dhana mbalimbali za tungo katika orodha A na dhana husika katika orodha B, kisha andika herufi ya jibu sahihi katika kijitabu chako cha kujibia. 

ORODHA A 

ORODHA B 

i) Sehemu ya sentensi inayokaliwa na nomino au kikundi nomino 

(ii) Sehemu ya sentensi ambayo huarifu tendo linalotendeka 

(iii) Sehemu ya sentensi inayokaliwa na mtenda wa jambo 

(iv) Sehemu ya sentensi inayokaliwa na kielezi au kikundi kielezi 

(v) Sehemu ya sentensi inayokaliwa na kitenzi chenye O-rejeshi 

(vi) Sehemu ya sentensi inayokaliwa na kitenzi au kikundi kitenzi 

A. Kiarifu 

B. Chagizo 

C. Shamirisho 

D. Prediketa 

E. Kiima 

F. Kirai 

G. Kishazi tegemezi 

H. Kishazi huru 

 

SEHEMU B (Alama 54)

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii

3. Ili ikue lugha ina tabia ya kujiongezea msamiati wake kwa njia kadha wa kadha. Thibitisha dai hili kwa hoja sita (6) kisha toa mfano mmoja kwa kila hoja. 

 

4. Joti ni mwanafunzi wa Kidato cha Nne katika shule ya Sekondari ya Gezaulole aliyeteuliwa kuwasilisha mada ya uandishi wa baruapepe kwenye maadhimisho ya siku ya teknolojia duniani. Muelekeze Joti vipengele muhimu katika uandishi huo. (Toa hoja 6) 

 

5. Suala la kufaa au kutofaa kuigwa haliangalii rika wala jinsi. Thibitisha dai hili kwa kutumia wahusika sita (6) wa rika na jinsi mbili tofauti kutoka katika tamthiliya ya Kilio Chetu kuonesha namna wasivyofaa kuigwa na jamii. 

 

6. Lugha ya Kiswahili inatamalaki na kuvuka nje ya mipaka ya dunia. Onesha mchango wa lugha hiyo katika maendeleo ya sekta mbalimbali ndani na nje ya nchi. Toa hoja sita. 

 

7. (a) Rais Samia Suluhu Hassan aliwahutubia Watanzania siku ya sherehe ya Muungano. Ukiacha aina hiyo iliyotumika, bainisha aina nyingine tatu za hotuba. 

(b) Kila uandishi una muundo wake. Fafanua kwa mifano vipengele vikuu vitatu vya kuzingatia katika uandishi wa kumbukumbu za mikutano. 

 

8. Soma kifungu cha Habari kifuatacho kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata: 

 

Kiasi katika matendo huwapa watu maisha yasiyo wasiwasi. Dunia yao ya ajabu, kwa desturi, imejigawa katika viasi vingi sana. Ina mchana wa nuru na usuku wa giza, hari na baridi, na mengine mengi. Hapana mfalme awezaye kudai kuwa mchana ni wake peke yake, wala raia mwenye haki ya kusema kuwa usiku ni wake peke yake. Vitu hivi ni milki ya watu wote. Kama mchana na hari vingefululiza kuwako bila ya kiasi maisha yangechujuka na kuyabisika na kama usiku na baridi vingefululiza kuwako bila ya mpaka maisha yangevia na kuganda. 

Basi kama wanadamu wana tabia ya kunung’unika mara kwa mara juu ya hari nyingi au baridi kali – mambo yanayotokea kwa kudura Hapana shaka kuwa wana haki pia ya kunung’unika juu ya mamlaka yasiyo kiasi, heshima isiyo wastani, uhuru usio kadiri na nguvu isiyo mpaka. 

Si halali mwenye mamlaka kuyatumia ovyo; ni haramu Mheshimiwa kuwavunjia wengine heshima zao; hakuna uhuru wa matendo maovu. 

 

Maswali: 

(a) Andika kichwa cha Habari kinachofaa kwa habari uliyoisoma. 

(b) Nini kitatokea kama usiku na baridi vitafululiza ulimwenguni? 

(c) Fafanua maneno yaliyopigiwa mstari kama yalivyotumika katika habari. 

(d) Je, kuna ujumbe gani unaopatikana katika habari hii? (Toa hoja 2). 

 

SEHEMU C (Alama 30)

Jibu maswali mawili (2) kutoka sehemu hii. Swali la tisa (9) ni la lazima.

 

ORODHA YA VITABU 

Ushairi 

Wasakatonge - M.S Khatibu 

Malenga Wapya - TAKILUKI 

Mashairi ya Chekacheka - T.A. Mvungi 

 

Riwaya 

Takadini - Ben J. Hanson 

Watoto wa Mama N’tilie - E. Mbogo 

Joka la Mdimu - A.J. Safari 

 

Tamthiliya 

Orodha - Steve Reynolds 

Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu cha Uzembe - E. Semzaba 

Kilio Chetu - Medical Aid Foundation

 

9. Malenga ni askari wa kupambana na maadui mbalimbali wanaoshambulia ustawi wa jamii na silaha zao ni kalamu na karatasi. Fafanua maadui sita (6) ambao Malenga wawili uliowasoma hupambana nao katika kazi zao. Onesha hoja tatu kwa kila diwani. 

 

10. Kutowajibika kwa baadhi ya wanajamii kumekuwa ni kichocheo cha matatizo ndani ya jamii zao. Thibitisha usemi huu kwa riwaya mbili na kutoa hoja tatu kwa kila riwaya. 

 

11. “Uteuzi wa mandhari huakisi mawazo ya msanii.”Tumia tamthiliya mbili (2) kati ya ulizosoma kutathmini kauli hii kwa kutoa hoja tatu kwa kila kitabu. 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 187

 

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

 

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

 

FORM THREE ANNUAL EXAMINATION

 

HISTORY

TIME: 3 HOURS            NOVEMBER  2024

 

Instructions

1. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions. 

2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C. 

3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B carries fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks. 

4. Cellular phone and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room. 

5. All writings should be in blue or black ink while drawings should be in pencil. 

6. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s) 

 

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i)- (x), choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided. 

(i) Dr. Kisopa wrote a report about the bones and skulls of early human beings which were obtained at Olduvai Gorge. Which way of historical information helped him to prepare his report? 

A. Oral traditions 

B. Archives 

C. Anthropology 

D. Historical site 

E. Archeology 

 

(ii) Udeze lived in Africa many centuries ago, he lived in the condition which man ate raw food, used simple stone tools and their bodies were covered with hair. At which age did Udeze live? 

A. Late Stone Age 

B. Early Stone Age 

C. Middle Stone Age 

D. Mesolithic Stone Age 

E. New Stone Age 

 

(iii) Our grandfather told us that Uvinza is one among the important places in the history of Tanzania. What do you think Uvinza was famous for during the pre-colonial era? 

A. Obtaining salt from different reeds 

B. Obtaining salt by boiling and evaporation method 

C. Obtaining salt directly from salty rocks 

D. Obtaining salt by sieving and boiling water to get salt crystals 

E. Obtaining salt by exploiting inner resources 

 

(iv) Nakuchema was a Makonde boy who married a girl called Shimbanga. After marriage ceremony they went to live to Shimbanga’s family. Relate this with one of the following types of societies. 

A. Patrilineal society 

B. Age-set society 

C. Ntemiship society 

D. Matrilineal society 

E. Centralized society 

 

(v) Before colonialism in Africa, Mkuro’s grandfather was owning large farms which he rent to the poor people who had to pay him. Which identity could be referred to Mkuro’s grandfather? 

A. Feudal lord 

B. Feudalist 

C. Land renter 

D. Tenant 

E. Peasant 

 

(vi) The following were the characteristics of colonial education except

A. It based on rudimentary curriculum

B. It segregated the Africans

C. Focused on literacy and numeracy

D. It reflected the interest of Africans

E. It was provided to few people

(vii) The Coast of East Africa was controlled by the Portuguese for almost two centuries. This control ended after the collapse of Fort Jesus in 1698. Identify one reason from the following that caused the end of that control: 

A. The introduction of Christianity 

B. The coming of Bartholomew Diaz around the Cape 

C. Emergence of Dutch around East Africa 

D. Attacks from the Zimba warriors 

E. Abolition of slave trade along the Coast 

 

(viii) Maulid’s father participated in pre-colonial trade here in Africa where he exchanged minerals with clothes from his fellow trader from Britain. Point down the stage of capitalism in which that exchange took place. 

A. Contemporary capitalism 

B. Competitive capitalism 

C. Mercantile capitalism 

D. Industrial capitalism 

E. Monopoly capitalism 

 

(ix) The French colonialists spent their time and resources to make sure that Africans behave and act as French people. Why did they use that kind of policy? 

A. To educate Africans about human rights 

B. To encourage racial segregation 

C. To prepare puppet class of African leaders 

D. To encourage Africans to accept the rule of law 

E. To reduce the cost of administration 

 

(x) Suzi’s father is a chairperson of ruling political party X and Khadija’s father is a chairperson of opposition political party Y. These parties make our country a multiparty nation. Why do you think this system was considered better than a single party system? 

A. It promotes dictatorship 

B. It promotes democracy 

C. It promotes national unity 

D. It promotes peace and harmony 

E. It promotes African traditions 

 

2. Match the explanations of African leaders who resisted on colonial occupation in List A with their corresponding African traditional leaders in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

 

LIST A 

LIST B 

(i) He was assassinated by British in 1905 and his death resulted to the outbreak of Nandi resistance 

(ii) He was captured by British on April 9, 1899 together with Kabaka Mwanga II of Buganda and exiled to Seychelles for 24 years 

(iii) The second son of Mkasiwa who blew himself and his wife with a gunpowder magazine escaping to be captured by Germans 

(iv) His resistance against French was long lasting resistance in the history of West Africa 

(v) He resisted against Germany invasion in Namibia and died in exile on March 14, 1923 

(vi) He led the African resistance in Southern Tanganyika, he was captured by Germans and hanged at Mango tree 

 

 

A. Koitalel Arap Samoei 

B. Samori Toure 

C. Mzilikazi 

D. Isike 

E. Samuel Maherero 

F. Mkwawa 

G. Hassan Makunganya 

H. Omukama Kabarega 

I. Abushiri bin Salimu 

 

 

 

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

 

3. Briefly answer the following questions; 

(i) Why Kwame Nkurumah is regarded as an important prominent figure during the liberation struggle of African continent? Give three reasons. 

(ii) Explain with vivid examples the three forms of nationalism used in Tanganyika, Zanzibar and Angola. 

(iii) Though U.S.A was the leader of capitalist block, she engaged herself in the process of supporting Africans to abandon colonialism. What was the hidden agenda? Provide three points. 

 

4. Arrange the following historical event in a chronological order by writing number 1 to 6

i. Before  1800 AD Africa and its interior were not known to the outside world.

ii. The interior of Africa was exposed to European world after the work of the agents of colonialism.

iii. Europeans took interests in African strategic areas with fertile soil, mineral and navigable rivers.

iv. Reports of the existence of snow-capped mountains in the interior of Africa attracted great interest in the continent

v. People like Dr Livingstone, Mungo Park, worked greatly to acknowledge their mother countries about the richness of African continent

vi. By 1880s, many European nations rushed and grabbed parts of African

Continent claiming they were areas of their influence

 

5. Draw a sketch map of Africa and locate the areas of the following historical events by using roman numbers. 

(i) The country where Abubakary Tafawa Balewa was overthrown and assassinated by the military. 

(ii) The country where Patrice Lumumba was assassinated by Belgian officers and African puppets. 

(iii) The country where Thomas Sankara was overthrown and assassinated on October 15, 1987. 

(iv) The country where Anwaar Sadat was assassinated on October 6, 1981. 

(v) The country where Tom Mboya was assassinated on July 5, 1969. 

 

6. Kunta Kinte was sold as a slave during the 15th Century slave trade in West Africa. Show how Western societies were affected with this trade. Give three points. 

 

7. Kingazi went to visit Egypt as his holiday vacation. He was told, Egypt during the scramble for Africa took a great attention to European Imperialist countries. As an expert, analyse the potentialities of Egypt. Give any three. 

 

8. Professor Kahigi claimed that “Colonial economy differed from previous types of economies.” Give three points to support his claim. 

 

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer only two (2) questions in this section

 

9. Mr. Mbonani is leaving near your house. His tribe is Ngoni which is found in Songea. Trace any six reasons for the coming of Mr. Mbonani’s tribe to East and Central Africa. 

 

10. The New East African Community is striving to bring sustainable development to it’s member states. As a member of the community, examine six problems which hinder the attainment of the community objectives. 

 

11. After independence, most of African states were struggling to change the colonial nature of education sector. Highlight six changes adopted by African states in this sector. 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 186

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

 

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

 

FORM THREE ANNUAL EXAMINATION

 

GEOGRAPHY

TIME: 3 HOURS       NOVEMBER 2024 

 

Instructions

1. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions. 

2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C. 

3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B carries fifty-four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks. 

4. Map extract of LIWALE (Sheet 280/4) is provided. 

5. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room. 

6. All writings should be in blue or black ink while drawings should be in pencil. 

7. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s) 

 

SECTION A (16 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this sections

1. For each of the item (i)-(x); choose the correct answer from the among the given alternatives and write its letter in the box provided

 

(i) Why does the sun appear larger than other stars that are seen at night? 

A. The capacity of our eyes does not view far during the night 

B. Starlight bends as it passes planets 

C. The earth’s atmosphere filters out light from other stars 

D. Day light brightens the sun making it appear larger 

E. The sun is closer to the earth than other stars 

 

(ii) If the temperature of Dar es Salaam at 100m above the sea level is 30oC, identify the temperature of Moshi at 3200m above the sea level. 

A. 30oC 

B. 29oC 

C. 10.8oC 

D. 11.4oC 

E. 19.2oC 

 

(iii) Ngotho and Kamau observed the rain water which penetrate in the ground during the rain season. Which term describes that process? 

A. Evaporation 

B. Evapotranspiration 

C. Infiltration 

D. Condensation 

E. Precipitation 

 

(iv) Form six students at Maliangumu Secondary School were taught that the Southern Tourist circuit or centre in Tanzania promotes ecotourism. Which of the following is not encouraged in the promotion of ecotourism in the area? 

A. Discouraging forest fire 

B. Environmental conservation 

C. Afforestation 

D. Coastal attraction 

E. Protecting endangered species 

 

(v) Msemo is working in soaps and toothpastes manufacturing industry as a machine operator. In which type of industry does he work among the following? 

A. Food processing industry 

B. Metallurgical industry 

C. Chemical industry 

D. Craft industry 

E. Beverage industry 

 

(vi) Tourists from Katoro Kagera visited Amboni Cave. They were excited to see mass of limestone deposits that hang from the roof of the cave. Which features did they see? 

A. Stalagmites 

B. Stalactites 

C. Polje 

D. Natural pillar 

E. Uvala 

 

(vii) When agricultural officer visited in our farm said that “This soil has high ability to support plant growth and produce high yield.” Which term relates with that statement? 

A. Soil pH 

B. Soil porosity 

C. Soil fertility 

D. Soil shape 

E. Soil water 

 

(viii) My uncle travelled from Dar es Salaam to Mtwara by using “Buti la Zungu” luxury bus. Which element of weather can easily affect that means of transport? 

A. Wind 

B. Humidity 

C. Precipitation 

D. Temperature 

E. Pressure 

 

(ix) “The deadly Mudslide claimed 65 lives and left 115 others injured in Hanang.” Daily news reported. Which term describes that event? 

A. Weathering 

B. Earthquake 

C. Floods 

D. Mass wasting 

E. Volcanic eruption 

 

(x) Despite its importance, airport activities are contributing to the environmental pollution. Which type of pollution it generates? 

A. Soil and water pollution 

B. Air and soil pollution 

C. Noise and air pollution 

D. Radiation and noise pollution 

E. Air and radiation pollution 

2. Match the description of features formed by wind erosion in Column A with corresponding features in column B by writing the letter of correct answer beside item number in answer booklet provided.

Column A

Column B

  1. Boulder and clay
  2. Outwash plain
  3. Drumlin
  4. Kettle lake
  5. Esker
  6. Receding glacier
  7. Lateral moraine
  8. Paired terraces
  9. Incised meander.

 

 

SECTION B (54 Marks) 

Answer all questions in this section 

3. Carefully study the extract map of Liwale sheet 280/4 then answer the following questions: 

(a) Find the area covered by forest in km2 north of 200. 

(b) With evidences from mapped area, state the direction of river Liwale. 

(c) Describe two (2) methods used to show the relief on the mapped area. 

(d) With two (2) reasons to what extent settlement and transport affect vegetation of the mapped area? 

 

4. Olabisi constructed a pie chart showing a favourite soft drinks used by 72 customers on her shop. The angles of the pie chart used are given below: 

Soft drinks 

Coca Cola 

Pepsi Cola 

Fanta 

Mirinda 

7-up 

Angles 

100o 

90o 

60o 

40o 

70o 

 

(a) Calculate actual number of customers who liked soft drinks shown on the table above. 

(b) Use the simplest method by means of bar to show the actual value of the soft drinks liked by customers obtained in (a) above. 

(c) Describe two (2) demerits of the method used by Olabisi to show the favourite soft drinks. 

5. The Municipal survey team in Tanga City is expecting to measure the length of the street roads that have been affected by heavy rainfall for improvement. 

(a) What is the first step to be carried out before actual measurements? 

(b) Why that step is important? (Two (2) points) 

(c) Apart from measuring devices, point out five (5) equipment with their uses. 

 

6. The villagers from Oldonyo Lengai observed an eruption of molten rocks (magma/lava) that flows outside the earth’s crust. After sometime the molten rock cooled and solidified. 

(a) Name the type of rocks found in that village. 

(b) Describe three (3) characteristics of the rocks named in (a) above. 

(c) Highlight three (3) economic importance of the rocks found in that area. 

 

7. Carefully study the following photograph and answer the questions that follow: 

 

(a) With one reason identify the type of photograph. 

(b) Give the name of the phenomenon which has taken place in the photograph. 

(c) With two (2) points explain how urbanization influences the above phenomenon. 

(d) Describe two (2) possible solutions would be taken to overcome that problem. 

 

8. Form three students visited the river mouth of Rufiji River and they found the river pours in water into the Indian ocean by spreading many small channels called distributaries covering a wide flat land with alluvium deposit forming a triangular shaped feature

(a) Identify feature observed by form three students

(b) Describe four (4) condition necessary for the formation of a feature named above in (a) above

(c) Briefly explain four importance of a feature in (a) above

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer only two (2) questions in this section 

9. Despite the challenges the mining sector faces, it has advantages to our economy. With six (6) points support the statement. 

10. Form four students of Maji ya Chai secondary school visited three different places and identified different types of soil with variation of physical and chemical properties. Explain six(6) Physical properties of soil they observed.

11. Propose ways of conserving and preserving natural forest for sustainable development

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 185

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

 

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

 

FORM THREE  PHYSICS ANNUAL  EXAMINATION

 

PHYSICS

TIME: 3 HOURS        OCTOBER, 2024

Instructions

1. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions. 

2. Answers all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions in section C. 

3. Read each question carefully before you start answering it. 

4. Non-programmable calculators and mathematical tables may be used. 

5. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room. 

6. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s) provided. 

7. Wherever necessary you may use the following: 

(i) Acceleration due to gravity = 10m/s2 

(ii) Pie π

(iii) Density of water = 1.0g/cm3 or 1000kg/m

(iv) Density of sea water = 1.3g/cm3 or 1300kg/m

(v) Specific heat capacity of ice = 2100J/kg°C 

(vi) Specific heat capacity of Copper = 420J/kg°C 

(vii) Specific heat capacity of water = 4200J/kg°C 

(viii) Coefficient of limiting friction force = 0.61 

(ix) Coefficient of dynamic friction force = 0.42 

 

 

 

 

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in answer booklet(s) provided. 

SECTION A. (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items [i] – [x], choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number

(i) The SI unit of acceleration is:

A) Meter (m)

B) Kilogram (kg)

C) Second (s)

D) Meter per second (m/s)

E) Meter per second squared (m/s²)

(ii) According to Newton's Second Law of Motion, force (F) is equal to:

A) Mass (m)

B) Mass x Acceleration (ma)

C) Acceleration (a)

D) Weight (mg)

E) Work (W)

(iii) An object submerged in a fluid experiences an apparent buoyant force equal to:

A) Its weight in air

B) The volume of fluid displaced by the object

C) The weight of the fluid displaced by the object

D) The density of the object

E) The density of the fluid

(iv) Opposite poles of magnets attract each other, while like poles repel each other.

This principle is the foundation of:

A) Electromagnetism

B) Electrostatic force

C) Nuclear force

D) Gravitational force

E) Strong force

 

(v) A changing magnetic field can induce an electric current in a nearby conductor.

This phenomenon is described by:

A) Ohm's Law

B) Kirchhoff's Laws

C) Faraday's Law of Electromagnetic Induction

D) Lenz's Law

E) Coulomb's Law

 

(vi) A car accelerates uniformly from rest to a speed of 20 m/s in 5 seconds. What is the car's acceleration?

A) 1 m/s²

B) 4 m/s²

C) 5 m/s²

D) 10 m/s²

E) 20 m/s²

(vii) Most materials expand when heated and contract when cooled. This

phenomenon is primarily due to:

A) Phase change

B) Increased atomic mass

C) Increased intermolecular spacing

D) Decrease in density

E) Change in chemical composition

(viii) A convex lens can be used to:

A) Magnify objects (act as a converging lens)

B) Diverge light rays (act as a diverging lens)

C) Measure distance

D) Detect electric current

E) Separate colors of light (act as a prism)

(ix) When a plastic pen was rubbed against dry hair seriously, the pen was able to attract small pieces of paper. This meant that _______________ 

A. Hair become negatively charged 

B. Hair become positively charged 

C. Hair gain electrons 

D. Paper loses electrons 

E. Both hair and paper are positively charged 

 

(x) A block of wood rests on the horizontal surface. A form three student says that the friction between the block and the surface depends on; 

1. Surface area in contact 

2. Nature of the surface 

3. Weight of the block 

Which of A, B, C, D and E is correct? 

 

A. 1, 2 and 3 

B. 2 and 3 

C. 1 and 2 

D. 1 and 3 

E. 2 only 

2. Match the items  in LIST A with corresponding response in LIST B by writing the letter of correct answer beside item number in answer sheet provided.

 

LIST A

LIST B

i. It depends on the nature of surfaces of bodies in contact

ii. It supports an object which is in contact with another body

iii. It acts on a small range of about 0.01fm to 0.001 fm

iv. It is short range force(operates in a distance ranging from 0.7fm to 2.5 fm)

v. It is a central force

vi. Comes into operation when an elastic body is twisted.

A. Strong force

B. Force of gravity

C. Frictional force 

D. Torsion force

E. Electromagnetism

F. Tension force

G. Normal force

H. Weak force

I. Buoyant force

J. Viscous force

 

 

SECTION B 54 MARKS

Answer all questions

3. (a) What is the refractive index for a certain medium, if the light in air enters the medium at an angle of 30° and refracted at 22°?

(b) A vertical object 10 cm high is placed 20 cm away from a convex mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm. using a ray diagram, determine

(i) Image distance

(ii) The height of the image formed

(iii) The magnification of the image

4. (a) Describe how a lens camera operates the same as human eye. Give three points

(b) Briefly explain how conduction of heat can be applied in your daily life (three reasons)

 

5. (a) NYAMWERU was at home cultivating. He had two hoes, sharp and blunt hoe. Blunt hoe was not cutting well as how sharp hoe did. Explain to him why sharp hoe cuts well than blunt hoe. 

(b) A cube of sides 2cm is completely submerged in water so that the bottom of the cube is at a depth of 10cm. find:

i. Difference in pressure between bottom and top of the cube.

ii. Different of force between bottom and top of the cube.

6. (a) Explain why does a solid weigh more in air than when immersed in a liquid?

(b) By using a help of diagram explain what happen to the two parallel straight conductors when current is moving in the same direction and in opposite direction.

(c) A block of wood of mass 5kg is placed on a rough inclined plane, at 60° to the horizontal. If the coefficient of kinetic friction between the wood and the plane is 0.3, determine the acceleration of the wood down the plane.

7. A metal rod has a length of 2.00 meters at room temperature (20°C). When heated to 100°C, the rod expands by 1.6 mm.

a) Calculate the linear expansivity of the metal.

b) Predict the length of the rod if it is cooled down to -10°C.

c) Explain why bridges often have expansion joints built into their structure.

8. A car of mass 1200kg is accelerating on a straight track. The graph below shows how the force acting on the car varies with time.

(a) Describe how the acceleration of the car will change over time.

(b) Calculate the acceleration of the car when the force is 3000 N

(c) Explain why the force needed to accelerate the car increases over time.

SECTION C. 30 MARKS

Answer any two questions

9. (a) George Ohm observed that as the current flows through the circuit, it

encounters some opposition. This opposition determines the amount of current flowing in electric device depending to the particular material

i. State the law that Mr. George formulate.

ii. Briefly explain factors affecting resistance of a conductor observed by Mr. George Ohm to sum up his observation.

(b) (i) Distinguish between the concept of conductors, semiconductor and insulators in term of energy bands

(ii) Give out one structural difference between A.C and D.C generators.

10. (a) After a long flight a plane may be charged 

(i) What causes a charge? 

(ii) Why is passenger in a plane not charged but an attended who immediately opens the door from outside after landing of the plane is at risk? 

 

(b) (i) Explain how submarine can either float or sink. 

(ii) A piece of cork with a volume of 100cm3 is floating on water. If the density of the cork is 0.25g/cm3. Calculate the volume of cork immersed in water and the force needed to immerse the cork completely. (Assuming mass of 1g has a weight of 0.001N)

11. (a) When a simple pendulum displaced at a small angle swings to and fro, in this motion potential energy and kinetic energy changes by alternating each other.

With the aid of diagram verify the alternation of these energies.

(b) A 50kg girl runs up a staircase of 50 steps each step is 15cm in height in 5s.

Find Work done against gravity by the girl and Power she use to run.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 184

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

 

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

 

FORM THREE ANNUAL EXAMINATION

 

CHEMISTRY

TIME: 3 HOURS                                                                                             NOVEMBER 2024

Instructions

1.  This paper consists of section A, B and C with total of eleven (11) questions

2.  Answer all questions in section A and B and two (2) question from section C

3.  Cellular phones and any unauthorised material are not allowed in the examination room

4.  Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

5.  Non programmable calculator may be used

6.  The following constant may be used

Atomic masse:

H=1, C=12, N=14, O=16, Na=23, S= 32, Ca=40, Cl= 35.5, Cu= 64 and Zn=65

Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023

GMV at s.t.p = 22. 4 dm3

1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs

Standard pressure = 760 mm Hg

Standard temperature = 273K

1 litre = 1 dm3= 1000cm3

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i)-(x) choose the correct answer from given alternatives and write its letter beside item number in the answer booklet provided

(i) Which of the following is not a use of a solvent?

A.  Bleaching agent

B.  Greasing.

C.  Stain removal.

D.  Cleaning

E.   Universal solvent

 

(ii) In which step of scientific procedures does the hypothesis is either proved or disproved?

A.  Data collection and analysis.

B.  Experimentation.

C.  Data interpretation

D.  Formulation of hypothesis.

E.   Conclusion

 

(iii) Which of the following groups consist of home Care products? A. Yeast, plastic and disinfectant.

B.  Clothes, soap and stone.

C.  Air freshener, detergent and antiseptic.

D.  Petrol, air freshener and paints.

E.   Air freshener, detergent and disinfectant

 

(iv) An electric current of 0.2A was passed through an electrolyte for 16.67minutes. The quantity of electricity passed is;

A.  200.04cuolombs

B.  2000.004cuolombs

C.  1000cuolombs

D.  0.254cuolombs

E.   0.00789culombs

 

(v) Imagine you are told to locate at its appropriate position an element with atomic number 18 in the modern periodic table. Where will you place it? 

A.  Group I and period 1 

B.   Group O and period 3 

C.   Group VII and period 4 

D.  Group III and period 3 

E.   Group V and period 2 

 

 (vi) What will happen when sulphur dioxide is mixed with potassium dichromate (iv) solution in Presence of sulphuric acid? A. Sulphur will be formed.

B.  Green chromate (iii) sulphate will be formed

C.  Blue water will be formed.

D.  Sulphur dioxide gas will be formed

E.   Orange potassium sulphate will be formed

 

(vii) Which of the following reaction is a most convenient method of producing sulphur dioxide during contact process

A.  Iron (ii) sulphide react with oxygen to form sulphur dioxide and iron(iii) oxide

B.  Zinc sulphide reacts with oxygen to form sulphur dioxide and zinc oxide

C.  Sulphur reacts with oxygen to form sulphur dioxide

D.  Oxygen reacts with hydrogen to form water

E.   Sulphur dioxide reacts with oxygen to form sulphur trioxide

 

(viii) The copper (ii) oxide reacts with hydrogen gas to form copper metal and water.

What will be the mass of reduced element? A. 4g.

B.  64g.

C.  18g.

D.  80g.

E.   40g

 

(ix) During the steam reforming method in industrial preparation of hydrogen, the steam reacts with what compound to produce hydrogen gas? A. Water.

B.  Carbon monoxide.

C.  Methane.

D.  Sulphur dioxide.

E.   Oxide

 

(x) What will be the simplest test for the hardness of water? A. Shaking water with chalk.

B.  Mixing water with soap less detergent.

C.  Formation of scum.

D.  Shaking water with soap solution.

E.   Formation of dolomite

 

image 

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. (a) Students are advised to use a non- luminous flame for heating in the laboratory

(i)     Explain how a Bunsen burner produces a non- luminous flame

(ii)   Give a reason as to why advice above given to students.

(iii)  What are the functions of the air holes and barrel in the Bunsen burner?

(b)Why hydrogen peroxide preferred to potassium chlorate during preparation of oxygen gas?

(c) Why iron is not usually recommended in construction of steam pipes and boilers? (d) What would happen to a well stoppered bottle full of water left in deep freezer over night? Why does this happen.

 

4.            People of Uweto region were complaining about the water they are using in everyday activities that contain different contaminants and pollutants like bad smell, coloured matter, floating materials and other different solid substances. The Uweto people wish their water to be treated and purified but they do not know what to do in treating and purifying water. As a Chemist help Uweto people on how to treat and purify their urban water

 

5.            (a) Suppose you went to visit your friend in their school and found students arguing with some facts. Help them by providing the reasons on these facts below: 

(i)      Cold foods do not smell from a distance 

(ii)    Cooking pots, pans and utensils are made up of metals. 

(iii)  Saturated sugar solution can dissolve more sugar after being heated. 

(iv)   It is not advised to use water to extinguish class B fire. 

(v)     Liquids and gases are categorized as fluids. 

(b) After two months some parts with iron materials on Kamara’s house appeared to form a permanent reddish brown coating. Explain four (4) methods that could be used by Kamara to prevent that substance formed on iron materials in his house.

6. (a) In electrolytic production of hydrogen gas, dilute mineral acid is used. Which Method is used in its collection? Give a reason.

(b) Explain how copper necklace can be decorated by pure silver by electrolysis process (c) During electrolysis of brine, sodium was deposited at cathode and chlorine gas released at anode. If 2.0g of sodium were collected at cathode; find the volume of

chlorine gas at s.t.p.

 

7. (a) Neutralization is applied in various useful situations with the aid of balanced chemical equation where necessary; describe any four usefulness of neutralization.

image(b) 2.91 g of a monobasic acid, HX, were dissolved in water and made up to 250 cm3 with water. This solution was titrated with 0.108 M sodium hydroxide solution. 25 cm3 of the sodium hydroxide solution required 22.5 cm3 of the HX solution for complete neutralisation. The equation for the reaction is. HX (aq) + NaOH (aq)  NaX(aq) + H2O(l)

(a)  Calculate the concentration in (i) g l-1 (ii) mol l-1 of the acid.

(b)  Calculate the molar mass of HX.

 

8. (a) Gas A was prepared in the laboratory by isolating it from atmospheric air. During it'spreparation air was allowed to pass through sodium hydroxide then over heated copper metal.

(i)     Identify gas A.

(ii)   By using equation, explain what happened when gas A passed through sodium hydroxide and in heated copper metal.

(iii)  Write five uses of gas A

(b) What will happen when copper is strongly heated in air at higher temperature and lower temperature respectively.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer only two questions

9. You paid a visit to a certain village which has a scarcity of cooking fuel but plenty of raw materials for generating biogas. How would you advise the villagers with regard to the given aspect?

(a)  Nature of the gas.

(b) Raw materials for the generating the gas (c) The process involved in generating the gas.

(d) Three advantages of using biogas over charcoal.

 

10.  Electrolysis is used in various process. Justify this by giving six points

 

11.  Explain how you can handle the chemicals having the warning signs of flammable, corrosive, explosive, harmful and toxic in the laboratory

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 183

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATIVE AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE MID TERM EXAMINANTIONS AUG/SEPT-2024

PHYSICS

 

PHYSICS FORM THREE

Where necessary use the following constants

Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 10m/s2

Density of water = 1g/cm3/ 1000kg/m3

 

ATTEMPT ALL QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION

SECTION A (16 Marks) 

Answer all question in this section

 

 (i) A car is initially at rest on a flat road. The driver applies a force on the accelerator, and the car starts moving forward. Which of the following correctly explains this situation?

  1.  The applied force causes the car to overcome inertia and accelerate.
  2.  The applied force increases the car's weight, causing it to move forward due to gravitational force.
  3.  The applied force interacts with the car's fuel, generating a combustion force that propels the car forward.
  4.  The applied force acts as a magnetic force, enabling the car to move forward through electrostatic interactions.
  5.   The applied force causes the friction between the car and the road to decrease, allowing the car to move forward.

(ii) In a wind turbine, which factor affects the amount of electricity generated the most?

  1.  Wind speed
  2.  Blade length
  3.  Wind direction
  4.  Turbine weight 
  5.   Turbine height

(iii) Sam is measuring the temperature of a cup of hot coffee using two different thermometers. The first thermometer has a resolution of 1°C, while the second thermometer has a resolution of 0.1°C. If the temperature of the coffee is 65.6°C, which thermometer will provide a more accurate measurement?

  1.  The first thermometer 
  2.  The second thermometer
  3.  Both thermometers will provide equally accurate measurements 
  4.  None of the thermometers will provide an accurate measurement 
  5.   It is impossible to determine which thermometer is more accurate

(iv)  A person sitting on a plastic chair gets up and experiences a small electric shock. What is the most likely cause of this shock?

  1.  Static electricity buildup
  2.  Friction between the chair and the person's clothes
  3.  Transfer of charges between the person and the chair
  4.  Electromagnetic induction due to nearby electrical appliances 
  5.   Gravity acting on the person's body

(v)  Heat would be lost in the thermos flask if the walls of the glass container were not coated with silver. Which process contributes to this kind of heat loss?

  1.  Radiation
  2.  Conduction
  3.  Convection
  4.  Absorption
  5.   Transmission

(vi)  In a light experiment, observing an object through a certain material showed that less light was transmitted and the image was distorted. Which type of material was used

  1.   A translucent material
  2.   An opaque material
  3.   A luminous material
  4.   A transparent material
  5.    A non-luminous material

(vii) A body is said to be in equilibrium if

  1.  It moves with uniform speed
  2.  The net force acting on it is zero
  3.  The upward and downward forces are equal
  4.  Its center of gravity is low positioned
  5.   Its center of gravity is high

(viii) What happens when a liquid changes into gaseous state?

  1.  Some surface molecules absorb latent heat of vaporization and escape
  2.  It gives its own latent heat that can be used to heat up the surrounding
  3.  The potential and kinetic energies of the molecules increase
  4.  The molecules attractive forces to one another increases and their average kinetic energy decreases
  5.   There is no adhesive force between molecules.

(ix)  A red tie was viewed by using light from a torch which was blue. The colour that was seen was black. What happened to the blue colour from a torch when it met with red tie?

  1.  Reflection
  2.  Absorption
  3.  Transmission
  4.  Refraction
  5.   Diffraction

(x)  Ntanguye was cooking ugali in a good conducting container, but she seems to use iron handle which is covered by plastic at its holding handle to hold a cooking container. Why did she use plastic handle and not iron?

  1.  It is good conductor of heat
  2.  Its particles are closely to each other
  3.  It reflects heat
  4.  It is a poor conductor of heat 
  5.   It is a good heat emitter

2. Match the property of the mirror in list A with their corresponding mirrors in list B, by writing the letter of the correct response beside the corresponding item number

LISTA

LIST B

(i) Has wide field of view

(ii) Used as shaving mirrors

(iii) Forms laterally inverted images

(iv) They have spherical shape

(v) Are used in periscope

(vi) Are used in car head light

  1.                Convex mirror
  2.                Plane mirror
  3.                Parabolic mirror
  4.               Concave mirror
  5.                  Curved mirror
  6.                  Inclined mirror
  7.               Rotating mirror
  8.               A coustic mirror

 

SECTION B

3. (a) A car starts from rest and accelerates uniformly for 10 seconds, reaching a final velocity of 30 m/s. It then maintains this velocity for another 5 seconds before coming to a stop. Determine the total distance covered by the car during this time by using equations of uniformly accelerated motion.

(b) A rectangular block of iron has a mass of 2.5 kg and dimensions 10 cm x 5 cm x 3 cm. Determine the density (in kg/m³) and relative density of the iron block.

 

4. (a) During a scuba diving session, a diver descends into the ocean. As the diver goes deeper, does the pressure on their body increase or decrease? Explain your answer.

(b) In a collision between two objects, object A with a mass of 5 kg and object B with a mass of 3 kg, object A was initially at rest, and object B was moving with an initial velocity of 10 m/s . After the collision, object A gained a velocity of 4 m/s in the opposite direction. Calculate the velocity of object B after the collision.

 

5. (a) Briefly explain how does the transfer of thermal energy occur in a metal spoon that has been placed in a pot of boiling water?

(b) A 2 kg block of aluminum is initially at a temperature of 20°C. If 20,000 J of thermal energy is added to the block, what will be its final temperature?

 

6.(a) Explain why does a solid weigh more in air than when immersed in a liquid? (04 marks)

  1.  By using a help of diagram explain what happen to the two parallel straight conductors when current is moving in the same direction and in opposite direction. (04 marks)
  2.   A block of wood of mass 5kg is placed on a rough inclined plane, at 60° to the horizontal. If the coefficient of kinetic friction between the wood and the plane is 0.3, determine the acceleration of the wood down the plane. (05 marks)

7. (a) NYAMWERU was at home cultivating. He had two hoes, sharp and blunt hoe. Blunt hoe was not cutting well as how sharp hoe did. Explain to him why sharp hoe cuts well than blunt hoe. (03 marks)

(b) A cube of sides 2cm is completely submerged in water so that the bottom of the cube is at a depth of 10cm. find:

  1.    Difference in pressure between bottom and top of the cube. (3.5 marks)
  2.    Different of force between bottom and top of the cube. (2.5 marks)

8. (a) Form one students from Mzumbe secondary school visited Kilimanjaro Mountain. When climbing the Mountain to high altitude, one of the students got the problem of nose bleeding.

i. Comment on why student got such problem?( 02 marks)

ii. Why astronauts wear space suits?(02 marks)

 (b)  The acceleration due to gravity on Jupiter is about 2.6 times that on the earth. A spacecraft has a weight of 24500 N on earth.

  (i) What is the mass of the spacecraft?(03 marks)

  (ii) What would be its weight on Jupiter?(03 marks)

9. (a) Mr. Samwel put the coin on a card placed over the mouth of a bottle. When the card is flicked away with the figure the coin drops neatly into the bottle.

 (i) Which law demonstrated by Mr.Samwel?(01 mark)

 (ii) State the law identified in (i) above(02 marks)

(b)   A screw jack has a screw pitch of 5mm and the effort arm 16 cm 

 (i) State two forms of energy in which the energy supplied to the screw jack is finally converted     to (2 marks).

(ii) Determine the percentage efficiency of this screw jack, if it needs an effort of 30N to lift a     load of 750N. (04 marks)

10.  (a)  Describe how a lens camera operates the same as human eye. Give three points (06 marks)

 (b)  Briefly explain how conduction of heat can be applied in your daily life(three reasons)(04 marks)

 

SECTION C

11. (a) An ice forms at the top of ocean and other water bodies during freezing condition but not at the bottom. Identify the name given to this phenomenon and the significance of this phenomenon. Hence draw the graph of density against temperature that leading to the phenomenon. (05 marks)

(b) The specific heat capacity of water is 42003/kg/c what does this statement mean?, If a student of mass 50kg wanted to take a bath mixed 4kg of water at 80°C with 6kg of water at 20°C. What is the final volume and final temperature of the water (4 marks)

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 182

OFISI YA RAIS, TAWALA ZA MIKOA

NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

JAMUHURI YA MUUNGANO YA TANZANIA

MTIHANI WA NUSU MUHULA

KIDATO CHA TATU

KISWAHILI 2024-AUG/SEPT

  1.   Maelekezo
  2.    1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi (10).
  3.    2. Jibu maswali yote kwenye nafasi ulizopewa.
  4.   3. Sehemu A na C zina alama kumi na tano (15) kila moja na sehemu B ina alama sabini (70).
  5.    4. Zingatia maelekezo ya kila sehemu na ya kila swali.
  6.    5. Majibu yote yaandikwe kwa kalamu yenye wino wa bluu au mweusi.
  7.    6. Vifaa vyote vya mawasiliano visivyoruhusiwa havitakiwi katika chumba cha upimaji.
  8.    7. Andika Namba yako ya Upimaji katika kila ukurasa sehemu ya juu upande wa kulia.

 SEHEHU A 

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

1. Chagua Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika vipengele (i) hadi (x), kisha andika herufi ya jibu hilo kwenye kijitabu chako cha kujibia.

(i) Sentensi ipi kati ya hizi zifuatazo HAINA maana Zaidi ya moja?

  1.  Kaka amefua nguo
  2.  Nipe sahani ya kulia
  3.  Suedi amenunua mbuzi
  4.  Eva amenunua kanga
  5.   Joni amempigia mpira

(ii) Kiimbo hutafsiriwaje katika mazungumzo?

  1.  Kupanda na kushuka kwa mawimbi ya sauti
  2.  Kuzungumza na kuongea kwa sauti
  3.  Kuzungumza kwa kupandisha mawimbi ya sauti
  4.  Kuzungumza kwa kushusha mawimbi ya sauti
  5.   Kuzungumza na kushuka kwa mawimbi ya sauti

(iii) Mkisi ameenda Dodoma. Neno Dodoma limetumika kama aina gani ya neno?

  1.  Kielezi
  2.  Nomino
  3.  Kivumishi
  4.  Kiwakilishi
  5.   kihisishi

(iv) “Changa bia” nahau hii katika lugha ya Kiswahili ina maana ipi?

  1.  Kuepuka matatizo kwa ujanja
  2.  Fika mwisho
  3.  Kula kwa ushirika
  4.  Chombo kipo hatarini
  5.   Kumaliza kikao

(v) Mawazo makuu ya mtunzi wa kazi za fasihi humfikia mlengwa kwa njia ipi kati ya hizi zifuatazo?

  1.  Fani
  2.  Maudhui
  3.  Dhamira
  4.  Falsafa
  5.   Migogoro

(vi) Ipi ni tofauti ya msingi kati ya mashairi na ngonjera?

  1.  Mpangilio wa vina na mizani
  2.  Idadi ya mizani na mishororo
  3.  Majibizano baina ya watu wawili au Zaidi
  4.  Mpangilio maalumu wa silabi na lugha ya mkato
  5.   Mapigo ya kimuziki na ridhimu

(vii) Jambo gani muhimu huzingatiwa na mtunzi wa insha ya hoja?

  1.  Lugha yenye ukinzani
  2.  Lugha ya kisanaa
  3.  Lugha isiyo na mvuto
  4.  Lugha ya kufikirisha
  5.   Lugha inayosifia

(viii) Uwasilishaji wa kazi za fasihi unatofautiana kati ya mtunzi mmoja na mwingine huitwaje?

  1.  Muundo
  2.  Mtindo
  3.  Maudhui
  4.  Falsafa
  5.   Fani

(ix) Unyambulishaji katika lugha ya Kiswahili huhusisha upachikaji wa viambishi___

  1.  Kabla ya mzizi
  2.  Katikati ya mzizi
  3.  Baada ya mzizi
  4.  Kabla na baada ya mzizi
  5.   Kabla, katikati na baada ya mzizi

(x) Ili kuepuka utata katika tungo, ni muhimu 

  1.  Kuepuka matumizi ya maneno yenye maana Zaidi ya moja
  2.  Kutumia nahau
  3.  Kutumia aina zote za maneno katika tungo
  4.  Kutumia alama za uandishi
  5.   Kutumia mofu ya kauli ya kutendea

2. Oanisha dhana za nyimbo zilizopo katika ORODHA A na aina ya nyimbo katika ORODHA B Kisha andika herufi ya jibu sahihi katika kijedwali hapo chini.

ORODHA A

ORODHA B

  1. Huimbwa jandoni
  2. Huimbwa wakati wa kilimo
  3. Huimbwa wakati wa shughuli za baharini.
  4. Huimbwa wakati wa kuuaga mwaka.
  5. Huimbwa katika michezo ya watoto.
  6. Huimbwa katika msiba.
  1.  Kongozi.
  2.  Tenzi.
  3.  Kimai
  4.  Wawe.
  5.   Nyimbo za Watoto
  6.   Nyiso.
  7.  Mbolezi.

SEHEMU B. 

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

3. (a) Eleza dhima za mofimu “li” kama ilivyotumika katika sentensi zifuaatazo:-

  1.          Shamba letu li kubwa sana.
  2.          Walichelewa kurudi.
  3.          Tunalifuatilia
  4.          Limeharibika
  5.          Shikilia

(b) Andika sentensi zifuatazo katika hali ya ukanushi.

  1.          Ameshiba sana
  2.          Watoto wengi wanaogelea
  3.          Mvua ilinyesha kwa wingi sana
  4.          Kijana anakula chakula kingi sana

4. (a) Utata katika mawasiliano husababishwa na mambo mengi.Taja sababu Tano (5) zinazosababisha Utata katika lugha.

(b)  "Tabibu mzuri ni yule anayejua njia za kutibu ugonjwa"ukitumia msemo huu onesha njia nne (4) zinazoweza kuondoa Utata katika lugha.

5. "Mwalimu wa kidato Cha nne aliwaambia wanafunzi wake waunde maneno mapya."Bainisha njia Tisa (9) walizozitumia kuunda maneno hayo na Kwa Kila njia toa mfano mmoja.

6. Malimusi na Wasakatonge walikuwa wanajadili kuhusu tenzi na mashairi , Malimusi anasema tenzi na mashairi zote ni tungo za kishairi hivyo zinafanana lakini Wasakatonge alikinzana na Malimusi kwa hoja kuntu. Jadili upande wa Wasakatonge kwa hoja sita (6) huku ukitolea mifano hoja zako.

7. Asasi mbalimbali zilizoanzishwa kabla na baada ya Uhuru,mfano UKUTA (1959) na TATAKI(2009) Kwa lengo la kukuza na kuendeleza kiswahili.Onesha changamoto SITA sinazozikumba asasi hizo katika ukuzaji wa kiswahili.

8. Soma kifungu cha habari kisha jibu maswali yafuatayo.

Ndugu wazazi,kumbe safari yenu inahusu harusi ya Zaituni? Mkuu wa shule aliwauliza wazazi “ndiyo” wazazi walijibu kwa Pamoja bila aibu. “inategemewa kufungwa lini”? mkuu aliendelea kuhoji. Harusi hii ilikuwa ifanyike wakati zaituni anapofika kidato cha nne,lakini zainabu huyu ametufanyia uhuni na vituko visivyoelezeka . nasi sasa tunachukiwa na Kijiji kizima na kudharauliwa na kila mtu.

Hii imetuudhi sana, tumetungiwa nyimbo na kufanyiwa kila shutuma. Hatuna raha; hivyo tumeonelea bora tuje kukuomba umfukuze shule ili kiburi kimwishe.

Nasi tupo tayari kukulipa kiasi chochote cha fedha ukitimiza haja yetu hii, “mzee Abdallah alieleza”. Muda wote mkuu wa shule alikuwa akimtazama mzee kwa chata sana.Kisha akauliza swali la kuchochea Zaidi, “zaituni ana kiburi kumbe”

Mama Zaituni hakutaka hilo limpite himahima akatoa maelezo yake. “Mama wewe, zaituni usimuone hivi”. Zaituni mwanangu hataki kufuata utamaduni wetu wa kuolewa. Zaituni ati achague mchumba mwenyewe, ati mahari haioni kama ni kitu cha msingi. Kiburi hicho kinatokana na elimu mliyompa. Mtoto sasa ameharibika. Anafanya apendavyo, elimu gani isiyojali adabu, wala utii?” mama zaituni alimaliza huku jasho na machozi yanamtoka.

Hapa mkuu wa shule aliona kwanza awaelimishe kabla hajawatolea kauli ya mwisho. Alikwishatambua kwamba wazazi wa zaituni walikuwa wameachwa nyuma na wakati. Kila upya wa mawazo waliuita kiburi.

MASWALI

  1.          Wazazi wa Zaituni walikwenda shuleni kufanya nini?
  2.          Wazazi walisema kuwa Zaituni amefanya kosa gani?
  3.          Eleza mgogoro mkuu uliopo kati ya Zaituni na wazazi wake.
  4.          Fupisha Habari hiyo kwa maneno yasiyopungua hamsini( 50) na yasiyozidi sitini(60).

 

SEHEMU C. 

Jibu maswali mawili (2) kutoka katika sehemu hii, Swali la kumi ni lalazima.

 

ORODHA YA VITABU 

USHAIRI

  •       Wasatonge  M. S Khatibu (DUP)
  •       Malenga wapya - TAKILUKI (DUP)
  •       Mashairi ya chekacheka - T. A. Mvungi (EP& D. LTD)

RIWAYA

  •       Takadini - Ben. J. Hanson (MBS)
  •       WAtoto wa mama N’tilie - E. Mbogo(H.P)
  •       Joka la mdimu - A. J. Safari (H.P)

TAMTHILIYA

  •       Orodha - Steve Reynolds (M)
  •       Ngoswe penzi kitovu cha uzembe - E. Semzaba(ESC)
  •       Kilio Chetu - Medical Aid Foundation (TPH)

9. Msanii yeyote wa kazi ya fasihi anafananishwa na mwavuli kwa jamii yake, kwa kuwa anatumia macho yake kuona maovu yaliyomo katika jamii na hutumia kalamu yake kuishauri na kuikinga jamii yake isipatwe na mabaya. Thibitisha kauli hii kwa kudadavua maovu yaliyoibuliwa na waandishi wa riwaya mbili ulizosoma. Hoja tatu kwa kila riwaya.

10. Waandishi wengi wa fasihi hupenda kutumia jazanda mbalimbali katika kuelimisha jamii katika maswala kadha wa kadha.Hivyo tumia jazanda mbalimbali kutoka diwani mbili ulizosoma kuonesha walivyosaidia kuelimisha jamii.Toa hoja tati(3)wa Kila kitabu.

11. "Uibushaji WA migongano katika tamthiliya ni nyenzo muhimu katika ufanikishaji wa tamthiliya "Kwa kutumia vitabu viwili(2)kati yavile ulivyosoma,Jadili kauli hii Kwa kutoka hoja tati (3) Kwa Kila kitabu.

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 181

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

MID TERM ONE EXAMINATION, AUG/SEPT -2024

FORM THREE

GEOGRAPHY

INTRUCTIONS                                                                                                                TIME:2:30

  1. This Paper Consist Two Section  A &  B With A Total Of Twelve (12) Questions.
  2. Answer All Questions In Section  ‘’A ‘’ And Two Question From Section ‘’B’’
  3. Section “A” Caries Seventy (15) Marks , Section   B’’ Thirty (30) Marks.
  4. Programmable Calculator , Cellular Phones And Any  Unauthorized  Materials Are Not  Allowed In The Examination Room.
  5. Write  Your  Name  On  Every  Page Of Your  Answer  Sheet.

 

SECTION A (70-MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS FROM THIS SECTION.

 

i. A city located very close to the Equator is likely to experience:

  1.     Short days and long nights all year
  2.     Very cold winters and hot summers
  3.     Hot temperatures and roughly equal day/night length all year
  4.    Four distinct seasons

 

ii. Which of the following is not an element of weather?

  1.  Humidity
  2.  Precipitation
  3.  Sunshine
  4.  Climate

 

iii. Mountains which are formed by the process of denudation are referred to as:-

  1.  Fold mountains
  2.  Residual mountains
  3.  Block mountains
  4.  Volcanic Moutains

 

iv. Understanding how different cultures interact with their environment is important because:

  1.  It can help us build maps
  2.  We can learn how people used to live
  3.  It helps us make choices that protect the planet
  4.  It tells us who the best explorers were

 

v. Which one of the following is not a factor to consider while deciding the climate of a place?

  1.  Prevailing winds
  2.  Annual rainfall
  3.  Distance from the ocean
  4.  Annual range of temperature.

 

vi. Among the following is the only problem associated with over exploitation of forest resources.

  1.     Desertification
  2.     Low technology
  3.     Poor transport and communication
  4.    Poor capital to be used.

 

 

 

 

vii. The production of bulk products like iron, steel, car assembly and ship building is referred to as:-

  1.  Heavy industry
  2.  Simple or light industry
  3.  Secondary industry
  4.  Primary industry

 

viii. Solar energy coming from the sun is referred to as:-

  1.  Renewable energy resource
  2.  Non – renewable energy resource
  3.  Tidal power source
  4.  Hydroelectric power.

 

ix. Water transport is also referred to as:-

  1.  Marine transport
  2.  Sea transport
  3.  River transport
  4.  Lake transport

x. Total volume of pores or empty spaces between soil particles is termed as;

  1.  Soil texture
  2.  Soil porosity
  3.  Soil structure
  4.  Soil profile

 

 

 

 

2. Match the items from LIST A with the correct response in LIST B by writing a letter of the correct answer.

LIST A

LIST B

  1.      The name that is given to a boundary that separates solid materials from the molten mantle
  2.    Clay as a parent rock
  3.  The second layer of the earth’s surface
  4.  A vertical feature formed due to solidification of magma within the earth’s crust.
  5.    The process of changing granite to gneiss rock.
  6.  type of igneous intrusion that forms a dome-shaped structure above the Earth's surface
  1.              Sima
  2.               Sial
  3.              Dyke.
  4.             Lacolith
  5.               Impermeable
  6.               Sedimentation
  7.              Metamorphism
  8.             Mahorovic
  9.                  Asthnosphere.

 

SECTION B

3. Explain how the following factors determine soil formation?

i)  Parent rock material

ii) Climate

iii) Living organisms

iv)  Relief

v)  Topography.

 

4. (a) What do you understand by:-

  1.             Nominal scale
  2.             Ordinal scale
  3.             Interval scale
  4.             Ration scale

 (b) Differentiate parametric and non – parametric data

5. Explain the importance of glacial erosional and depositional features.

6. Explain the differences between mechanical, chemical, and biological weathering, providing examples of each.

7. What are the factors that have influenced the development of car manufacturing industry in Japan?

 

8. (i) Classify rocks according to mode of formation.

    (ii) Identify three minerals that are found in igneous rocks.

9. Carefully study the photograph provided below and then answer the questions that follow

 

  1. Name the crop shown in the photograph
  2. Mention three necessary physical conditions for the growth of the
  3. With two reasons determine the type of photograph
  4. Mention two contributions of economic activity taking

10. List the advantages and disadvantages of air transport.

SECTION C-ANSWER QUESTION 11

11. What are the factors that favour the development of Hydro electric power (H.E.P)?

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 180

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

 

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

FORM THREE 

MID-TERM-2 – AUG/SEPT 2024

TIME 3:00 HRS

 

INSTRUCTIONS

  • This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of twelve questions
  • Answer All questions in Sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C
  • Mind your Handwriting and Neatness.

 

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer ALL questions in this section

(i) One who is able to use left or right hand equally is called?

(a) carpenter 

(b) misogynist 

(c) Ambidextrous 

(d) Lexicographer

(ii) You ask your friend to lend you his book and he simply tells you “No thank you”. How can you describe your friends answer?

(a) A rude answer 

(b) A polite request 

(c) A polite denial 

(d) A magic answer

(iii) He is the . . . . . . . . . handsome in our class

(a) more 

(b) much 

(c) most 

(d) more than

(iv) A group of musicians is called?

(a) Artists 

(b) wasafi classic 

(c) bunch 

(d) band

(v) What is the feminine gender of the word “bachelor”?

(a) patroness 

(b) lady 

(c) queen 

(d) spinster

(vi) What do you call a sister of your aunt?

(a) Nephew 

(b) Aunt 

(c) Niece 

(d) big sister

(vii) I shall ask the ……to come and repair the pipe in the birthroom

(a) mason 

(b) joiner 

(c) mechanic 

(d) plumber

(viii) Which of the following sentences expresses an action which will happen at a later

(a) Moses has gone to Nongwe (b) I have taken lunch (c) Who is that man? (d) I am attending a party tonight

(ix) What is the synonym of the word “proceed”?

(a) control 

(b) prohibit 

(c) continue 

(d) revise

(x) A figure of speech which gives inanimate objects the humanity form

(a) Hyperbole 

(b) Allegory 

(c) Personification 

(d) Simile

 

2. Match the items in LIST A with their corresponding items in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A notice of a death, especially in a newspaper, usually with a short biographical account.
  2. A burial ground, especially one beside a church.
  3. A length of cloth or an enveloping garment in which a dead person is wrapped for burial.
  4. An arrangement of flowers leaves or stems fastened in a ring and used for decoration or for laying on a grave. 
  5. A vehicle for conveying the coffin at a funeral.
  6. An expression of sympathy, especially on the occasion of the death of a person’s relative or close friend.
  1. Condolences
  2. Elegy
  3. Eulogy
  4. Graveside
  5. Casket
  6. Shroud
  7. Wreaths
  8. Obituary
  9. Hearse
  10. Graveyard

 

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. For each of the items (i) - (v), rewrite the sentences by changing the infinitive brackets into gerunds

(i) (To laugh) at the poor is being insensitive.

(ii) Rugiatu loves (to visit) the sick.

(iii) (To read) over night before an examination is not advisable.

(iv) The best gift a father can give to his children is (to love) their mother. 

(v) (To smile) is healthier than (to frown).

4. For each of the items (i) – (vi), change the active voice into passive voice.

(i) They do homework every Monday.

(ii) My brother is drawing pictures.

(iii) Teachers have taught the students.

(iv) Boys cleaned that room yesterday.

(v) We say that she is a teacher.

(vi) Do you speak French?

 

5. Conjunctions are words that not only used to join phrases, clauses and sentences but also used to show how ideas are related in sentences. Using appropriate conjunctions in each of the item (i) – (vi), construct one sentence to show the following situations.

  1. To show addition or inclusion.
  2. To indicate time when an action happened.
  3. To indicate a condition for something to happen.
  4. To show reason.
  5. To show purpose for which an action happened.
  6. To show contrasting ideas.

6. Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given after each.

  1. Although it was raining, we went to the farm.

Begin: In spite of ……………………………………………………….

  1. Jonathan asked me “Are you traveling to Dodoma with your aunt?”

Begin: Jonathan asked me if ………………………………………….

  1. If we study hard, we will pass the exams.

Begin: Unless ………………………………………………………….

  1. She is too weak to lift the box.

Use: ………………….. enough to ……………………………………..

  1. No sooner had I arrived at the terminal than the bus left.

Begin: As soon as …………………………………………………………….

  1. Although he had poor health, he came to school.

Begin: Notwithstanding …………………………………………………….

 

7. (a) Auxiliary verb HAVE has various uses. With the help of well-constructed sentences show the following uses.

  1. To show possession
  2. To form perfect aspect of tense
  3. Have + to infinitive (expresses command or obligation)
  4. To form question tag

(b)Write the following sentences in negative form

  1. Many students passed the examination.
  2. Yusuph prefers Ugali.
  3. We are planning to leave.
  4. Collina can drive a car.
  5. The man in dark blue suit is my brother.

8. Correct the following sentences where necessary; 

(i) Neither riches nor fame make a man happy.

(ii) I think Hawa have the papers.

(iii) Please don’t loose interest in me.

(iv) Have you seen the new cite for the house?

(v) She had three children with her first husband.

(vi) I will expect you at about two O’clock in Monday.

(vii) The news were shocking.

(viii) They arrived early than us. (ix) What is the fair to Mbeya?

 

9. When the actual words of the speaker are reproduced, it is called direct speech. Rewrite the following sentences into direct speech.

  1. She said that she was busy .
  2. They said they were going to school then.
  3. The laboratory technician said that water freezes at 00C.
  4. Renu said that she had finished her work.
  5. The president said that he wanted them to clear up that uncertainty if they didn’t, he would decide otherwise.
  6. The teacher said that the sun rises in the East.

8. You are a Bachelor degree holder from the University of Dodoma, you want to apply for a job at Mfikwa Sisal Plantation. Prepare Curriculum Vitae which will accompany your application letter. Sign your name as Edner Nicholaus Ngogwe, postal address 1514, Pangani. 

SECTION C. (30marks)

Answer two (2) questions in this section. Question number 9 is compulsory.

LIST OF READINGS

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES

  • A Wreath for Fr. Mayor -S.N. Ndunguru (1977), Mkuki na Nyota
  • Unanswered Cries -Osman Conteh, Macmillan
  • Passed Like Shadow -B.M. Mapalala (2006), DUP
  • Spared -S.N. Ndunguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota
  • Weep Not Child -Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1987), Heinmann
  • The Interview -P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan

PLAYS

  • Three Suitors: One Husband -O. Mbia, (1994), Eyre Methuen
  • The Lion and the Jewel -W. Soyinka (1963), OUP
  • This Time Tomorrow - Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1972), Hienemann
  • The Black Hermit -Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1968), Hienemann

POETRY

  • Songs of Lawino and Ocol -O. P’Bitek (1979), EAPH
  • Growing up with Poetry -D. Rubadiri (1989), Heinemann
  • Summons -R. Mabala (1980), TPH

9. Read the following poem carefully and answer the questions that follow:-

SUNRISE

Behold!

The sun has risen,

And with the sons of the land has risen too,

Forward they go,

Well armed,

Singing the praises to the beauty of the sun rise,

With the determination of long term worriers,

Challenging the enemy,

With the courage of free mind,

And the vigour of clean purpose,

Sit and wait brethren,

Wait and see what glory they bring at sunset,

How they pay homage to the land, And their people.

QUESTIONS;

a. What is the poem about?

b. What is the meaning of the title of the poem?

c. The poem talks about challenging the enemy. Who do you the enemy might be?

d. What do you think SUNRISE and SUNSET symbolize?

e. With determination of “long term worriers”. What do you think the words “long term” tell us about the poet’s view of struggle?

f. What is the type of the poem?

g. What are the possible themes of the poem? (Give out two themes)

 

  1.    Imagine that you have attended a women conference where the topic is “Like men, women are equally capable of contributing the welfare to society”. Use two plays you have read to prove the relevance of this statement.(three points from each play)
  1.    Suppose that many characters from different novels has written to you, each one asking you to be his/her friend. Who and why would you accept him/her to be your friend. (Choose one friend from each novel and three reasons for accepting his/her requests). Use two novels.

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 179

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

COMMERCE FORM THREE

MID-TERM EXAMS-AUG/SEPT – 2024

Instructions

Answer all questions from this paper

 

SECTION A

Answer ALL questions.

i. Which of the following is not a potential cause of failure of a new products?

  1.  Poorly designed product
  2.  An incorrectly positioned product
  3.  An underestimated market size
  4.  Higher than anticipated costs of products development.

ii.  A document that allows possession of good if they arrive before bill of lading is

  1.  Letter of credit
  2.  Documentary bill
  3.  Certificate of indemnity
  4.  Provisionary note

iii.  An invoice certified by officer appointed by government to represent its trade interests is called?

  1.  Exporter invoice
  2.  Shipping invoice
  3.  Certificate of origin
  4.  Consular invoice.

iv. Which is not a stage in development of money?

  1.  Merchants
  2.  Gold smiths
  3.  Black smiths
  4.  Money lenders.

v. A memorandum (memo) is considered a brief form of written communication for:-

  1.  Internal use
  2.  External use
  3.  Formal use
  4.  Legal use

vi. The least factors to consider when locating warehouse is?

  1.  Source of goods
  2.  Security
  3.  Land space
  4.  Internet connection.

vii.  If price of a commodity changed from 50/= to 80/= quantity demanded fall from 60units to 40units, what is the elasticity of demand?

  1.  0.33
  2.  0.55
  3.  60%
  4.  33%

viii. Stock varieties of goods, enable retailers to visit their premises, pick goods pay for them and transport the goods.

  1. Rack Jobbers
  2. Cash and carry wholesalers
  3. Regional wholesalers.
  4. Distribution.

ix. Which is not a characteristic of land as a factor of production?.

  1.  Gradability
  2.  Leasable
  3.  Has derived demand
  4.  Free gift from nature.

x. What is a fundamental nature of economic growth?

  1.  Gap filling
  2.  Status withdrawal
  3.  Creative innovation
  4.  High achievement

2. Match the following items.

LIST A

LIST B

  1.      Includes all expenses + delivery to buyers place.
  2.     Price of goods at exporters premises
  3.        Includes all expenses until cargo is discharged at port.
  4.       Warehouse located at entry points
  5.     Act as agents on behalf of importers.
  1. Laco
  2. C, I & F
  3. Bonded warchome
  4. Open warchome
  5.  Franco
  6.  Free trade area
  7. Landed price
  8. Custom broker
  9.    Stock brokers

 

SECTION B

3. (a) What is market mix

   (b) Describe the following market mix

  1.    Product
  2.    Promotion
  3.     Price

4. Explain the functions of the following organization in export trade

  1.      Marketing board
  2.     Board of internal trade

5. (a) Differentiate deflation and inflation

    (b) Explain factor that can cause inflation

    (c) Is inflation good? Explain.

6. Explain the functions of entrepreneurial activities.

7. Discuss five ways in which warehouse facilitate trade.

8. Explain the significance of the following ratios.

  1.       Average stock
  2.     Rate of stock turn over
  3.       Mark up
  4.       Margin
  5.     Order point

9. (a) Define production

    (b) Differentiate direct and indirect production

    (c) Outline characteristic of direct production.

10. (a) Describe the Aids to trade.

      (b) Outline importance of Commerce in our daily life. 

 

SECTION C

11. Use of mobile phones as means of communication is popular nowadays. Discuss the disadvantages of mobile phones.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 178

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATION AUG/SEPT- 2024

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS FORM THREE

TIME: 3HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with fourteen (11) questions.
  2. Answer ALL questions in section A and B and one (1) questions from section C
  3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B forty (70) marks and section C forty-five (15) marks
  4. Cellular phones and unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  5. Write your name on every page of your answer sheet(s)

SECTION A (15MARKS)

Answer all questions.

(i) What is the supreme law of Tanzania?

  1.  The Penal Code
  2.  The Constitution
  3.  The Bill of Rights
  4.  The President's decrees

(ii) Which of the following is NOT a type of constitution?

  1.  Written constitution
  2.  Unwritten constitution
  3.  Flexible constitution
  4.  Rigid constitution

 

(iii) Right to live in a clean and free from political life falls under

  1.  Economic right
  2.  Environmental right
  3.  Social right
  4.  Sanitation right

 

(iv) Which is non enshrined in constitution?

  1.  Freedom of association
  2.  Freedom of violent demonstration
  3.  Right of life
  4.  Freedom of religion.

 

(v) Which is not a requirement to apply for citizenship?

  1.  Must be a rich person
  2.  Must live in a country for five years
  3.  He/she must be 21 year old above
  4.  Must renounce his/her former citizenship

 

(vi)  The following are the functions of National Electoral Commission except?

  1.  To register voters.
  2.  To prepare equipment/facilities for voting
  3.  Supervision the whole process of election.
  4.  To ensure there is peace during elections.

 

(vii)  Which of the following is not the source of national income in Tanzania?

  1.  Development levy.
  2.  Income tax.
  3.  Profits from parastatals.
  4.  License fees.

(ix) Early marriage often results in:

  1.  Increased educational opportunities for girls
  2.  Improved health outcomes for mothers and children
  3.  Higher rates of school dropout among girls
  4.  Greater economic independence for women

(x) Which of the following is a way to empower women?

  1.  Restricting their access to education
  2.  Promoting harmful traditional practices
  3.  Providing them with skills training and economic opportunities
  4.  Encouraging early marriage

 

2. Matching items

LIST A

LIST B

  1.     Being confident
  2.    Communication
  3.       A dictatorial leadership
  4.      Democratic leadership.
  5.     A role of a leader.

 

  1.  Control over the subjects who have no say how to be ruled.
  2.  Every person gets a chance to express his/her opinions
  3.  He or she is a decision- maker
  4.  He or she is a leader of the family
  5.   Becoming self worth.
  6.   A factor of good leadership
  7.  Enables one to make choice.

 

 

 

SECTION B

3. (a) Define the term development and explain two levels of development

   

(b) Differentiate between social development and economic development.

4. Outline the advantages and disadvantages of a written constitution.

 

5. Identify the functions of the parliament

 

6. Write down importance of democratic election.

 

7. Explain five qualities of a good leader.

 

8. Discuss the responsibilities of a citizen.

 

9. Write short notes on the following

  1.      Freedom expression
  2.     Right to life
  3.      Right to work
  4.     Basic human right.

10. What are the negative effects of female genital mutilation (FGM)?

 

SECTION C

11. One of the most threatened African institutions is the marriage in current. In six points, demonstrate to the unmarried Tanzanian youths the positive impact of observing courtship.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 177

PRESENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY FORM THREE

MID-TERM EXAMS – AUG/SEPT – 2024

TIME: 2:30 HRS

INSTRUCTIONS 

SECTION A 

Answer all questions in this section

i. Which of the following groups consist of home Care products?

  1. Yeast, plastic and disinfectant.
  2. Clothes, soap and stone.
  3. Air freshener, detergent and antiseptic.
  4. Petrol, air freshener and paints.
  5. Air freshener, detergent and disinfectant

ii. An electric current of 0.2A was passed through an electrolyte for 16.67minutes. The quantity of electricity passed is;

  1. 200.04cuolombs
  2. 2000.004cuolombs
  3. 1000cuolombs
  4. 0.254cuolombs
  5. 0.00789culombs

iii. The copper (II) oxide reacts with hydrogen gas to form copper metal and water. What will be the mass of reduced element?

  1. 4g.
  2. 64g.
  3. 18g.
  4. 80g.
  5. 40g

iv. During the steam reforming method in industrial preparation of hydrogen, the steam reacts with what compound to produce hydrogen gas?

  1. Water.
  2. Carbon monoxide.
  3. Methane.
  4. Sulphur dioxide.
  5. Oxide

v. Domestic utensil made up of iron rust easily as a result of the presence of:-

  1. Air and fire
  2. Air and water 
  3. Water and Oil 
  4. Air and Oil 
  5. Water and oil.

vi. What is the correct meaning of ionization energy?

  1. Energy required to remove an electron from the inner most shell
  2. Energy required to remove electron from the outer most shell
  3. Energy required to add electron to the inner most shell
  4. Energy required to add electron to the outer most shell
  5. Energy required to attract electron towards the nucleus of an atom

vii. Which of the following pairs constitute the best methods for treating and purifying water?

  1. Chlorination and aeration 
  2. Chlorination and decantation 
  3. Chlorination and filtration
  4. Chlorination and sedimentation
  5. Chlorination and distillation

viii. An electric current was passed through a concentrated solution of hydrochloric acid using carbon electrodes. The substance liberated at anode was.

  1.  Copper
  2.  Hydrogen
  3.  Oxygen
  4.  Sodium
  5.  Chlorine

ix. If element Q of group (H) combines with element R of group (IV) what will be the formula of the resulting compound.

  1.     R2Q
  2.     QR6
  3.     R3Q
  4.    R3Q
  5.      Q2R

x. The process of giving away water of crystallization to the atmosphere by a chemical substance is called.

  1.     Efflorescence
  2.     Deliquescence
  3.     Hygroscope
  4.    Sublimation
  5.      E.Vaporization

 

2. Match the items in List A with responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the items number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Its nitrate decomposes to the metal, nitrogen dioxide and oxygen.
  2. Its chloride is used as a drying agent for most gases
  3. Has maximum valency of five
  4. The second abundant element in the earth’s crust
  5. Reacts with steam only at red heat to produce metal oxide and hydrogen gas.
  1. Argon
  2. Calcium
  3. Oxygen
  4. Silcon
  5. Zinc
  6. Phosphorus
  7. Silver

 

SECTION B

Answer all questions in this section

3. You are provided with the following fuels fire woods, natural gas, charcoal and kerosene.

  1. Giving three reasons, explain why natural gas is the best option among the fuels given above for domestic purpose.
  2. Giving four reasons, explain why fire wood and charcoal which are cheap and most available fuels are not recommended for domestic uses.

4. (a) Students are advised to use a non- luminous flame for heating in the laboratory

(i) Explain how a Bunsen burner produces a non- luminous flame

(ii) Give a reason as to why advice above given to students.

(iii) What are the functions of the air holes and barrel in the Bunsen burner?

(b)Why hydrogen peroxide preferred to potassium chlorate during preparation of oxygen gas?

(c) Why iron is not usually recommended in construction of steam pipes and boilers?

(d) What would happen to a well stoppered bottle full of water left in deep freezer over night? Why does this happen.

 

5. (a) Neutralization is applied in various useful situations with the aid of balanced chemical equation where necessary; describe any four usefulness of neutralization.

(b) 2.91 g of a monobasic acid, HX, were dissolved in water and made up to 250 cm3 with water. This solution was titrated with 0.108 M sodium hydroxide solution. 25 cm3 of the sodium hydroxide solution required 22.5 cm3 of the HX solution for complete neutralization. The equation for the reaction is.

HX (aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaX(aq) + H2O(l)

(a) Calculate the concentration in (i) g l-1 (ii) mol l-1 of the acid.

(b) Calculate the molar mass of HX.

6. (a) Janeth heated compound “W” in a test tube and observed that a brown gas was produced, residue X formed. Also when she inserted a glowing splint into the test tube rekindled.

  1. Which gas rekindled the glowing wooden splint in the test tube.
  2. Identify compound “W” and residue “X”
  3. Write down a chemical equation for the reaction that took place.
  1. Explain the observations that would be made when aqueous ammonia is added drop by drop until in excess on a solution W

 

7. (a)Sodium chloride (NaCI) and hydrogen Chloride (HCI) are both chloride Compounds.Differentiate the two compounds by giving three reasons. 

(b)(i)Differentiate empirical formula from molecular formula. cetain compound formed by Sulphur and Oxygen contains 40.1% sulphur by mass.Workout the empirical formula of this compound.

8. (a) 25cm3 of 0.1MHCl were neutralized by 23cm3 of Na2CO3 solution. Calculate the concentration of the alkali in grams per litre.

(b)Suggest a suitable indicator of each of the following titrations

  1. Hydrochloric acid against ammonia solution
  2. Sulphuric acid against sodium hydroxide solution
  3. Ethanedioic acid against potassium hydroxide solution

9. (a)What do you understand the term chemical equation?

(b)Write ionic equation for the following chemical reactions.

  1. Milk of magnesia is used to relieve indigestion
  2. A divalent metal displacing monovalent metal from its soluble nitrate

10. (a)Explain the meaning of each of the following terms.

  1. Reversible reaction.
  2. Dynamic equilibrium

(b)The industrial oxidation of Sulphur dioxide is summarized in the equation below.

2SO3(g) + O2(g) https://myfiles.space/user_files/30996_4958b541bbe404eb/1665473351_chemistry-southern-zone-2022/1665473351_chemistry-southern-zone-2022-3.png 2SO3(g) H=-94.9 Kjmol-1

What will be the effect of each of the following on the production of Sulphur trioxide?

  1. Increase in moles of Sulphur dioxide
  2. Increase in pressure
  3. Decrease of temperature
  4. Decrease of moles of Sulphur dioxide.

(c)Briefly explain how each of the following factors affects the rate of a chemical reaction.

  1. Temperature
  2. Pressure
  3. Concentration
  4. Catalyst
  5. Surface area

(d)Give one good reason for the following

  1. Fruits ripe faster during summer than during winter
  2. Steel wire get rust faster than iron nails.

SECTION C

11.

  1.      Explain stages of extraction of mild reactive metals
  2.     Why is the extraction of Iron a reduction process
  3.      Explain with equations extraction of iron in the blast furnace
  4.     What are environmental effects of metal extraction

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 176

PRESENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

COMPETENCY BASED EXAMS

BIOLOGY FORM THREE

MID-TERM EXAMS – AUGUST/SEPT – 2024

TIME: 2:30 HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions

2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two (2) questions from section C.

3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B carries fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.

4. All writings must be in blue or black ink except drawings which should be in pencil.

5. All communication devices, programmable calculators and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.

6. Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheet(s).

 

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

i. The immediate result of fertilization in a flowering plant is the formation of

  1.   zygote
  2.   seed
  3.   endosperm
  4.  Embryo

 

ii. Which of the following is not an excretory product in plants; 

  1.  Tannis
  2.  Carbondioxide
  3.  Urea
  4.  Calcium oxalate
  5.   Latex

 

iii. Joints are held together by;

  1.  Ligaments
  2.  Cartilage
  3.  Tendon
  4.  Muscles
  5.   Bones

 

iv. A rise in the body temperature of human body is corrected by

  1.  Constriction of the skin arteries and sweating
  2.  Constriction of the skin arteries and shivering
  3.  Dilation of the skin arteries and sweating
  4.  Dilation of the skin arteries and shivering

 

v. Which of the following statement gives the common cause of cretinism (feeble mindedness) 

  1.  Lack of balanced diet
  2.  Lack of coordination between the nerves and endocrine system
  3.  Poor functioning of the adrenal gland in childhood
  4.  Poor functioning of the thyroid gland in childhood

 

vi. Which of the following is not an advantage of angiosperms?

A. They are source of food

B. Some have medicinal values

C. Acts as wind breakers

D. Sources of timber.

 

 

vii. Guttation is the:

  1.  Loss of water vapor from leaves
  2.  Excretion of excess water droplets from leaves
  3.  Absorption of water by roots
  4.  Movement of water through xylem

viii. The first site of digestion of protein is in the,

  1.  Mouth
  2.  Oesophagus
  3.  Stomach
  4.  Small intestine

 

ix. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Euglena?

  1.  It has chloroplasts for photosynthesis.
  2.  It has a cell wall.
  3.  It has an eyespot for detecting light.
  4.  It can move using a flagellum.

 

x. Which of the following is not a feature of paramecium?

  1.  They are autotrophic
  2.  They use contractile vacuole to regulate water in their body
  3.  Can produce both sexually and asexually
  4.  Their body is covered with pellicle

 

 

 

 

 

2. Match the words on the left hand COLUMN A with the correct statement on the right hand COLUMN B.

 

COLUMN A.

COLUMN B.

  1.     Reflex arc
  2.   Tropism
  3.      Irritability
  4.   Stimulus
  5.   Reflex action
  6.      Taxis
  1.  A form of energy or chemical substance capable of being preserved by an organism
  2.  A neutral arrangement with sensory, intermediate and motor neurons
  3.  A directional growth movement of plant parts due to unequal growth resulting from unequal stimulation
  4.  An automatic nervous response mediated through receptor on to the effectors.
  5.   A directional movement of a whole organism in response to an external unilateral stimulus
  6.   Ability to respond to external stimuli.

SECTION B

3. Differentiate the following pairs of Biological terminologies

  1.   Spermatogenesis and Oogenesis
  2.  Still birth and breech birth
  3.   Ectopic pregnancy and abortion
  4.  Fertilization and implantation
  5.   Fraternal twins and identical twins

4. Describe the pathway of water movement from the soil to the leaves.

5 . (a) Give the name of:

     (b) The bacteria that cons nitrates into nitrites a ammonia.

     (c) A nitrifying bacterium that converts ammonia in nitrites.

     (d) A nitrifying bacterium converts nitrates into nitrites.

(b) State two ways through nitrogen is made available plant.

6. (a) distinguish between endoskeleton and exoskeleton?

b) What are advantages of having exoskeleton to an organism?

c) State two features of joints that makes them reduce friction.

7.  a) Write the overall equation for the process of photosynthesis

b) Differentiate between the light stage and dark stage of photosynthesis

c) Differentiate between macro-nutrient and micro-nutrients

8. Animal A with 36oC body temperature and animal B with 30oC body temperature were put into a refrigerator switched to 10oC at about 15 minutes. When temperature (s) of animal A and B were taken again (after 15 minutes) the temperature of animal A was averagely the same but the temperature of animal B was 10oC.

  1.   Give the biological terms used to describe animal A and B with respect to temperatures control
  2.  Briefly explain how mammals overcome overheating.

9. a) Briefly explain how fertilization takes place in conifers

   b) Outline the advantages and disadvantages of confers

10.a)  Give the distinctive features of protoctists

     b) Explain the economic importance of protoctist.

SECTION C

11. Explain the process of cell differentiation and its importance in multicellular organisms.

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 175

OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED ASSESMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY MID TERM EXAMINATION – AUG/SEPT 2024

FORM THREE                                                                                               TIME: 3 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS:

  1.    This paper consist of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions
  2.    Answer ALL questions in section A and B, and one (1) questions from section C
  3.    Section A carry 15 Marks, section B carry 70 Marks and section C carry 15 Marks
  4.    Write your Examination number or name on every page of your answer sheet(s).

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer ALL questions in this section

i. A research team discovers fossilized footprints showing upright bipedal movement alongside fossilized animal remains. These footprints are approximately 3.6 million years old. This discovery likely relates to which hominid species?

  1.   Homo erectus
  2.   Homo sapiens
  3.   Australopithecus afarensis
  4.  Homo habilis

ii. Trade developed in African societies mainly because_____

  1.   There was surplus production
  2.   There was good leadership
  3.   The presence of trade routes
  4.  There was a need for it.

 

iii. One characteristic of centralized system was 

  1.   Clan controlled by Comal of Elders.
  2.   Clan paid tribute to monarchy
  3.   Small in term of population and geographical distribution.
  4.  Political autonomous villages.

 

iv. When was Fort Jesus Built?

  1.   1872
  2.   1698
  3.   1499
  4.  1592

 

v. Which group of people had a King with Golden Stool?

  1.   Shona
  2.   Bushmen
  3.   Asante
  4.  Ndebele

 

vi.  A feudal system practiced by Tutsi and Hutu is Rwanda and Burundi

  1.   Nyarubanja
  2.   Umwinyi
  3.   Ubugabire
  4.  Ntemi.

 

vii. The following countries used indirect rule:

  1.   Nigeria and Kenya
  2.   Mali and Burkinafaso
  3.   Nigeria and Tanganyika
  4.  Uganda and Gambia.

 

viii. The founder of indirect rule system in Africa was;

  1.   Cecil Rhodes
  2.   Saint – Louis
  3.   Frederick Lugard
  4.  Samori Toure

 

ix.  Which was not a method of establishing colonial economy?

  1.   Preservation method
  2.   Creation method
  3.   Innovative method
  4.  Destructive method

 

x.  Which is not a reason why Samori Toure managed to fight French?

  1.   Was assisted by French
  2.   Used modern weapons 
  3.   He was rich
  4.  Had strong army.

 

2. Match the dates below with corresponding Events.

 

LIST A

LIST B

  1.       Samori Toure fight against French
  2.      Maji Maji Rebellion took place
  3.  Bunyoro resistance
  4.       Hehe resistance
  5.      Nyamwezi resistance
  6.  Nandi resistance
  1.   1891 – 1894
  2.   1889
  3.   1893
  4.  1899
  5.    1905 – 1907
  6.    1891 – 1898
  7.  1889 – 1890
  8.  1890
  9.      1891 – 1894
  10.     1896 -1897
  11.   1914 -1918

 

SECTION B

3. (a) Define the term colonial economy.

    

(b) What were objectives of colonial economy in Africa?

 

4. (a) Give meaning of the following

 

  1.        Direct Rule
  2.       Indirect Rule
  3.  Assimilation
  4.  Association.

 

(b) Explain why British used Indirect Rule in their colonies

5. Explain the characteristics of feudalism.

6. (a)What do you understand by economic interactions

(b)Explain the ways through which Africans interacted economically

7. Discuss the impact Of Dutch settlement at the Cape.

 

8. Explain the reasons for the expansion of slave trade in the Indian Ocean sea 

 

9. In short explain why some areas in Africa experienced intensive scramble more than others. Give four points.

10. Outline six impacts of early contacts in East Africa 

SECTION C

11. East Africa was affected by the coming of the Oman rulers in Zanzibar from 1840s. Discuss this statement by giving six points

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 174

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

TERMINAL EXAMINATIONS-MAY-2024

ENGLISH FORM THREE

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

  1.               This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
  2.               Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.               Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4.               All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  5.               Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

SECTION A-16 MARKS

  1.                      For each of the item (i-x) choose the most correct answer from the among given alternatives
  1.                   Jacob and Job are brothers. Jacob married Juliana while Job married Eliana. How will Juliana call Eliana?
  1. Sister – in – law
  2. Sister
  3. Wife
  4. Co-sister
  5. Step – sister
  1.                 Rigerere was washing utensils; suddenly, the glass slipped out of her fingers. How did she exclaim? 
  1. Ouch!
  2. Oops!
  3. Aha!
  4. Goodness!
  5. What!
  1.               If I were you I would be a teacher “The above condition is used to express”
  1. Imitation situation
  2. Habitual situation
  3. An opinion
  4. A life experiences
  5. A conditional situation       ]
  1.                “I am a soldier” he said. What did he say?
  1. He said that he were a soldier 
  2. He said that I am a soldier 
  3. He said that he was a soldier 
  4. He said that he is a soldier
  5. John said that he is a soldier       ]
  1.                 Choose the word which means the same as the word underlined here, we have chosen the area on which the building is to be created or built
  1. Sight 
  2. Site 
  3. Plot 
  4. Ground
  5. Place       ]
  1.               “Even though it was raining we continued playing” What does this statement mean?
  1. We stopped playing because of rain 
  2. The rain made us to stop playing
  3. The rain could not stop us from playing 
  4. We played despite much rain
  5. We could not afraid of rain       ]
  1.              I don’t know ……….. she will come.
  1. Weather
  2. Whether
  3. While
  4. Shall
  5. That
  1.           An animal that gives us wool is called …………
  1. Sheep
  2. A cat
  3. A cow
  4. A tiger
  5. A ship
  1.               Choose the correct sentence.
  1. Do you like a glass of water?
  2. Would you like a glass of water?
  3. Would you like the glass of water?
  4. Do you like the glass of water?
  5. Would you do like the glass of water?
  1.                  ………….. it help you in your studies?
  1. Will
  2. Was
  3. Is
  4. Are
  5. Were

2. Match the description of items in List A  with its appropriate response in List B  by writing its letter beside the corresponding item number in the answer sheet provided.

LISTA 

LIST B 

  1. This is the act of disagreeing in conversation or discussion using a reason or set of reasons often angrily.
  1. This is a conversation between two or more people in a book, play or film/movie.
  1. This is discussion that takes place between two groups of people on a given topic, usually called motion.
  1. This is formal meeting at which somebody is asked questions to see if they are suitable for a particular job, or for a course of study at a college, university, etc.
  1. This is the process of allowing each member an equal opportunity to express his/ her views and opinions on different matters, and arrives at a common understanding.
  1. A session of speaking, especially a long oral message given publicly by one person.
  1. Interview
  1. Debate
  1. Discussion
  1. Speech
  1. Argument
  1. Dialogue

 

SECTION B: 54 Marks.

Answer All Questions

  1. Complete the following sentences using the correct word given in the box.

Principle, Portuguese, Dairy, Principal, Epidemic, Portugal, Daily, Endemic

 

  1. Someone from Portugal is called a………………………….
  2. A disease confined to a particular district or place…………………..
  3. Someone who heads a college is…………………..
  4. A place where milk is converted into a butter and cheese………………………..
  5. A wide spread disease that affects many individuals in a population ………
  6. A rule or law of nature or the basic idea on how the laws of nature are applied……

 

4. For each of the items (i) – (vi), change the active voice into passive voice.

(i) They do homework every Monday.

(ii) My brother is drawing pictures.

(iii) Teachers have taught the students.

(iv) Boys cleaned that room yesterday.

(v) We say that she is a teacher.

(vi) Do you speak French?

 

5. Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given after each.

  1. Although it was raining, we went to the farm.

Begin: In spite of ……………………………………………………….

  1. Jonathan asked me “Are you traveling to Dodoma with your aunt?”

Begin: Jonathan asked me if ………………………………………….

  1. If we study hard, we will pass the exams.

Begin: Unless ………………………………………………………….

  1. She is too weak to lift the box.

Use: ………………….. enough to ……………………………………..

  1. No sooner had I arrived at the terminal than the bus left.

Begin: As soon as …………………………………………………………….

  1. Although he had poor health, he came to school.

Begin: Notwithstanding …………………………………………………….

 

6. When the actual words of the speaker are reproduced, it is called direct speech. Rewrite the following sentences into direct speech.

  1. She said that she was busy .
  2. They said they were going to school then.
  3. The laboratory technician said that water freezes at 00C.
  4. Renu said that she had finished her work.
  5. The president said that he wanted them to clear up that uncertainty if they didn’t, he would decide otherwise.
  6. The teacher said that the sun rises in the East.

 

7. What will be your positive views or opinions under the following circumstances?

i. If you notice that you don’t have enough money to pay the bill for a meal you have ordered.

ii. If you get lost on a walk in town.

iii. If gold was found in your father’s farm.

iv. If your wife or husband divorces you.

v. If your impregnated classmate girl is back to school after delivery

vi. If a boy with albinism robs your brand-new Smartphone when you walk in the street.

 

  1. Your family is planning to celebrate your graduation ceremony and you are told to prepare a card to invite different family friends. Write a card to invite the guest to your family celebration. Use fictitious names.

SECTION C: 30 MARKS

9. Imagine you are a Mtakuja village chairperson, where many of your villagers are suffering from HIV/A1DS. As a chairperson, write a speech on the causes and effects of HIV/AIDS. (Give three causes and three effects).

10. By using two poems you have read in this section, explain six poetic devices. (With examples give three poetic devices from each poem)

 

  1.         Read the following poem carefully and answer the questions that follow:-

SUNRISE

 

Be hold!

The sun has risen

And with the sons of the land has risen too

Forward they go

Well armed,

Singing the praises to the beauty of the sunrise

With the determination of long term worriers

Challenging the enemy

With the courage of free mind

And the vigour of clean purpose

Sit and wait brethren

Wait and see what glory they bring at sunset

How they pay homage to the land

And their people.

 

 

QUESTIONS

  1.                          What is the poem about?
  2.                         What is the meaning of the title of the poem?
  3.                          The poem talks about challenging the enemy. Whom do you think the enemy might be?
  4.                          What do you think SUNRISE and SUNSET symbolize?
  5.                         With the determination of “long term worriers” What do you think the words “long term” tell us about the poet’s view of struggle?
  6.                           What is the type of the poem?
  7.                          What are the possible themes of the poems? (Give out two themes)

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 173

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED EXAMS

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

FORM THREE TERMINAL EXAMINATION

031            PHYSICS 

TIME : 3HRS                                                                          AUG,2023

INSTRUCTIONS 

  1.                This paper consists of section A, B, and C with a total of  eleven (11) questions
  2.                Answer all questions in section A and B and any two (2) questions from section C
  3.                Show clearly  your work
  4.                Section A carries fifteen (15)marks, section B sixty (60) marks and section C carries twenty five (25) marks
  5.                All writing should be in blue or black pen except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  6.                Non-programmable calculator may be used
  7.                Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  8.                Write your examination  number on each page of your answer sheet(s)
  9.                 Where necessary, use the following constants

-                      Acceleration due to gravity(g) = 10m/s2

-                      Density of water = 1g/cm3 or 1000kg/m3

 

 

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1.  
  2. For items (i) –(x) Choose the most correct answer from the alternatives given
  1.      The same body is immersed in liquid A and then, in liquid B. The to which the body sinks in liquid B is less than in liquid A. What conclusion can be derived from such observation?
  1. The density of liquid A is more than the density of liquid B.
  2. The density of liquid B is more than the density of liquid B.
  3. The density of solid is less than that of the liquid in both cases
  4. The density of liquid A is the same as that of liquid B

 

  1.    A person measures the length, width, height and mass of a rectangular metal block. Which of these measurements must be used in order to calculate the density of the metal?
  1. Mass only
  2. Height and mass only
  3. Length, width and height only
  4. Length, width, height and mass
  5. Width, height and mass

 

  1.  What is the force acting on a book that is dropping in to the floor?
  1. Air resistance only
  2. Gravity and air resistance
  3. Gravity only
  4. Friction only
  5. Air resistance and friction.

 

  1.                                                                               The refractive index of a glass block cannot be evaluated from the following ratios;
  1.                                                                   Sin i to sin r
  2.                                                                   Velocity of light in air to the velocity of light in glass
  3.                                                                   Frequency of light in air to the frequency of light in glass
  4.                                                                  Real depth to apparent depth

 

  1.    Water in bath varies in depth from 20.0 cm at the shallow to 30.0 cm at the end of the plug as shown in the figure below

 

What is the pressure of water acting on the plug?

  1. 0.98 kPa
  2. 2.0 kPa
  3. 2.9 kPa
  4. 290 kPa
  5. 2.1 kPa

 

  1.  If you are caught outside during a severe thunderstorm, you should:
  1. Take shelter under the nearest tree
  2. Stand under power lines
  3. Move to higher ground
  4. Hide in a ditch
  5. Run to the nearest car

 

  1.       Action and reaction forces never cancel each other because;
  1. They are not equal in magnitude
  2. They are in the same direction
  3. They act on different direction
  4. They act on different objects
  5. None of the above

 

 

  1.     A force of 3.5 N acts horizontally on an object. Another force of 5 N acts on the same object at an angle of 45° to the horizontal. Which of the following is the resultant force?
  1. 8.2 N
  2. 8.5 N
  3. 6.1 N
  4. 7.9 N
  5. 7.7 N

 

  1.   Mawazo has worn a yellow t-shirt. He spills cyan coloured ink on it. What colour will the stain appear?
  1. Green
  2. Blue
  3. Yellow
  4. Cyan
  5. Red

 

  1.                                                                                 A concave mirror is often used as a shaving mirror, this is possible if the face is placed ;
  1.                                                                   Beyond center of curvature
  2.                                                                   Near the mirror
  3.                                                                   Between the principle focus and the pole
  4.                                                                  At the center of curvature

 

  1. Match the colours from List B which absorbed by the colour in List A by writing the letter of the correct response beside the corresponding item number in the answer booklet provided. (06 Marks)

List A

List B

  1.      Red colour
  2.    Blue colour
  3.  Green colour
  4.  Cyan colour
  5.    Magenta colour
  6.  Yellow colour
  1. Red
  2. Green and red
  3. Yellow and green
  4. Blue
  5. Yellow and red
  6. Yellow
  7. Green and blue
  8. Blue and red
  9. Green
  10. Cyan and magenta

 

 

 

i

ii

iii

iv

v

vi

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1. a) A nail is being pulled using a string from a wall .The string forms an  

    angle of 300 with the nail if the force being used is 10N  part of the force  

    will tend to bend the nail while other part will   try to pull it out 

 

 

  1.                     what magnitude of the force tends to bend the nail (03 marks)
  2.                   what magnitude of the force tends to pull the nail out ( 03marks)

b)   The velocity of car B relative to car A is 8m/s when the two cars are   

                 moving in the same  direction and 28m/s when the  two cars are moving   

                 in opposite directions Determine  the velocity of each car (03 marks)

 

  1. (a) An aluminium block of mass 2.1kg rests on steel platform  A horizontal 

    force of 15N is applied  to the block 

  1.                   given the limiting friction between the surfaces is 0.61 will the block move (03marks)
  2.                 if it moves, What will be its acceleration  coefficient of  kinetic friction is 0.47 (03 marks)

 

         (b)  Explain why most vehicles have their engines directly over the drive   

                 wheels (03 marks)

  1. (a) Briefly explain the rules used to locate images in curved mirrors.

                                                                                                   (04 marks)

(b) Draw rays diagram for concave mirror showing nature of the images   

     when the objects is at the following   positions 

  1.                   object at centre of curvature. (02.5marks)
  2.                 object beyond the centre of curvature. ( 02.5 mark)

 

  1. (a) Briefly explain why convex mirror is used as driving mirrors (03 marks)

(b) A concave mirror with radius of curvature 30cm produces an inverted   

     image 4 times the size  of an object  placed on its principal axis   

     Determine the position of the object and that of images   (06 marks)

 

  1. (a) State the factors that affect the stability of the body (02 marks)

(b) A uniform wooden plank with a mass of 75kg and length of 5m is placed  

    on top of a brick wall so that 1.5m of the plank extends beyond the walls  

    edge . how far beyond the edge of the wall can 100kg woman walk before   

    the plank begins to rotate. Let the planks axis of rotation be at the walls   

    edge (07 marks)

 

 

  1. (a) A block and tackle  system  consisting of a 5 pulleys used to raise a load 

    of 400N trough height of 10m if the work done against friction is 100J  

   .Calculate 

  1.                    the  work done by the effort (02.5marks)
  2.                   the efficiency of the system (02.5 marks)

           (b) Figure below shows a cross section of bicycle wheel. The wheel has a  

                 radius of 35cm while rear sprocket has radius of 3.5cm. Assume that the  

                   wheel drivers both sprocket and axle

 

                  if the axle has a radius of 1cm , determine 

  1.                     the velocity ratio of the sprocket and axle  (02marks)
  2.                   the velocity ratio of the wheel and axle (02 marks)

 

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

  1. (a) A trolley of mass 20kg loaded with a bag of maize of mass 100kg rests  

    on smooth horizontal track .IF two opposing forces of magnitude 55N and   

    90N are applied to the trolley as shown

 

 

  1.                     find acceleration of the trolley (04 marks)
  2.                   the distance travelled by trolley in 4 seconds (04 marks)

              (b) Show that the third equation of motion in straight line is given by 

                                                             (07 marks)

 

  1. (a) (i) Explain how geothermal energy is harvested (05 marks)

     (ii) Give two advantages and two disadvantages of geothermal energy    

           (04 marks)

            (b) (i) Give three advantages and three disadvantages of wind energy. 

                                                                                   (06 marks)

 

  1.  (a) A box is being pulled on the floor using a string, the string makes an 

      angle of 30with the box.

 

   if the force being applied at the string is 200N find 

  1.                   the force which tends to pull the box forward  (03 marks)
  2.                 the force which tends  to lift the box  (03 marks)

             b)  Two cables stays are used to support a pole as shown below 

 

if the tension in the cable AB and AD is 500N and 160N respectively. Determine magnitude and direction of the resultant of the forces exerted by the stays at A using parallelogram law. (09 marks)

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 172

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY-2024

CHEMISTRY FORM THREE

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

  1.                     This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
  2.                     Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.                     Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4.                     All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  5.                     Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6.                     Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s

SECTION A:  (16 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1.                     For each of the following items (i-x) choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write letter besides item number in the answer booklet provided.
  1.             Which of the following groups consist of home Care products?
  1.               Yeast, plastic and disinfectant.
  2.                Clothes, soap and stone.
  3.               Air freshener, detergent and antiseptic.
  4.               Petrol, air freshener and paints.
  5.                Air freshener, detergent and disinfectant
  1.           An electric current of 0.2A was passed through an electrolyte for 16.67minutes. The quantity of electricity passed is;
  1.               200.04cuolombs
  2.                2000.004cuolombs
  3.               1000cuolombs
  4.               0.254cuolombs
  5.                0.00789culombs
  1.         The copper (II) oxide reacts with hydrogen gas to form copper metal and water. What will be the mass of reduced element?
  1.               4g.
  2.                64g.
  3.               18g.
  4.               80g.
  5.                40g
  1.         During the steam reforming method in industrial preparation of hydrogen, the steam reacts with what compound to produce hydrogen gas?
  1.               Water.
  2.                Carbon monoxide.
  3.               Methane.
  4.               Sulphur dioxide.
  5.                Oxide
  1.           Oxygen gas can be produced at a large scale by
  1.               Condensation of air
  2.                Condensation of liquefied air
  3.               Liquefaction of steam
  4.               Fractional distillation of liquefied air
  5.                Evaporation of liquefied air
  1.         The basic causes of permanent hardness of water is:-
  1.               Ca(OH)2 
  2.                Ca(HCO3)2 
  3.               Mg(HCO3)2 
  4.               Na2SO4 
  5.                CaSO4
  1.       Which of the following is not the use of chromatography?
  1.               To analyze blood in crime scenes
  2.                To detect different fibres
  3.               To detect water pollution
  4.               To bleach dye or colour
  5.                To test purify of organic substance
  1.     1.4g of potassium hydroxide is dissolved in water to form 250cm3 of Solution.

What is the Molarity of this solution?

  1.               0.001M
  2.                0.1M
  3.               1.4M
  4.               5.6M
  5.                6.0M
  1.         An electric current was passed through a concentrated solution of hydrochloric acid using carbon electrodes. The substance liberated at anode was.
  1.               Copper
  2.                Hydrogen
  3.               Oxygen
  4.               Sodium
  5.                Chlorine
  1.           If element Q of group (H) combines with element R of group (IV) what will be the formula of the resulting compound.
  1.               R2Q
  2.                QR6
  3.               R3Q
  4.               R3Q
  5.                Q2R

2. Match the colour formed in LIST A with the corresponding metal burning in air in LIST B

LIST A

LIST B

  1.                Burns with a golden yellow flame
  2.                Bluish green flame
  3.                Melts easily but show no definite colour
  4.                Burns with yellow sparks flame
  5.                Burns with a brick red flame
  6.                Pale blue flame
  1.               Lead
  2.                Calcium
  3.               Zinc
  4.               Iron
  5.                Potassium
  6.                Magnesium
  7.               Copper
  8.               Sodium

 

SECTION B: 54 MARKS

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

3. (a) The table below shows two brands of bottled water for drinking and the concentration of different mineral ions in each brand. Study the table and answer the questions below it.

Composition in mg/Litre

Mineral

Na+

Ca2+

Mg2+

Cl?

NO3?

SO42-

Fe2+

F?

Uhai

40.0

3.05

4.15

14.18

0.48

10.0

0

1.76

Dasani

22.32

2.69

0.11

6.50

1.0

8.0

0

0.45

(i) Which brand of water is more hard? Explain.

(ii) State the benefit of having calcium ions in water;

(iii)Tap water is usually treated before being used. State what is added to perform that function.

(b) Hydrogen and phosphorus are non-metallic elements

(i) Which one between the two atoms is more electropositive?

(ii) Show your work clearly, write the chemical formula and the name of the compound formed when the two atoms combine.

 

4. (a) Define the following terms

(i) Mole

(ii) Molar mass

(b) 112 dm3 of oxygen gas was collected at S.T.P when a sample of lead nitrate was completely decomposed by heat. Calculate the volume of nitrogen dioxide produced.

 

5. One of the methods used for the preparation of oxygen is by the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide as shown in the reaction equation below

image2(g)

(a) (i) What is the purpose of MnO2 in the reaction?

(ii) What will happen to the rate of the reaction if MnO2 is not used in the above reaction?

(b) Briefly explain how the gas produced from the chemical reaction above is tested

 

6. Element R having atomic number 20 combines with element S having atomic number 17 to form a certain compound

a) Write the formula of the compound and state the type of bond formed in the compound

b) Give any three properties of the compound formed in 7(a) above

 

7. Mr Kalubandika wanted to know some chemistry pertaining concepts. Help Mr Kalubandika to answer the following conceptual questions.

a) In which other areas do we find the warning signs out of laboratory (give four point)

b) Explain how measurements of volume differ when using measuring cylinder and burette

c) It is recommend that laboratory apparatus should be properly washed or wiped after use, explain the significance for this when

i. Measuring volume of liquids

ii. Measuring mass of substance

 

8. (a) A gaseous compound consists of 86% Carbon and 14% Hydrogen by mass. At S.T.P, 3.2dm3 of the compound had mass of 6g.

(i) Calculate its molecular formula

(ii)Give the IUPAC name of the compound

(b) Most of the apparatus in the laboratory are made up of glass materials. Support this statement by giving ant two (2) reasons. (07 Marks)

9. (a) When an acid is reacted with base, it forms salt and water. Using your knowledge of chemistry, explain how will you apply this reaction in your daily life? Give any four points.

(b) Insoluble salts are the salt that does not dissolve in water. Name any three examples of salts that are insoluble in water. (07 Marks)

 

10. 5.3g of X2CO3 was dissolved in water to make 0.5 litre of a solution. 25cm³ 0f this solution required 50.0cm³ of 0.1M HCl for complete neutralization.

a) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction

b) Calculate the concentration of X2CO3 in mol/dm3

c) Calculate the relative molecular mass of X2CO3

d) Calculate the relative atomic mass of X

e) What is the name and symbol of element X

 

11. (a)What are the four (4) stages for extraction of moderate reactive metals is termed as reduction process. Explain why?

(b)Extraction of metals is termed as reduction process. Explain why?

(c)In certain areas iron can be extracted through blast furnace which involve different temperatures such as 1000°C, 750°C and 250°C in different stages.

  1.                      What is a chief ore in extraction of iron
  2.                      Write equations taking place in each of the named temperatures at what temperature reduction takes place
  3.                      At what temperature reduction takes place.
  4.                      What are the importance of coke, hot air and waste gases in the process above?

(d) What are the two (2) environmental effects caused by extraction of metals?

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 171

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

GEOGRAPHY FORM THREE.

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

  1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
  2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s

SECTON A (16 MARKS)

  1.            Choose the correct answer from among the alternative given.

i. The prediction of the state of the atmosphere can be done through both modern and traditional methods. Which among the following does not fit among the traditional methods used to predict weather.

  1. By looking at the position of the moon
  2. By hearing the voices of frogs
  3. By practicing female circumcision
  4. By hearing the voices of birds
  5. By experiencing the change of wind direction

ii. Form four students at Ngomanight secondary school were making the revision on the concept of land forms formed by vulcanicity. What do you think was the correct classification of volcanic landforms?

  1. Many parts according to Lava.
  2. Sills, dykes, valleys and earthquakes only
  3. Volcanic mountains and sills only
  4. Extrusive and intrusive features
  5. Batholiths, dykes and volcano only

v. Form two students at a certain school in Tanzania were taught that tourism can be done by observing minimum negative impact to the environment. Which type of tourism falls into this kind of practice?

  1. International tourism
  2. Domestic tourism
  3. Eco- tourism
  4. International tourism and domestic tourism
  5. Economic tourism

vi. During December holiday Caren and Kellyne decided to visit Azam company Limited in Dar es salaam where different products are made.They could see Mangoes being changes into juice and milk into Azam ice-cream. In what type of human activity does the Azam Company Limited activities falls?

  1. Primary human activities
  2. Tertiary human activities
  3. Quinary human activities
  4. Secondary human activities
  5. Quaternary human activities

(i) Which among the following layers of the atmosphere is characterized by 16 kilometers -thick at the equator and its temperature decreases with an increase in altitude?

  1. Troposphere 
  2. Thermosphere 
  3. Stratosphere
  4. Mesosphere 
  5. Exosphere 

(ii) Suppose you are living in urban center and you are interested in keeping livestock. What type of livestock keeping would be suitable for you?

  1. Nomadism 
  2. Ranching 
  3. Transhumance
  4. Pastoralism 
  5. Sedentary 

(v) Robert is living near the mountain within the time he noticed the bending of truck of trees and fences downward the slope. Identify the type of process occurred

  1. Land slide 
  2. Mudflow 
  3. Soil creep
  4. Rock fall 
  5. Soil erosion 

(vi) Kadege and Anna were debating on the section of a river characterized by a sharp V-shaped valley and interlocking spurs. As you are familiar with those phenomena, select the correct answer to educate them.

  1. The old stage 
  2. The middle stage 
  3. The youth stage
  4. The mature stage 
  5. The young and middle stage 

(iii) Manchester United team scored a goal at 5:00 pm in England (150 W). At what at Dar es Salaam (450E) the goal was scored?

  1. 1:00 pm
  2. 7:00 pm
  3. 9:45 pm
  4. 9:00 pm
  5. 6:30 am

(iv) Recently in Chile, the land with vegetation was sliding down a slope and people were busy taking photographs and wondering to the situation. Tell them what type of geological process was taking place

  1. Erosion and deposition
  2. Denudation and transportation
  3. Land slide and erosion
  4. Mass wasting and transportation
  5. Landslide and deposition

2. Match the description of desert land forms in list A with the corresponding names in list B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet(s)

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Rock formed when magma solidifies deep in the crust and can be exposed on the Earth’s surface by agents of soil erosion
  2. Rock formed when molten magma cools and solidifies inside the rocks of the Earth or the surface of the Earth
  3. Rocks formed as a result of deposition and compaction of remains of dead plants and animals
  4. Rock formed when different types of rocks are subjected to great heat and pressure.
  5. Rocks formed when sediments are deposited either by wind,water or ice.
  6. An example of rock formed when plants, shells and bones are compressed under pressure.
  1. Crystalline rocks
  2. Igneous rocks
  3. Coal
  4. Organic sedimentary rocks
  5. Intrusive volcano rocks
  6. Extrusive volcanic rocks
  7. Metamorphic rocks
  8. Gypsum
  9. Sedimentary rocks

 

 

SECTION B: 54 MARKS

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

3.(a) Differentiate between longitudes and latitudes

(b) Give the importance of longitudes and latitudes

4. Describe the following features found on the ocean floor

  1.       Continental shelf
  2.      Continental islands
  3.       Corals islands
  4.      Ocean trench
  5.       Abyssal hill

5. (a) Explain the relationship between weather and climate

(b) Explain four impacts of climate change on human activities

6. (a) Explain the formation of orographic rainfall

(b) List five factors affecting the climate of a place

7. (a) State and explain three types of rocks according to their mode of formation

(b) Briefly explain economic importance of rocks

8.(a) Using a diagram explain the following features;

  1. Ash and cider cones
  2. Shield volcano
  3. Acid lava cone

(b) Explain four importance of volcanic activities

SECTION B: 30 MARKS

Answer any two questions.

9.(a) Define mass wasting

(b) Explain the factors that affect the speed and nature of mass wasting.

10. Discuss the benefits of Rufiji Basin water Board

11. Describe four positive and four negative impacts of tourism in the world.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 170

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

TERMINAL EXAMINATION MAY-2024

HISTORY FORM THREE.

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

  1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
  2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s

SECTION A: 16 MARKS

  1.                                For each of the question (i)-(x) choose the correct answer from alternatives given and write the letter of the correct answer in answer sheet provided.
  1. Which of the following is not true about the feudal relations of production.
  1. Ubwenyenye
  2. Nyarubanja
  3. Ubugabire
  4. Umwinyi
  5. Obusulu
  1. The Hehe resistance in Tanganyika was the African active reaction against.
  1. Italy invasion
  2. Portuguese invasion
  3. French domination
  4. British invasion
  5. German colonial occupation
  1. Most of Europeans referred Africa as “The Dark continent” because: -
  1. It was geographically isolated from Europe and Europeans knew a little about the people.
  2. It was mostly occupied by black colored inhabitants
  3. It had no civilization and had contributed none to the outsiders.
  4. Its people are cursed sons of Ham.
  5. Some parts of it were under Romans
  1. The missionary who came to East Africa and opened the first missionary centre at Rabai in 1846 was;
  1. Dr. David Livingstone
  2. John Speke
  3. Richard Burton
  4. John Ludwing Krapf
  5. Carl Peters
  1. The source of which is used to reconstruct history which is both material and immaterial is known as: -
  1. Anthropology
  2. Linguistic
  3. Oral traditions.
  4. Ethnographic sources
  5. Archaeology
  1. One of the famous salt–mining places for Trans –Saharan trades was;
  1. Janne
  2. Gao
  3. Taghaza
  4. Timbuktu
  5. Southern
  1. James wants to learn and understand the culture, beliefs and ideologies of the Maasai. For him to understand all those he should live among them. Who is James?
  1. Historian
  2. Anthropologist
  3.  Archaeologist
  4. Archivist
  5. Linguistic
  1. History students at Kill secondary school were discussing "the period which marked the intensive competition and war fare among the European nations for profit maximization" This discussion can be summarized in one term as.
  1. Mercantilism
  2. Industrial capitalism
  3. Bullionism
  4. Colonialism
  5. Monopoly capitalism
  1. What did emergency of Maumau in Kenya indicate
  1. The settlers were in full control of the country
  2. Kenyans were prepared to sacrifice their lives for liberation of their land
  3. Jomo Kenyatta was the likely person to lead independent in Kenya
  4. There was disunity among the Africans in their opposition to British rule
  5. The direct rule system as applied in Kenya did not function
  1. Which of the following is the best description of Homohabilis
  1. The early man
  2. The modern man
  3. The current man
  4. The erect man
  5. Man the tool maker

2. Match the items in List A with the correct response in List B by riling the letter of the corresponding responses in the answer sheet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) He ordered in the final solution that the Jewish population should be eliminated

(ii) He chaired the idea of forming a stronger African organization in the 1990's

(iii) He formulated 14 points of League of Nations

(iv) He stated that man developed from an ape like creature

(v) The French representative in the Versailles Peace treaty of 1919.

(vi)The colonial administrator of Dutch East Indian Company

  1. David Livingstone
  2. Otto Von Bismark
  3. Muamar Gaddafi
  4. Benito Mussolin
  5. Louis Leakey
  6. Adolf Hitler
  7. Charles Darwin
  8. Woodrow Wilson
  9. Jan Van Riebeek
  10. George Clemeceau

 

SECTION B: 70 Marks-

Answer all questions

3. Briefly answer the following questions,

  1. Why British preferred indirect rule in most of African colonies?
  2. How the discover of iron changed the development of human during the pre ­colonial epoch?
  3. Flow would you prove that colonial education was the seeds which destroyed colonialism in Africa?
  4. ro what extent did the unfair terms of the Versailles Peace Treaty of 1919 contribute to the outbreak of the Second World War?
  5. Why did Portugal stop to search for the sea route to India?
  6. Why did the colonial infrastructures run perpendicular to the coast?

4.

Arrange the following events in a chronological order by writing number 1 to 6 besides the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided

  1. The 1964 Zanzibar Revolution was the second attempt made to bring about real political independence
  2. It was soon followed by Union between Tanganyika and Zanzibar forming the United Republic of Tanzania
  3. In DeceMber 1963 the British handed down political power to Arab Minority
  4. The event was an important step towards the achievement of East African Unity.
  5. The revolution was intended to transfer power to majority
  6. The colonial government supported Arabs so as to ensure the continuation of safeguarding their interest during post-independence

 

5. Draw a sketch map of Africa and locate the following by using roman numbers.

(i) The country in which socialism and self reliance was introduced and became official in 1967.

(ii) A country which presented a document of socialist ideology on October 8th in 1969 termed the “Common Man’s Charter”.

(iii) A country in which humanism socialist ideology was introduced by the President Kenneth Kaunda after independence.

(iv) A country in which the Biafra war took place in 1967-1970 due to the ethnicity, cultural and religious tensions.

(v) A country in which civil war began in 1975 and continued until 2002; when Jonas Savimbi died.

 

6. With six points assess the tactics used during the abolition of slave trade.

7. “Colonial social services consolidated colonialism in Africa”. Justify this statement by giving six points.

8. Discuss the impact of Dutch settlements at the cape from 1652-1796. (Six points).

9. The scramble for and for and partition of Africa was inevitable in 19 Century .Discuss by using six Points.

10. Pre-colonial African societies developed both local and regional trade. Evaluate using six points on the effects of regional trade in East Africa.

11. Examine the reasons for African Defeat during the Maji Maji rebellion

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 169

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

TERMINAL EXAMINATIONS

 BIOLOGY FORM THREE

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

  1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
  2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s)

 

SECTION A.

  1.         For each of the following items  (i-x).Choose the correct answer from given alternatives and writer its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet
  1. A patient arrives at the emergency room with severe blood loss. Which of the following actions is MOST important based on an understanding of blood circulation?
  1. Measure the patient's blood pressure.
  2. Admit the patient to a regular hospital room.
  3. Give the patient pain medication.
  4. Schedule the patient for an MRI scan.
  1. Unlike animals, plants transport materials throughout their bodies without a circulatory system. Which of the following processes is MOST important for transport in plants?
  1. Diffusion
  2. Active transport.
  3. Ingestion
  4. Muscular contraction
  1. Even though plants lack a nervous system, they can still respond to stimuli in their environment. Which of the following is an example of a plant's response to a stimulus?
  1. A flowering  blooming at dawn.
  2. A plant secreting a sticky substance to trap insects.
  3. A plant growing taller towards sunlight.
  4. A vine plant twining around a support structure.
  1. Animals rely on both the nervous system and hormones for coordination. Which of the following statements accurately compares their roles?
  1. The nervous system provides slow, long-term responses, while hormones provide fast, short-term responses.
  2. The nervous system coordinates conscious actions, while hormones regulate unconscious actions.
  3. The nervous system transmits signals through the bloodstream, while hormones act directly on target organs.
  4. The nervous system only functions in complex animals, while hormones are present in all animals.
  1. The kidneys are vital organs in the excretory system. Why is understanding excretion important for maintaining overall health?
  1. Excretion removes excess water from the body.
  2. Excretion helps regulate body temperature.
  3. Excretion eliminates waste products that can be harmful if allowed to accumulate.
  4. Excretion aids in the digestion of food.
  1. Maintaining a stable internal environment is crucial for an animal's survival. What is the term for this concept?
  1. Homeostasis 
  2. Adaptation
  3. Respiration
  4. Metabolism
  1. A scientist is examining a cell under a microscope and observes various structures within it. How can identifying these structures help them understand the cell's function?
  1. Different organelles have specific shapes unrelated to their function.
  2. The number of organelles within a cell is unrelated to its function.
  3. The structure of each organelle provides clues about its role within the cell.
  4. All organelles look similar under a microscope.
  1. During a field trip, students encounter an unfamiliar organism. Classifying this organism within Kingdom Plantae would be beneficial because it would likely tell them:
  1. The organism's reproductive method.
  2. The organism's specific diet.
  3. The organism's exact geographical location.
  4. The organism's potential danger to humans.
  1. The circulatory system and the excretory system work together to maintain a healthy balance in the body. How do these systems interact?
  1. The circulatory system transports blood waste to the excretory system for removal.
  2. The excretory system provides water for the circulatory system to function.
  3. The circulatory system regulates the excretory system's activity.
  4. The excretory system filters blood components within the circulatory system.
  1. Plant cells have unique structures like a cell wall and a central vacuole. How do these structures facilitate the transport of water and nutrients throughout the plant?
  1. The cell wall provides a rigid barrier that hinders transport.
  2. The central vacuole stores water, making it unavailable for transport.
  3. The cell wall allows for selective movement of water and nutrients, while the central vacuole stores excess water.
  4. The cell wall and central vacuole limit the movement of water and nutrients within the plant.

 

2. Match the items in LIST A with the responses in LIST B by writing the letter of the corresponding responses beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Iris
  2. Cones
  3. Lens
  4. Optic nerves
  5. Rods
  6. Ciliary muscles
  1. Regulates amount of sun light entering the eye.
  2. Creates an image upright
  3. Sensitive to dim light
  4. A point made up of non- living matter
  5. Regulate the size of lens
  6. Group of cell that are sensitive to bright light
  7. Receptor cell that are sent information to the brain
  8. Regulates the shape of the eyeball

 

 

SECTION B: 70 MARKS

Answer All Question

 

 

3. Kipendawatoto and his family during the holiday he visited Mikumi national park and on moving around the park, the following organisms were observed; Zebra, giraffe, lion, grasses, mushroom, hyena and antelope.

(a) Construct two (2) food chain from the organisms observed in the national park

(b) Construct a simple food web.

(c) Identify organism(s) which are

  1. Producer (s)
  2. Secondary consumer(s)
  3. Decomposer

4. (a) Explain why

(i) The rate of breathing increase quickly during exercise?

(ii) Is better to breathe through nose than through the mouse

(b) How are respiratory surfaces adapted to their role? (Give 5 points)

 

 

5. (a)A trauma patient has lost a significant amount of blood. How would understanding blood circulation help in treating this patient?

(b) Briefly explain how you can help a victim of snake

6.(a)Plants lack a circulatory system. Explain how plants transport water and nutrients obtained from the soil to all their parts.

(b). A flower was found to have conspicuous petals, scented and firmly held stigma and anthers.

(i). What is likely agent of pollination of the flower?

(ii). What is the significance of firmly held stigma in the flower?

7. (a)Although plants lack a nervous system, they can still respond to stimuli. Give an example of a plant's response to a stimulus and explain the mechanism behind it.

(b) State the adaptations of the leaf to photosynthesis

8. A bread was put in a wet cupboard. After few days black thread like structures which ended up in a club like structures appeared in the bread.

a)   Write the common name of the organism that grew on the bread surface

b)   Name the Kingdom and phylum in which the observed organism belongs

c)   Outline four (4) advantages of the members of the Kingdom you mentioned in (b) above

 

9. (a)Compare and contrast the role of the nervous system and hormones in coordinating animal responses.

(b) Explain three processes that are involve in urine formation

10. The circulatory system and the excretory system work together to maintain a healthy balance in the body. Explain how these two systems interact to achieve this balance.

11. Explain how the structure of plant cells, specifically the presence of a cell wall and central vacuole, facilitates the transport of water and nutrients throughout the plant.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 168

JAMUHURI YA MUUNGANO WA TANZANIA

OFISI YA RAISI, TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SEREKALI ZA MITAA

MTIHANI WA KISWAHILI KIDATO CHA TATU.

MAELELKEZO

  1.         Mtihani huu una sehemu A,B, na C .
  2.         Jibu maswali yote kutoka A, B na Maswali 2 kutoka C.

 

SEHEMU A.

  1.         Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika vipengele i-x andika herufi ya jibu sahihi katika jedwali.
  1.             Huyu ni mwanafunzi hodari sana. Je neno ni ni aina gani ya neno?
  1.         Kitenzi kishirikishi
  2.          Kiunganishi
  3.         Kitenzi kisaidizi
  4.         Kielezi cha wakati
  1.           Njia ipi ya uhifadhi wa fasihi simulizi inayoweza kupokea mabadiliko kwa haraka kati ya hizi?
  1.         Maandishi
  2.          Vinasa sauti
  3.         Kichwa
  4.         Kanda za video
  1.         Tofauti ndogondogo zinazojitokeza katika lugha moja huitwa....
  1.         Kimtang’ata
  2.          Lugha za kikanda
  3.         Lahaja
  4.         Kiimbo
  1.         Wazo kuu la mtunzi katka faihi huitwa
  1.         Ujumbe
  2.          Dhamira
  3.         Falsafa
  4.         Mtazamo
  1.           .... ni maneneno yasiyo sanifu yanayozuka na kutoweka
  1.         Misimu
  2.          Rejesta
  3.         Misamiati
  4.         Kishazi tegemezi
  1.         Kisawe cha neno masikini ni ...
  1.         Ukwasi
  2.          Ubahili
  3.         Ijima
  4.         Ukata
  1.       Neno pamoja na taarifa zake kwenye kamusi huitwa
  1.         Kidahizo
  2.          Kitomeo
  3.         Msamiati
  4.         Muundo
  1.     Utofauti wa kazi za kifasihi toka muandishi mmoja dhidi ya mwingine husababishwa na
  1.         Mtindo wa kazi
  2.          Dhamira za kazi ya fasihi
  3.         Migogoro ya kazi husika
  4.         Muundo wa kazi ya fasihi
  1.         Moj a ya sifa kuu ya kirai ni:
  1.         Kukaa sehemu yoyote katika sentensi
  2.          Hakina muundo wa kiima na kiarifu
  3.         Hutoa maana kamili
  4.         Huwa na muundo wa kiima na kiarifu
  1.           Neno lipi kati ya maneno haya linaweza kudikeza mtenda au mtendwa wa jambo?
  1.         Kiunganishi
  2.          Kihisishi
  3.         Kuelezi
  4.         kivumishi
  1.         oanisha dhana katika Orodha A Kuchagua herufi ya dhana husika kutoka Orodha B, kisha andika jibu katika jedwali.

ORODHA A

ORODHA B 

(i)     Neno pamoja na taarifa zake zote zilizo ndani ya kamusi  

  1. Utata
  2. Rejesta
  3. Simo
  4. Mofimu
  5. Kitomeo
  6. Kiimbo
  7. Kidahizo
  8. Kiima
  9. mkazo

(ii)   Hali ya neno au senensi kuwa na maana zaidi ya moja

(iii) Ni maneno yasiyo sanifu yaliyoanzishwa na kikundi cha watu wenye utamaduni mmoja 

(iv) Ni neno linaloingizwa katika kamusi ili lifafsanuliwe

(v)   Ni matumizi ya lugha kulingana na muktadha maalumu

(vi) Ni sehemu ya sentensi inayokaliwa na mtenda au mtendwa wa jambo

SEHEMU B

  1.         a) Dhana ya uainishaji wa ngeli za nomino kwa kigezi cha kisintaksia ina umuhimu wa ke katika lugha ya kiswahili. Ta hoja nne zinazoonesha umuhimu huu katika lugha ya kiswahili

b) Taja ngeli husika kutokana na sifa zifuatazo:

  1.      maneno yanayotokana na kunominishwa kwa vitenzi
  2.    nomino ambazo zina kiambishi awali “u” katika Umoja na “ma” katika wingi
  3.  majina ya baadhi ya vitu vinavyopatikana katika jozi na baadhi ya majina ya miti
  4.  majina ambayo hayabadiliki umbo katika Umoja ma wingi
  5.    ngeli inayotaja mahali au sehemu
  1.         Changanua sentensi zifuatazo kwa njia ya jedwali
  1.      yule alikataa mawazo yetu kabisa
  2.    nguo zilizofuliwa zimekauka vizuri
  3.  wanafunzi wa kidato cha kwanza wanachexza mpira wakati wengine wanaimba nyimbo.

 

  1.         Kipindi cha hivi karibuni tumekua tukishuhudia manenom mapya ya kiswahili yakizungumzwa na baadhi ya watanzania kama vile ughaighai, unyama mwingi n.k. wewe kama mwanafunzi wa kidato cha tatu eleza njia zinazotumika kuunda maneno jayo yanayonguka katika jamii.
  2.         Orodhesha misamiati miwili ambayo unadhani imeingia katika ludha ya kiswahili kutokana na :
  1.      Mabadiliko ya sanyansi na teknolojia
  2.    Mabadiliko ya kiuchumi
  3.  Muingiliano wa kiutamaduni
  4.  Mabadiliko ya kisiasa
  5.    Mabadiliko ya tabia ya nchi
  1.         “ Hahuna mgeni aliyekuwa na nia ya kukuza lugha ya kiswahili hapa nchini.” Kwa kutumia mifano tumia kiswahili kuthibitisha usemi huu kwa kutoa hoja tano. Kupitia utawala wa Mjerumani.
  2.         Ezeza maana ya istilahi zifuatazo
  1.             Sarufi
  2.             Kitomeo
  3.             Lugha
  4.             Kielezi

 

SEHEMU C

Jibu maswali mawili kutika sehemu hii

  1.         Lugha ya kiswahili ni lugha iliyokuuwepo kabla ya kuja kwa mwarabu. Kwa kutumi mifano eleza shughuli tano zilizofanywa naozikachangia kukuza na kueneza kiswahili.
  2.    Kiswahili ni kibantu kwa asili yake. Fafanua kwa kutumia ushahidi wa kimsamiatu na kimuundo.
  3.    Methali zinafunza na zinaweza kupotosha jamii zisipotumika kwa ukamilifu. Kwa kutumia methali nne, eleza namna kila moja inaweza kupotosha jamii.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 167

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

MID TERM ONE – MARCH-2024

MATHEMATICS FORM THREE

Time: 3Hours

Instructions

  1.            This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.

2.   Answer all questions in sections A and B

3.   Each question in section A carries six (6) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.

4.   All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly.

5.   NECTA Mathematical tables and non-programmable calculator may be used.

6.   All communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

7.   Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheet(s).

SECTION A(40 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section. 

  1.         (a) solve the value of x if x+3 -1  =1

(b) If log 2 =0.0310, without mathematical time table find value of Log 5

  1.         If a = 0.25 and b= 0.5. find the fraction  in its simplest form

(b) Round off (1) 0.002098 to two significant figures 

  1.      7.67 to the nearest whole number
  2.   2.77 to one decimal place
  1.         (a) how many grams are there in 0.00912 tones

(b) the compression of 1 spring is directly proportional to the thrust T. Exerted on it . if the thrust of 4N produces a compression of 0.8, find 

  1.      The compression when the thrust is 5N
  2.   The thrust when the compression is 0.5 cm
  1.         The product of three terms of geometric progression (GP) is 8000. If the first term is 4 , find the second term and third term.

(b)Mahona invested a certain amount of money in serving bank whose interest was 10% compounded annually. After 32 years he got 5000 shillings.

  1.      How much did he invest at the start
  2.   How much did he receive as interest at the end of two years
  1.         (a) Given that log 34 = 1.262 and log 35 =1.1465. find log 30.8

 

(b) the dimension of first rectangular are length 23cm and width 16 cm. a second rectangle has length 12cm  and width 9cm with reasons state wether the two rectangles are similar.

  1.         (a) solve for x in 1≤3x-2<8

 

(b)  By using completing square method, solve equation.

=4

  1.         (a) find the value of Y given that 125y+1+53y=630

(b) find the value of x given that 2log x= log 4+log (2x-3)

  1.         (a) Given three points A (3,3) B (-3,1) C (-1,-1) and D (1,-7)
  1.      Show that the line through A,B, And CD are perpendicular to each other
  2.   Find equation of the line through point (-4,5) which is parrralel to BC
  1.         (a) The fifth and the eleventh term of an arithmetic progression are 8 and -34 respectively. Find the sum of the first ten terms

 

(b)  Prove that the interior angle of a cyclic quadrilateral is equal to the opposite interior angle 

  1.     (a) Mayele bought 3 bottles of juice of capacity 350ml and Dialo bought 1 bottle of juice of capacity 1 Litre
  1.      Who had more juice to drink
  2.   Bu how much more?

(b) Simplify the sum of 85% of 9861 and 3/5 of 12458. Write your answer to two significant figures.

 

SECTION B. 40 MARKS

  1.     (a) in a certain research the data were summarized as shown on the table below

Class mark

10

15

20

25

30

35

frequency

3

2

10

5

4

1

 By using the data above reconstruct a frequency distribution table including class interval and frequency 

(b) Prove that equal chords of a circle subtends equal angles at the centre

  1.     (a) solve  for the quadratic equation x2-8x+7=0

(b) Solve for x and y if  

  1.     (a) (i) without using table . Draw the graph of

F(x)=x2+2y-4

    (ii) State domain and range of f(x)

 

(b) A field is 10M longer than its width. The area is 7200m. Find its width

  1.     (a) The product of a three terms of geometric progression G.P is 8000. If the first term is 4.  Find the second term and third term

(b) Amina invested a certain amount of money in a serving bank whose interest rate was 10% compounded annually. After two years she got 5000. 

  1.      How much did she invest at the start
  2.   How much did she receive as interest at the end of two years?

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 166

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

MID TERM ONE – MARCH-2024

ENGLISH FORM THREE

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

  1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
  2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

SECTION A

  1.             For each of the item (i-x) choose the most correct answer from the among given alternatives
  1.   In which tense is the following sentence? “Mr and Mrs Robert have two sons and two daughters”
  1. Present perfect tense
  2. Simple tense
  3. Past perfect
  4. Present perfect continous
  1.  Which of the following sentences indicate an ongoing activity?
  1. Furaha will travel to Kigoma
  2. Juma has left to Arusha
  3. John is laying on the floor
  4. Pendo cooks our meal everyday
  1.                     Iam so tired ............your behavior
  1. Of
  2. With
  3. On
  4. By
  1.                     They were charged ...............receiving stolen goods
  1. By
  2. Of
  3. With
  4. For
  1.     “the mmeting was put off by the headmaster” this sentence is similar in meaning to the sentence :
  1. The headmaster can call the meeting
  2. The headmaster closed the meeting
  3. The headmaster stopped the meeting
  4. The headmaster postponed the meeting
  1.  The following are components of friendly letter except
  1. Location
  2. Writers address
  3. Date
  4. Salutation
  1.             which of the following sentence is grammatically correct
  1. did you went to school yesterday
  2. they have to inform their parents today
  3. we must to speak English frequently
  4. does he goes to school everyday
  1.           Anna told he mother “ I like reading strory books” if happened that her mother lijes the same activity, how would Anna’s mother reply to Anna?
  1. so do I
  2. And me also
  3. So do me
  4. And me too I like
  1.  No one come to school on time
  1. Did they
  2. Do they
  3. Did he
  4. Didn’t he
  1.     They passed their test easily . The underlined adverb is
  1. Adverb of manner
  2. Adverb of frequency
  3. Adverb of degree
  4. Adverb of time
  1.          Match the words in colun A with the corresponding answer in column B

COLUMN A

COLUMN B

(i)     ..... to accept an invitation to a meeting

  1. To decide that a meeting will not take place

(ii)   To move a meeting

  1. To say that you will go to a meeting

(iii) .... to bring a meeting forward

  1. To say that a meeting will take place

(iv) ....to postpone a meeting

  1. To have a meeting at an earlier time/ date

(v)    ..... to confirm a meeting

  1. To have a meeting at a later time/ date

(vi) ...... to cancel a meeting

  1. To change  the time or date of a meeting

 

(i)      

(ii)    

(iii)  

(iv)  

(v)     

(vi)  

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

SECTION B

  1.          We sometimes find ourselves in a situation which we need to make decisions and act out or responding to them accordingly. Study the following scenario and respond to them accordingly
  1. Your friend seems to be unhappy. What should you do?
  2. You feel as if one of your friend is angry with you, but you don’t know why. What would you do
  3. Your sister broke her leg and she is in great pain. What would you say to her?
  4. Your mother is angry because you forgot to do house hold chores. apologize to her
  1.          Provide a question tag to  each of the following statements
  1. Friends depend on each other for advice
  2. We are depending on connections with others for our happiness
  3. Teenagers are entering a period in life when many issues begin to emerge
  4. The next step towards help other is to listen
  1.          Choose the correct word of expression from the brackets to complete the following thoughts
  1. The panelist asked me to talk about myself.....(so that, though) they could know me
  2. The panel leaders question were very hard to understand so .....(most, often, all, the) other interview panelist had to clarify them to me
  3. She has been ill .......last week. (since , for)
  4. He has been out of the country ...... many years ago. (for, since )
  5. He is very poor. He can’t pay school fees. (join use too.... to)
  1.          What would happen :-
  1. If children were allowed to vote
  2. If scientist discover HIV medicines
  3. If you noticed that you did not have enough money to pay bill for a meal you ordered
  4. If all schools were boarding schools
  1.          Imagine you witnessed a football match between Tanzania and Uganda. Use the following words to construct a sentence to explain what you saw
  1. Kicked off
  2. Goal keeper
  3. Referee
  4. Scored
  5. Coach
  1.          Construct a correct sentence for each of the following scenarios
  1. A habit/ repeated action in the past
  2. An action interrupted by another action in the past
  3. An action completed before another action in the past
  4. Two actions place one after another in the past
  5. An action going on in moment of speaking

 

SECTION C 

  1.          Assume you participated in a debate session with the motion which state that “Abusing rights for children is the best of discipline them” argue with the motion by not less than six points.
  2.      Imagine you have just seen an advertisement that Tanga Cement Company needs workers who has a form three level of Education. Write a letter to the manager and apply for the position. Use name and Address of your choice

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 165

JAMHURI YA MUNGANO WA TANZANIA

BARAZA LA MITIHANI LA TANZANIA

MTIHANI WA UPIMAJI – KISWAHILI

KIDATO CHA TATU- MARCHI 2024

Muda : Saa 3

Maelekezo 

  1.         Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na moja (11).
  2.         Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A na B, na maswali mawili (2) ktutoka sehemu C ambapo swali la tisa (9) ni la lazima.
  3.         Sehemu A ina alama kumi na sita (16), sehemu B alama hamsini na nne (54) na sehemu C ina alama thelathini (30)
  4.         Zingatia maelekezo ya kila sehemu na ya kila swali.
  5.         Vifaa vya mawasiliano na vitu visivyoruhusiwa havitakiwi katika chumba cha mtihani.
  6.         Andika namba ya yako ya mtihani katika kila ukurasa wa kujitabu  chako cha kujibia 

SEHEMU A (ALAMA 16)

  1.         Chagua jibu sahihi katika maswali yafuatayo;
  1.  Mende anapenda kula uchafu . neno Mende lipo katika ngeli ipi;
  1.    Ki-vi
  2.    U –i
  3.    A- wa
  4.    Ku
  5.    Li-ya
  1.  ......................... mna watu wengi
  1.    Aliingia
  2.    Alipoingia
  3.    Alikoingia
  4.    Alivyoingia
  5.    Alimoingia
  1.   Neno papai linaingia katika ngeli ya
  1.    Li-ya
  2.    Yu-a-wa
  3.    Pa- mu- ku
  4.    Ki-vi
  5.    U-i

 

  1.                         “Shangazi yupo shambani mwake “ kifungu hili kipo katika ngeli gani:-
  1.    Pa-mu-ku
  2.    Yu-a-wa
  3.    U-zi
  4.    U-ya
  5.    Li-ya
  1.   Ni ipi sababbu miojawapo ya kutumia kugha kulingana na muktadha?
  1.    Kusuka kwa matukio mbalimbali
  2.    Kuendana na Sayansi na technologia
  3.    Kumudu shughuli inayofanyika
  4.    Kupamba mazungumzo
  5.    Kuwezesha mawasiliano
  1.               Katika neno wanakula mzizi wa neno ni:
  1.    Kul
  2.    Kula
  3.    –l-
  4.    Nak
  5.    Ku
  1.                      Visasili ni mojawapoya vipera vya hadithi ambavyo hueleza kuhusu:
  1.    Matukio ya kihistoria
  2.    Makosa na uovu wa watu
  3.    Kuonya kuhusu maisha
  4.    Asili ya vitu kama vile milima, mito, wanyana n.k
  1.  Neno linaloingizwa katika kamusi kwa wino uliokolezwa, fasili, matamshi na aina ya neno kwa pamoja huitwa
  1.    Kidahizo
  2.    Kitomeo
  3.    Istilahi
  4.    Fasihi
  1.                         Neno lipi kati ya yafuatayo ni mofimu honi?
  1.    Chai
  2.    Kula
  3.    Imba
  4.    Ruka
  5.     Lala
  1.   Katika sababu zifuatazo ni ipi si sahihi kuhusu kamusi?
  1.    Kujifunza lugha ya kigeni
  2.    Kujua maana ya neno
  3.    Kujua tahajia ya neno
  4.    Kusanifisha maneno mapya

 

  1.         Oanisha dhana zlizopo katika Orodha A na zilizopo katika orodha B , kukamilisha mana kamili

ORODHA A

ORODHA B

(i)    Mwanafunzi aliyepewa zawadi jana asimame

  1. Kirai
  2. Kishazi tegemezi
  3. Shamirisho
  4. Kirai kielezi
  5. Chagizo
  6. Sentensi changamano
  7. Kirai nomino
  8. Prediketa

(ii) Huundwa na vitenzi vyenye O-rejeshi

(iii)                       Sehemu ya kiarifu ilyokaliwa na nomino

(iv)                        Neno au mpangilio wa neno wenye neno kuu moja

(v)  “Mwenye duka” ni muundo wa

(vi)                        Sehemu ya kiarifu inayokaliwa na kienzi

 

 

SEHEMU B

ALAMA 54

  1.         (a) Kwa kutumia mifano, fafanua taarifa nne za kisarufi zilizopo katika viambishi awali na vitrnzi vya kiswahili

(b) Nominisha vitenzi vifuatavyo

  1.     Pata
  2.  Jenga
  3.                        Fundisha
  4.                         Panda
  5.   Chuja
  1.         (a) Fafanua njia tatu (3) za uundaji wa misimu kwa kutumia mifano.

(b) Taja misimu minne iliyozuka kipindi cha serikalli ya awamu ya tano

  1.         Katika sentensi zifuatazo, onesha matumizi ya mofimu “ki”
  1.     Ukimwona atakueleza
  2.  Alikua akilia  gari lilipogonga mti
  3.                        Amevaa kifalme
  4.                         Mtoto anakimbia
  5.   Kikombe kimevunjika
  6.                         Amechukua kimoja tuu
  1.         Bainisha O- rejejeshi katika sentensi zifuatazo.
  1.     Mtu anayekunon’goneza aje apa
  2.  Mti ukioanguka umevunja nyumba lakini hakuna watu waliojeruhiwa
  3.                        Panga lililopotea limepatikana
  4.                         Kitabu alichookota ni cha kwangu
  5.   Vitabu vilivyosomwa ni vile vilivyotolewa na waziri wa Elimu
  6.                         Mahali alipolala mbuzi pamevamiwa na siafu
  1.         Andika simu ya maneno kwa mjomba wako kuhusu kuomba pesa ya safari ya kwenda hifadhi ya wanyama Tarangire . Jina lako liwe Mitomingi wa S.L.P. 37, huko Kibaha ,Mkoa wa Dar-es-Salaam . ( maneno tisa 9)
  2.         Soma kifungu cha habari kifuatacho kisha jibu maswali.

         Ili kuondoa utat wa maneno sanaa na fasihi, inafaa kuyaeleza maneno hayo kwa uwazi zaidi. Sanaa imeelezwa kuwa ni uzuri ulio katika umbo lililosanifiwa. Fasihi ni sehemu ya uzuri huo. Katika fasihi kuna uzuri wa kifasihi, huitwa  fani na jambo lisemwalo huitwa maudhui. Fasihi lazima iwe na sehemu hizi mbili. Ikikosekana moja wapo, kazi haiwi ya kifasihi.

           Mtunzi wa kazi ya fasihi huwa na jambo kusema na namna ya kulisema. Kwa hiyo,ana dhamira na anatumia ufundi wa maneno mbalimbali kufikisha dhamira yake.

           Kazi ya fasihi inaweza kuwa na upungufu kutokana na upotofu wa fani au maudhui. Maudhui yanajengwa na dhamira, ujumbe, maadili, falsafa, na maranyingine suluhisho. Dhamira ya mtunzi ikiwa potofu au haikubaliki katika jamii, inapunguza uzuri wa kazi yake.

 

Maswali 

  1.     Kwa mujibu wa habari hii nini maana ya fasihi
  2.  Eleza tofauti kati ya sanaa na fasihi
  3.                        Mtunzi anaposema kazi ya fasihi inaweza kua na upungufu kutokana na upotofu wa fani na maudhui, ana maana gani?
  4.                         Eleza umuhimu wa sanaa katika fasihi
  5.   Fafanua imuhimu wa  fani na maudhui katika fasihi.

 

SEHEMU E

ALAMA  30

 

Jibu maswali mawili kutoka sehemu hii

 

  1.         “Fasihi ni chombo cha kufundishia maisha”. Jadili ukweli wa kauli hii kwa kutumia hoja sita.
  2.    Fasihi simulizi ndio fasihi ya awali iliyoanza wakati binadamu alipoanza kutumia lugha. Mara kwa mara inapowasilishwa ka hadhira huchukua sifa muhimu kadhaa ambazo si rahisi kuzipata katika fasihi andishi. Thibitisha iweli huu kwa hoja sita.
  3.    (a) Unaelewa nini kuhusu mashairi ya kimapokeo ?

(b) Kwa kutumia mifano kuntu, fafanua vipengele saba vya kuzingatia wakati wa kutunga shairi la kimapokeo.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 164

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

MID TERM ONE – MARCH-2024

HISTORY FORM THREE

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

  1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
  2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s)

 

SECTION A 

  1.         For each of the item (i-x) choose the correct answer from among given alternatives and write its letter inside item number.
  1.                              The appearance of both Zinjathropus and homo habilis marked the beginning of a period in man’s history known as;
  1.                          Neolithic age
  2.                          Early stone age
  3.                          Middle stone age
  4.                          Modernization age
  5.                           Pre- colonial period
  1.                           Which imperial power among the following wanted to colonize Egypt and control Suez Canal which served the short cut  to her colonies in Asia and far East
  1.                          Britain
  2.                          French
  3.                          German
  4.                          Belgium
  5.                           Denmark
  1.                         The Hehe resistance in Tanganyika was the African reaction against
  1.                          Italy invasion
  2.                          Portuguese invasion
  3.                          French domination
  4.                          British invasion
  5.                           German colonial inversion
  1.                         The Missionary who came to east Africa and opened the first missionary centre at Rabai in 1846 was
  1.                          Dr David Livingstone
  2.                          John Speke
  3.                          Richard Burton
  4.                          John Ludwig Krapf
  5.                           Carl Peters
  1.                            The source which is used to reconstruct history which is both material and immaterial is known as
  1.                          Anthropology
  2.                          Linguistic
  3.                          Oral tradition
  4.                          Ethnographic sources
  5.                           Archeology
  1.                         One of the famous sailt mining places for Trans Sahara trade was
  1.                          Janne
  2.                          Gao
  3.                          Taghaza
  4.                          Timbuktu
  5.                           Southern
  1.  History students in form four were discussing “the period which marked the intensive competition and war- fare among the European nations for profit maximization “ this discussion can be summarized in one term as
  1.                          Mercantalism
  2.                          Industrial capitalism
  3.                          Bullionism
  4.                          Colonialism
  5.                           Monopoly capitalism 
  1.  Edina’s grandmother who is 80 years old regularly natures to her grand- daughter Edina , 17 years old and her friends on may past political events of our country. Which source if historical information does Edina’s grandmother use?
  1.                          Archives
  2.                          Museums
  3.                          Oral tradition
  4.                          Archeology
  5.                           Linguistics
  1.                         The Portuguese were the first to establish contact between Europe and Africa. These people made various Voyages on sea ferrying in different period of time. Who was the first Portuguese to visit the Cape of Good Hope?
  1.                          Carl peter
  2.                          Jan Van Riebeek
  3.                          King Henry VIII
  4.                          Bartholomew  Diaz
  5.                           De Livingstone
  1.      The British colonial rule of East Africa constructed Uganda railway in order to:
  1.                          Attract more European settlers to Kenya
  2.                          Complete with Imperial German East African rule
  3.                          Provide cheap means of transport for East African people
  4.                          Gain easy access to resources surrounding the interlacustrine area
  5.                           Facilitate transportation of suppressive soldiers against rebel Buganda Empire
  1.         Match the responsibilities in list A with corresponding  leader in list B by writing the correct response beside the item number

List A

LIST B 

  1. Tanganyika Territory Civil Servant Association
  2. Providence Industrial Mission
  3. Kikuyu Independence Church
  4. Kilimanjaro Native Planters Cooperation
  5. Young Kavirondo Association
  1. Rev. John Chilebwe
  2. Simon Kimbangu
  3. Jonathan Okwir
  4. Martin Kayamba
  5. David Maina
  6. Joseph Merinyo
  7. Richard Turnbul
  8. Elijah Masinde
  9. Eliot Kamwana
  1.         Briefly answer the following questions
  1.     Why reaction of Africa towards Colonialism failed. Give three points
  2.  What is the feature of early or old Stone Age? Give three points
  3.                         Explain three ways on how to determine dates by historians.
  1.         Arrange the following statement in chronological order by writing number 1 to 6 besides the item number
  1.  Through the Helgoland treaty Uganda and Witu were incorporated into British sphere of influence and  German brought part of Sultans costal strips
  2.  The Berlin conference divided Africa into sphere of influence
  3.    The Anglo- German defined the territories of Sultan of Zanzibar and European sphere of influence in East Africa
  4.          The German Government took after the affairs to the company
  5.   But it did not establish clear boundaries between sphere of influence in the interior of Africa
  6.          The German East Africa Company attempted unsuccessfully to develop the German sphere.
  1.         Draw a sketch map of Africa and locate the following
  1.  A country in West Africa which attained Independence under leadership of Nandi Azikiwe
  2.  The largest Belgium colony found in Africa
  3.         The country in which German Commander Emil Von Lewinsky was killed
  4.           A country in East Africa which her President entered in to power through dictatorship in 1971
  5.   A country in Sub- Saharan Africa which got her independence  earlier than other African countries
  6.          A country which experienced intensive scramble from Dutch and British due to Diamond and Gold minerals
  1.         Express six Principle of Berlin Conference with examples
  2.         Discuss impacts of Ngoni Migration from Central to East Africa
  3.         Explain six impact of early contacts in East Africa

 

SECTION C

30 MARKS

Answer two question from the this section 

  1.         Elaborate six (6) impacts of long distance trade among the people of East Africa
  2.    “It drummed in Europe and Danced in Africa” in reference to “the great economy depression” justify the above statement.
  3.    Discuss six benefits of Zanzibar Revolution.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 163

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

MID TERM ONE – MARCH-2024

GEOGRAPHY FORM THREE

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

  1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
  2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s)

SECTION A (16 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section 

  1.         For each of the following items (i-x).Choose the best answer among the given alternatives given and writer it’s later beside the item number in answer booklet provided
  1.     What will be happened when the orbit of heavenly body is nearest to the sun.
  1. Perihelion
  2. Aphelion
  3. Sunrise
  4. Equinox
  5. Sunset
  1.  Masawe prefer to transfer his car from Japan to Tanzania. Which mode of transport would be best to use
  1. Water
  2. Pipeline
  3. Cable
  4. Animal
  5. Road
  1.                         Alex prefers to cultivate vegetables, maize and beans in his farm. What type of farming is he practicing
  1. Mixed farming
  2. Bush farming
  3. Large scale farming
  4. Crop  rotation
  5. Shifting cultivation
  1.                         Sometimes people living central Tanzania experience sudden vibration of the earth surface cause by movement of the molten rocks below or within the crust. Identify the instrument to be measure the magnitude of such vibration
  1. Hygrometer
  2. Thermometer
  3. Wind vane
  4. Richer scale
  5. Barometer
  1.   It is noon in Addis Ababa (390 E). What will be the time in Dar-Es Salaam which is located along the same longitude
  1. 12.00pm
  2. 12:00 am
  3. 06:00pm
  4. 11:00 am
  5. 6:00 am
  1.                         The prediction of the state of the atmosphere can be done through both modern and traditional methods. Which among the following does not fit among the Traditional method used to predict weather?
  1. By looking at the position of the moon
  2. By hearing the voices of frogs
  3. By practicing female circumcision
  4. By hearing the voices of the birds
  5. By experiencing the change of wind direction
  1.    Form two students at Mwenzi Secondary School were discussing Tourism in Tanzania. The observed that minimum impact to environment form of tourism fails in this category?
  1. International tourism
  2. Domestic tourism
  3. Eco- tourism
  4. Economic tourism
  5. International Tourism and domestic tourism
  1.  You are living in Urban centre and you are interested in keeping livestock. What type of livestock keeping wpuld be suitable for you?
  1. Normadism
  2. Ranching
  3. Transhumance
  4. Pastoralism
  5. Sedentary
  1.                         The rock which do not allow water to pass through them are said to be
  1. Water table
  2. Sand stone
  3. Porous
  4. Impermeable
  5. Rock debris
  1.   During dry season, most plants shade their leaves on a way to reduce the amount of water released. The correct term for this process  is
  1. Evaporation
  2. Precipitation
  3. Transpiration
  4. Condensation
  5. Infiltration

 

  1.         Match the term on list A with correct phrase in list B by writing the correct letter on table given

LIST A

LIST B 

  1.    Atlas and the Drankenberg
  2.    A dome- shaped intrusive feature
  3.    Large cone with alternative layers of lava and ash
  4.    Rocks in molten state within the earth’s crust
  5.    The point from which the earth quake originates
  6.    Large body of an igneous rock formed when magma solidifies at base of the earth 
  1. Composite cone
  2. Magma
  3. Phacolith
  4. Bacolith
  5. Lava
  6. Fold mountain
  7. Laccolith
  8. Focus

 

SECTION B

54 MARKS

Answer all questions in this section.

  1.         Study the map extract of SIKONGE ( SHEET 137/2) and answer the following questions
  1.             Using the given RF scale, determine the length of the road in Kilometers from grid reference 740829 to grid  reference 760881
  2.             Determine the areas at right hand side of northing 800 in Km2
  3.             With examples name 2 ways used to show height of the land on mapped area
  4.             Under what climate region is the given mapped area found?
  1.         (a)Differentiate between meteorites and asteroids

b) List four domestic uses of solar energy 

  1.         Differentiate between the following terms
  1.  Lake and river
  2.  Plains and plateau
  3.      Continental shelf and continental slope

(b) Give three examples of Fold Mountains in the world 

  1.         Describe the formation of cyclonic rainfall
  2.         Carefully study the climatic data in table below and answer question that follow

MONTH

TEMP 0C

RAINFALL (MM)

J

F

M

A

M

J

J

A

S

O

N

D

9

10

11

2

16

20

23

24

21

18

14

11

102

66

84

51

42

18

3

3

31

86

104

112

 

  1.             Calculate the annual range of temperature for the station
  2.             Calculate the mean annual temperature
  3.             Calculate the total annual rainfall
  4.             Draw a climograph to present the data and comment on nature of climate
  5.             Mention four vegetable types found in station
  6.             What are the major economic activities conducted in the stations
  1.         Earth quakes are common phenomenon with examples, explain five effects of earth quakes

 

SECTION C

30MARKS

Answer two questions from this section 

  1.         What are main challenges facing livestock keeping in Tanzania?
  2.    Describe six sources of renewable energy found in Tanzania.
  3.    Outline the challenges facing Natural gas extraction in Tanzania.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 162

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

MID TERM ONE – MARCH-2024

CIVICS FORM THREE

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

  1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
  2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s)

 

SECTION A

  1.         For each of the following items (i-x).Choose the best answer alternatives given and writer it beside the item.
  1.        An agency that regulates the Telecommunication Industry in Tanzania is 
  1. LATRA
  2. SIMATRA
  3. TCRA
  4. TARURA
  5. TAREA
  1.      A carrier is on an occupation or job that someone does for long period on his or her life so as to earn a living. The following are carrier except
  1. Witch craft and prostitution
  2. Engineering and accountancy
  3. Teaching and nursing
  4. Geology and medicine
  1.   Asha lived in a society which believed that only boys can study bad pass science subject and not girls. Asha society practices
  1. Gender blindness
  2. Gender stereotyping
  3. Gender bias
  4. Gender balance
  1.    Mr. Mwatu son is arrogant, thief, uses abusive languages and fight with neighbors. This situation is termed as
  1. Proper behavior
  2. Good behavior
  3. Intolerable behavior
  4. Harmful behavior
  5. Improper behavior
  1.      The Union between Tanganyika and Zanzibar was influenced by
  1. Zanzibar revolution
  2. Natural wealth of Zanzibar
  3. Desire for security
  4. Desire of Friendship
  5. Fear of Karume to be overthrown
  1.    What would be your opinion on cause of road accident in which pedestrian was over run buy a high speed ambulance while crossing the road
  1. Ambulance driver fatigue
  2. Lack of road safety education
  3. Pedestrian negligence
  4. Driver negligence on road signs
  5. Absence of traffic police
  1.  I’m very tired my job requires me to use more physical strength and little skills, thought and knowledge Mr. Kazamoyo said. In which category will you place Mr Kazamoyo’s job?
  1. Hard work
  2. Soft work
  3. Mental work
  4. Health work
  5. Physical work
  1.              Tanzania is a middle-income country following the economic policies established by IMF and WB. Can be assisted by the following lending and development institutions working under world bank
  1. Internal development association
  2. Structural adjustment policies (SAPS)
  3. International bank for reconstruction and development
  4. World trade organization
  5. Special economic zone
  1.    Lisa’s husband died and her in laws forced Lisa to marry Bahati her late husband’s young brother. Such family decision demonstrates:
  1. Gender blindness
  2. Gender equality
  3. Gender stereotyping
  4. Gender manstreaming
  5. Gender discrimination
  1.      Marko and Anna live together in Maweni village and they have sexual relationship although they are not legally married. This situation is known as:
  1. Couple family
  2. Levirate
  3. Cohabitation
  4. Bigamy
  5. Sororates

 

  1.         Match the following in list A with the correct response from list B by writing the letter of the corresponding response besides the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. NSSF
  2. PSSF
  3. SACCOS
  4. PRIDE
  5. FINCA
  6. VICOBA
  1. Social Security Regulatory Authority
  2. Promotion of Rural Initiative and Development Enterprises
  3. Public Social Security Fund
  4. Foundation for International Community Assistance
  5. Provide soft and affordable Microloan to member
  6. National Social Security Fund
  7. Saving and credit Cooperative Societies
  8. National Bank of Commerce

 

 

SECTION B

54 MARKS

Answer all questions in this section 

  1.         Africa is a poor continent. Justify this statement using six points
  2.         Work is an essential for meaningful life. Outline six importance of work for both individual and nation.
  3.         Leadership plays an important role in our lives. As a future leader write five qualities of a of leader
  4.         Democracy is universally agreed as the best system of government. List five principles of democracy.
  5.         Fighting poverty is not a one man show. Using the knowledge of civics, propose six remedial measures that can be used to tackle problem.
  6.         Identify sources of information on carrier available in your locality.

 

 

SECTION C

30 MARKS

Answer two questions

  1.         Tanzania is a developing country. Explain five indicators of economic development.
  2.    Many schools in Tanzania have reported an increase in disciplinary cases related to student’s misbehavior. In six points briefly explain impact of such cases.
  3.    Basing on recently attained middle income country status of Tanzania, assess the role of formal sector in spearheading development of Tanzania economy by using five points

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 161

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

MID TERM ONE – MARCH-2024

CHEMISTRY FORM THREE

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

  1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
  2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s

SECTION A:  (16 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1.         For each of the following items (i-x) choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write letter besides item number in the answer booklet provided.
  1.     Which of the following is not a use of solvent
  1. Bleaching agent
  2. Greasing
  3. Stain removal
  4. Cleaning
  5. Universal solvent
  1.  In which step is scientific procedure does the hypothesis either proved or disapproved?
  1. Data collection and analysis
  2. Experimentation
  3. Data interpretation
  4. Formulation of hypothesis
  5. conclusion
  1.                         During the steam reforming method in industrial preparation of hydrogen. The steam reacts with what compound to produce Hydrogen gas
  1. water
  2. carbon monoxide
  3. methane
  4. sulphur dioxide
  5. oxide
  1.                         what will be simplest taste of hardness of water
  1. shaking water with chalk
  2. mixing water with soap detergent
  3. formation of scum
  4. shaking water with soap solution
  5. formation of dolomite`
  1.   Which of the following set of process uses a gas that ignites with a pop –sound when a lighted splint is passed through?
  1. Balloon filling, welding, diving
  2. Hardening of oil, balloon filling , welding
  3. Hardening of oil, balloon filling and divings
  4. Fuelling rocket, diving and welding
  5. Balloon filling, fuel rocket and diving
  1.                         The cause of permanent hardness of water is
  1. CaCOh)2
  2. CaCHCO3)2
  3. Mg (HCO3)2
  4. Na2SO4
  5. CaSO
  1.    Domestic Utensils made of iron must rust easily on a result of presence of
  1. Air and fire
  2. Air and water
  3. Water and oil
  4. Water and oil
  5. Water and oil
  1.  Which of the following pairs constitutes the method of treating and purifying water
  1. Chlorination and Aeration
  2. Chlorination and Decantation
  3. Chlorination and Filtration
  4. Chlorination and Distillation
  5. Chlorination and sedimentation
  1.                         The process of giving away water of Crystallization to the atmosphere by a chemical substance is called
  1. Efflorescence
  2. Deliquesce
  3. Hydroscope
  4. sublimation
  5. evaporation
  1.   when water is added to an acid, that acid becomes
  1. more acidic and its PH goes down
  2. more acidic and its PH goes up
  3. less acidic and its PH went down
  4. less acidic and its PH went up
  5. neutral and its PH become 7
  1.         Match the properties of element in list A with the respective element in list B by writing the letter of correct response besides the item number in answer sheet provided

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A   black solid element which burns with reddish glow giving off colorless gas slightly acidic 
  2. Silvery white metal which burns with golden yellow flame giving an oxide basic in nature
  3. Yellow element in color burns with blue flame giving colorless gas, strong acidic in nature
  4. Shinning white stripe of metal, burns with dazzling white flame giving slightly basic oxide
  5. Silvery white metal burns with brick red giving off oxide which is white solid
  6. Brown solid which burns with oxygen turning black
  1. Calcium
  2. Iron
  3. Sodium
  4. Zinc
  5. Magnesium
  6. Copper
  7. Carbon
  8. Sulphur
  9. Potassium
  10. Alluminium

SECTION B

54 MARKS

Answer all questions.

  1.         a) The modern periodic law is based on modification of the Mendeleev Periodic Law. Explain how the two theories differ from each other

b) Comment on the following statement

  1.     lithium has large size than beryllium
  2.  sodium is smaller than potassium
  3.                         Give any four ions whose electronic configuration resemble to that of Neon.
  1.         A) Magnesium burns in a carbon dioxide giving white solid and black solid sparks. The white solid dissolves in nitric acid leaving colorless solution R
  1.     Write balanced equation for reaction that give white solid
  2.  Identify solution R

 

B) Differentiate between suspension and solution

  1.         a) The table below shows two brands of bottled water for drinking and concentration of different mineral ions in each brand. Study the table and answer question that follows

Composition mg/ litre 

mineral

Na+

Ca2+

Mg2+

Cl-

No3-1

So42-

Fe2+

F-1

 

Uhai

40

3.05

4.15

14.18

0.48

10.0

0

1.76

 

Dasani

22.32

2.69

0.11

6.5

1.0

8.0

0

0.45

  1.     Which brand of water is harder? Explain
  2.  State the benefit of having calcium ions in water
  3.                         Tap water is always treated before being used, state what is added to perform that function

b) Hydrogen and phosphorus are non metallic elements 

  1.     Which one between the two is more electropositive
  2.  Show your wake clearly write chemical formula and name of compound fotmed when two atoms combined
  1.         A)State the main raw materials and process involved in manufacture of the following products
  1.     Wood charcoal
  2.  Coke
  3.                         Lamp black
  4.                         Animal charcoal

                b) Define the terms below

  1.     Mole
  2.  Molar mass
  1.         A) Students are advised to use non-luminous flames for heating in laboratory.
  1.     Explain how a Bunsen burner produces non- luminous flames
  2.  Give a reason as to why the above flame is best
  3.                         Give function of air holes in a barrel of Bunsen burner.

b) Explain why hydrogen is proffered to potassium chloride during preparation of oxygen gas.

  1.         A) different salt behave differently when heated use a balanced chemical equation to show how Carbonate and Sulphate behave when subjected to heat

b) Write a balanced and ionic equation for reaction between sodium carbonate and hydrochloric acid 

c) Differentiate ionic equation from molecular equation

 

 

SECTION C

30MARKS 

  1.         Aisha drew a periodic table and then put a shadow on element with atomic number 8
  1.             What type of chemical bond is found between atoms of the element
  2.             Compound X contains 24.24%, 4.04% hydrogen and 71.72%chlorine. Given that the vapor density of X is 49.5. calculate molecular formula of compound X
  3.             If 0.5 g of hydrogen gas is exposed in air, what mass of water will be formed
  1.    A) give two ways you can use to tell water os polluted

b) We have coal in Kuwira Mbeya region; the government authorities have allowed the use of coal for domestic and industrial purposes. What warning can you raise concerning the likely effects? Give five points

  1.    Consider the diagram below

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1.     Give the aim of the above process
  2.  Identify the process of A to F
  3.                         Give two importance of above diagram in our daily life

b) State weather the following is permanent change or temporary change 

  1.     Dissolution of salt in water
  2.  Rotting of mangoes

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 160

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

MID TERM ONE – MARCH-2024

BIOLOGY FORM THREE

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

  1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
  2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s)

 

SECTION A

 

  1.         For each of the following items  (i-x).Choose the correct answer from alternatives given
  1.  John has cardiovascular disease. Which of the following does not contribute to it
  1. Dietary fibre
  2. Smoking
  3. Fatty foods
  4. Lack of exercise
  5. Over-weight
  1.      Which of these diseases is not caused by fungi
  1. Wheat rust
  2. Candidiasis
  3. Influenza
  4. Powdery mildew
  5. Maize rust
  1.   Bread mould is an example of
  1. Byrophyta
  2. Pteridophyta
  3. Zygomycota
  4. Basidiomycota
  5. Coniferophyta
  1.    Byrophytes are said to be most primitive plants on earth because
  1. They grow on wet areas
  2. They do not produce seeds
  3. They produced assexually and sexually
  4. They lack vascular tissues
  5. They lack chlorophyll
  1.      Which part protects lungs from injury and shock?
  1. Trachea
  2. Ribs
  3. Bronchus
  4. Epiglottis
  5. Diaphragm
  1.    A patient was confirmed to be suffering from meningitis after attending Mawenzi Hospital. How cam disease be prevented from spreading?
  1. Eliminating fleas
  2. Abstaining from sex
  3. Isolating the patient
  4. Killing water snail
  5. Cutting long grasses
  1.  Monica eats a meal consisting of maize (ugali) and beef (meat). Where did digestion of meat start in alimentary canal?
  1. Mouth
  2. Oesophagus
  3. Stomach
  4. Ileum
  5. Duodenum
  1.     Juma had problem with liver and bile could not be produced. Which of the following food digestion will be impaired?
  1. Ugali
  2. Cassava
  3. Beans
  4. Fruits
  5. Fatty foods
  1.    The enzyme that convert starch to maltose is
  1. Lipase
  2. Sucrose
  3. Peptidase
  4. Amylase
  5. Trypsin
  1.      Which of thr following is not transported by plasma?
  1. Nutrients
  2. Hormones
  3. Waste products
  4. Feaces
  5. Respiratory gases
  1.         Match the parts of digestive system on given in list A and list B by writing correct answer on space provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1.           Wave- like muscular contraction that push food along oesophagus
  2.         Connect mouth to stomach
  3.      Contain acidic medium for digestion
  4.       First part of small intestine
  5.         Absorb water from undigested and indigestible food materials
  6.       Grind food
  1. Colon
  2. Stomach
  3. Peristalsis
  4. Cardiac sphincter
  5. Pyloric sphincter
  6. Duodenum
  7. Ileum
  8. Molars
  9. Stomach
  10. Ingestion

 

 

 

 

SECTION B

(54 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1.         James is having painful burning sensation around the middle of his chest whenever he eats spicy food. He’s also having a problem of passing out very hard stool
  1.    Identify possible digestive disorder he’s facing
  2.    What would you advice him in order to alleviate the problem
  3.    Identify causes of such problems
  1.         Mention the components of gastric juice and explain their function
  2.         The leaf is main organ for photosynthesis.
  1.          explain how it is adapted to its function
  2.          What is the significant of photosynthesis to living organism?
  1.         Briefly explain the following terms;
  1.     Carbon dioxide fixation
  2.  Photosynthesis
  3.      Palisade mesophyil
  4.       Photolysis

(b)Differentiate light stage and dark stage of photosynthesis

  1.         Form two students from Jangwani Secondary School carried out a survey to determine numbers of organism in their school garden. They recorded their findings as shown below

 

Organism

Number of organism

Grasshopper

320

Grass

450,000

Birds

20

Hawks 

44

 

  1.             Which of the above organism are
  1.     Producers
  2.  Primary consumers
  1.             Draw a possible food chain to show the energy flow in the garden
  2.             (i) Is food chain above stable?

(ii) Give reason for your answer in 7 (c) (i) above 

(iii) What can be done to sustain the food chain in school garden?

  1.         (a) Give a reason for the following
  1.     Animal cell burst when placed in pure water where as plant cell does not
  2.  An animal cell shrinks when placed in concentrated solution.

             (b) Explain three factors that affect the rate of diffusion.

 

 

SECTION C

30Marks

  1.         Briefly explain the following
  1.             Arteries have thick-walled muscular and elastic walls
  2.             Arteries do not need valves
  3.             Small organism like amoeba and Paramecium do not need circulatory system
  1.    Describe the function of human skeleton
  2.    Poor waste products disposal creates problems in the environment. In six points justify the statement.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 159

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATIONAND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

032/1CHEMISTRY FORM THREE

ANNUAL EXAMINATIONS – 2023

Time: 3 Hours

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of thirteen (13) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in this paper
  3. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  4. Write your Examination Numberon every page of your answer booklet(s)
  5. The following constants may be used

Atomic masses:

H=1,C=12,O=16,N=14,Ag=108

Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4 dm3

1 Faraday = 96,500 coulombs

Standard pressure = 760 mm Hg

Standard temperature = 273 K

1 litre = 1dm3= 1000cm3

SECTION A. (16 MARKS)

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x), Choose the correct the answer from among alternatives given and write its letter in the answer sheet provided
  1. Loose or floppy clothing is not allowed in the laboratory because;
  1. Movement has to be fast
  2. It will get wet when water splashes
  3. It may catch fire or cause one to fall
  4. It cause poor ventilation in the body
  5. It prevents experiment from being conducted well
  1. What mass of Suphuric acid (H2SO4) is found in 400cm3 of its 0.1M?
  1. 2.67g
  2. 9.8g
  3. 4.89g
  4. 3.92g
  5. 8.69g
  1. One of the Isotopes of an element X has atomic number Z and a mass number A. What is the number of Neutron contained in Nucleus of the element?
  1. Z – A
  2. A
  3. A + Z
  4. Z
  5. A – Z
  1. A solution of PH 5 is said to be
  1. Strong base
  2. Neutral
  3. A weak acid
  4. A strong acid
  5. A weak base
  1. In an experiment, 1930 coulombs Liberated 0.64g of copper when the same quantity of electricity. Was passed through a solution of silver Nitrate. What amount of silver was deposited?
  1. 32g
  2. 2.16g
  3. 10.8g
  4. 108g
  5. 21.6g
  1. In blast furnace carbon monoxide in prepared by passing carbon dioxide over a red hot coke. What is the chemical role of carbon dioxide
  1. An accelerator
  2. An oxidizing agent
  3. A catalyst
  4. A reducing agent
  5. Flammable
  1. The following shows four uses of iron, in which of these uses are the iron most likely to rust?
  1. Iron bucket electroplated with zinc
  2. Iron wired Alluminium electric cable
  1. Iron hinges on gate
  2. Alloyed piston
  3. Panted iron gate
  1. Alluminium does not react with water and does not corrode much in air. Why?
  1. It is below hydrogen in reactivity series
  2. It forms a stable carbonate which prevent reactions
  3. The metal in coated with a protective coating of Oxide
  1. It is very unstable
  2. Does not react with water
  1. When bumming fuel produce blue colour, it means there is
  1. Adequate supply of Oxygen without production of soot
  2. Inadequate supply of Oxygen without production of soot
  3. Inadequate supply of Oxygen with production of soot
  4. Adequate supply of Oxygen with production of more heat
  5. Inadequate supply of Oxygen with production of more heat
  1. The reason why white anhydrous copper II sulphate tums blue when exposed in atmosphere is that it.
  1. Absorb moisture
  2. React with Oxygen
  3. React with carbon dioxide
  4. Becomes dry
  5. Release water to atmosphere.
  1. Match items in LIST A with correct response in LIST B by writing the letter of correct response beside the item number in answer sheet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Black solid element, burns with reddish glow giving off colorless less acidic gas
  2. Silvery white metal, bum with golden yellow flame giving an oxide basic in nature
  3. Yellow element burn with blue flame giving colorless gas, strongly acidic
  4. Shiny metal, bums dazzling white flame giving slightly basic oxide
  5. Silvery white metal burns with brick red flame giving off oxide which is white solid.
  6. A reactive metal which does not react very well with Oxygen in air.
  1. Calcium
  2. Nitrogen
  3. Alluminium
  4. Iron
  5. Carbon
  6. Sodium
  7. Copper
  8. Beryllium
  9. Argon
  10. Magnesium
  11. Sulphur
  12. Phosphorus
  13. Chlorine
  14. Zinc
  15. Fluorine
  16. Lead

SECTION B. (54 Marks)

Attempt all questions in this section

  1. (a)Explain how the following differ from one another
  1. A base and Alkali
  2. An atom and isotope

(b) An organic compound P consists of 52.2% carbon 13% hydrogen and 34.8% Oxygen. The vapour density of P is 23. Calculate molecular formula of the compound.

(c) Calculate Oxidation number of Nitrogen in potassium nitrate.

  1. (a)Give three applications of separation of mixture in our daily life.

(b) 20.0cm3of sodium hydroxide containing 8.0gdm3was required for complete neutralization of 0.18g of dibasic acid. Calculate the relative molecular mass of the acid

  1. (a)State faraday’s Laws of electrolysis

(b) Dilute Silver Nitrate solution was decomposed by passage of electric current through it. What mass of Silver and what volume of Oxygen (measured at (STP) would be liberated in electrolysis by 9650C of electricity?

  1. 5.3g of X2CO3 was dissolved in water to make 0.5 litre of a solution 25cm3 of this solution required 50cm3 of 0.1M HCl for complete reaction.
  1. Write a balanced chemical reaction for complete neutralization
  2. Calculate concentration of X2CO3 in moles dm-3
  3. What is the relative molecular mass of X2CO3
  4. Give the name of element X
  1. (a)What do you understand by the following terms
  1. Mole concept
  2. Molar volume of gas

(b)Consider the equation below for dissociation of Suphuric acid

H2SO4(aq)→ 2H(aq)++ SO42-(aq)

From equation, how many ions are there in 9.8g of sulphuric acid?

  1. (a)Consider the following elements

16O8,19F9,20Ne1023Na1124Mg12. Atoms and ions of these elements can be 150-electronic (have same number of electrons)

  1. Write down their symbols when they are ISO-electrode
  2. Write down their common electronic arrangement in their ions and atoms

(b)Although Sulphur dioxide is an Oxide, It can be further Oxidized

  1. Write an equation and Condition for further Oxidation of sulphur dioxide
  2. Write down an equation showing how the product can be used industrially to obtain desired Materials to be produced.
  3. Give the name for this industrial process
  4. Write two uses of product formed by industrial process named in (iii) above

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answerany twoquestions from this section

  1. (a)Describe the extraction of sodium from its ore and Write all the reaction equation

(b) State four uses of sodium metal

  1. (a) Preventing rusting, you should prevent contamination of water and air with iron and steel, also to avoid using material made from iron or steel. State the method that can be used to prevent rusting on each of the following
  1. Iron sheet
  2. Bridge and pipes
  3. Ship
  4. Machine parts

(b) Fire extinguisher is used to stop fire. List five types of fire extinguishers

  1. (a)Briefly explain the following observation about a sample of hard water
  1. When boils it forms white precipitate
  2. After boiling, water forms a scum
  3. Sodium carbonate makes the water completely soft

(b) With the acid of chemical equation, briefly describe the following processes

  1. The removal of temporary hardness of water by boiling
  2. The removal of permanent hardness of water by chemical means

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 158

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED EXAMS

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

FORM THREE ANNUAL EXAMINATION

031   PHYSICS

TIME: 3HRS  NOVEMBER, 2023

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B, and C with a total of eleven (11) questions
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and any two (2) questions from section C
  3. Show clearly your work
  4. Section A carries fifteen (15)marks, section B sixty (60) marks and section C carries twenty five (25) marks
  5. All writing should be in blue or black pen except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  6. Non-programmable calculator may be used
  7. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  8. Write your examination number on each page of your answer sheet(s)
  9. Where necessary, use the following constants
  • Acceleration due to gravity(g) = 10m/s2
  • Density of water = 1g/cm3 or 1000kg/m3

SECTION A (16 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of items (i) – (ix), choose the most correct answer from among given alternatives and write its letter beside item number in answer sheet provided

  1. A bus carrying heavy load on its top carries is likely to overturn because.
  1. It runs faster
  2. Its center of gravity is low
  3. Its center of gravity is high
  4. Its equilibrium is neutral
  5. It is at stable equilibrium
  1. Which of the following conditions must be satisfied for a body to float?
  1. Apparent weight is equal to weight of the fluid displaced
  2. Real weight of the body equals to its upthrust
  3. Upthrust equal to weight of fluid displaced
  4. Apparent weight is equal to product of real weight of the body and its upthrust
  5. Density of a body is equal to density of surrounding fluid
  1. In an experiment, A simple pendulum showings between A and B. The amplitude of Oscillation is
  1. Distance A to B
  2. Half the distance A to B
  3. Distance A to B and Back
  4. Twice the distance A to B
  5. The distance from A in one direction
  1. From four students were discussing on properties of matter, where one of them said that solid has define shape and all member of group agreed. Which one could be the reason behind for solid to have definite shape?
  1. It has high adhesive force
  2. It has high surface tension
  3. It has low viscosity
  4. It has high cohesive force
  5. It has low adhesive force
  1. Angle was in a car, she tried to look at her friend who were outside of car through glass window, but she did not see well. You as a form as a form four student, what conclusion could you make on that glass window?
  1. It is transparent material
  2. It is translucent
  3. It is opaque
  4. It is not cleaned
  5. It is black
  1. Mndeme was cooking ugali in a good conductor container, but she seems to use iron handle which is covered by plastic at its holding handle to hold cooking container. Why did she use plastic handle and not iron?
  1. Its good conductor of heat
  2. It reflects heat
  3. Its particles are dose to each other
  4. It is poor conductor of heat
  5. It is a good heat emitter
  1. Which of the following do not affect the rate of evaporation of water in a dam?
  1. Surface area
  2. Depth
  3. Humidity
  4. Barometric pressure
  5. Temperature
  1. Racing cars rarely get accidents despite their high speed because
  1. Have greater momentum
  2. Have big tyres with treads
  3. Have wide base and low center of gravity
  4. Exert greater frictional force
  5. Have less mass
  1. Retina in human eye has same function as which part of the lens camera.
  1. Shutter
  2. Diagram
  3. Film
  4. Convex lens
  5. Adjusting knob
  1. Which of the following factors influence friction between the surface of the road and tyres of a car moving with a constant speed?
  1. Weight and speed
  2. Nature of the surface and weight
  3. Surface area of the tyres and speed
  4. Acceleration and Nature of surface
  5. Speed and Nature of the surface

2. Match the following concept in List A with relevant description in List B by writing its letter beside the items number in sheet provided

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Self-induction
  2. Lenz’s law
  3. Mutual induction
  4. Step down transformer
  5. Faradays law of Electromagnetic induction
  6. Maxwell’s con screw rule.
  1. Determines direction of magnetic field produced by current carrying conductor
  2. Relate the magnitude of induced emf and rate of change of magnetic flux linking a conductor.
  3. Describes the direction of induced emf around the closed loop
  4. Variation, of magnitude of current flowing in a conductor itself
  5. Variation of magnitude of current in one coil induced current in the other
  6. Secondary voltage is smaller than primary voltage
  7. Primary voltage is higher than secondary voltage
  8. Interaction between electric and magnetic field.

SECTION B (54 Marks)

3. (a) Students from Mwenge University were climbing Mt. Kilimanjaro, Suddenly one of them started experiencing nose bleeding

  1. Comment on why the student experienced nose bleeding
  2. Why do astronauts wear space suits

(b) The acceleration due to gravity on Jupiter in about 2.6 times that of earth. A spacecraft has weight of 24500N on earth

  1. What is the mass of space craft
  2. What would be its weight in Jupiter

4. (a)(i) What do you understand by the term specific heat capacity and specific latent heat of vaporization

(ii) Explain the factors that affect boiling point of water.

(b) What is the index of refraction for a certain medium if the light in air enters the medium at an angle of 30° and refracted at 22°C?

5. (a)Describe how a lens camera operates the same way as human eye. Give three points

(b) Briefly explain how conduction of heat can be applied in your daily life (Three reasons)

6. (a)Briefly explain why the doors of oven are made loosely fitting

(b) A steel bridge over a motor way is 20m at 0°C. How much longer is it at 20°C?

7. (a)Explain why a bat can fly in the dark without hilting objects

(b) A soldier standing in front of a vertical cliff fires a gun, he hears the echo after 3sec. On moving closer to the diff by 82.5m, he fires again, and hears the echo after 2.5 sec. Find

  1. The distance of the diff from initial position of the mars
  2. The speed of sound

8. (a)You read a newspaper because of the light that it reflects. Why do you not see even a faint image of yourself in a newspaper?

(b) Name factors on which the angle of deviation produced by a prism depend

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer any two questions

9. (a)A wire is Answer is carrying current is it charged?

(b)Explain the following

  1. A Kettle of water with steady supply of heats taken much longer time to boil dry it does to reach its boiling point.
  2. How does molecular theory of matter account for drop in temperature which results when for evaporation of volatile liquid occurs

(c)Why is a dull Black surface a better absorber of heat than a brightly polished surface?

10. (a) In which way does a wire carrying electric and placed between the poles of two magnets as shown in figure below tend to move? Explain your answer

(b)Explain any four (4) causes of power looses in a transformer that can reduce the efficiency of the transformer

(c)A 240V mains transformer has 1000 turns in its primary coil and it is designed to supply electrical energy to a 12V, 24W lamp. Determine the efficiency of the transformer if the current drawn from the 240V mains is 0.125A

11. (a)(i)State Ohms Law

(ii) How does Ohm’s law explain the fact that the resistance of a conductor depends on area of Cross-section of the conductor.

(b) (i)Explain why the path of lighting is not straight but zigzag

(ii)Two negative charges were brought together as shown below, re-draw a well diagram to show the magnetic field lines on how these two charges interact, remember to indicate neutral point.


(c) Study the circuit below and answer questions that follow.

  1. Calculate the equivalent resistance
  2. What is the reading of Ammeter
  3. What is the reading of Voltmeter?

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 157

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

ANNUAL EXAMINATIONS -2023

CIVICS FORM THREE

TIME: 3HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer ALL questions in section A and B and three (3) questions from section C
  3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B forty (70) marks and section C forty-five (15) marks
  4. Cellular phones and unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  5. Write your name on every page of your answer sheet(s)

SECTION A (16 MARKS)

  1. For each of items (i) – (x), Choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside item number
  1. The ability of a person to understand who you are in terms of behavior, what you can do and what you cannot do is called.
  1. Self services
  2. Self-awareness
  3. Self-esteem
  4. Coping with emotion
  5. Self-worth
  1. What would be your opinion on course of road accident in which a pedestrians was run over by a high-speed ambulance while crossing the roads
  1. Ambulance drivers fatique
  2. Lack of road safety education
  3. Pedestrian negligence
  4. Drivers negligence
  5. Absence of traffic police
  1. The makonde are famous in Tanzania their skills in making carvings of various types. How do you characterize such carving
  1. Tradition
  2. Performing art
  3. Arts
  4. Craft
  5. Norms
  1. Miss Lisa born in Chawino District in Dodoma and both of her are natives of Tanzania. Therefore Lisa is a citizens of Tanzania by
  1. Naturalization
  2. Descent
  3. Registration
  4. Birth
  5. Dual citizenship
  1. Which one of the following represents a state of disorder due to the absence of a controlling system
  1. Aristocracy
  2. Anarchy
  3. Theocracy
  4. Monarchy
  5. Transitional
  1. General perception or assumption constructed by the society towards men or women are referred to as
  1. Gender Blondness
  2. Gender equity
  3. Gender stereotype
  4. Gender relation
  5. Gender biasness
  1. Mr. Evans wanted to Mary Magreth, but was given some conditions that he supposed to send a gift first to the bride or her parents in order to get a wife. Such a gift commonly termed as
  1. Inheritance
  2. Dowry
  3. Engagement
  4. Courtship
  5. Dating
  1. People benefit from development of science and technology on a result of globalization whereby they purchase and sell goods online through social media. Such economic system is referred as
  1. Marketing
  2. Telegraphic business
  3. Globalization index
  4. Global economy
  5. International business
  1. Mr. Emmanuel went to Dar es Salaam where she lives with different relatives, one of them does not each beef meat, goat, as those food are termed as forbidders things to be used such cultural perception is referred to a s
  1. Food ethics
  2. Food selectivity
  3. Food taboos
  4. Food norms
  5. Folk ways
  1. The government of Tanzania derives all its power and authority from people through;
  1. Mass rally
  2. Elections
  3. Revolution
  4. Coup-detat
  5. Hereditary
  1. Match the following explanation in LIST A with the corresponding symbols from LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response beside item number in space provided

LIST A

LIST B

  1. It symbolizes freedom, peace, unity hope enlightment of Tanzanians
  2. It signifies National identify as the resources of nation
  3. Its long neck reflects Tanzania ability to be visionary while still seeing the past and present.
  4. Official stamp that signifies authority of government of country and ownership of documents and assets
  5. Signifies independence and sovereignty of Tanzania
  6. Is body of laws and principle which are used to govern country
  1. The Giraffe
  2. National flag
  3. The presidential standard
  4. The Uhuru Torch
  5. National Anthem
  6. The National Currency
  7. National constitution
  8. The coat of Arm
  9. National language

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. Briefly explain six factors that can enhance economic development of the people in Tanzania
  2. Many schools in Tanzania has reported an increase in disciplinary cases related to students behavior in six points briefly explain the impact of such cases.
  3. To a great extent, roads casualties in Tanzania are man-made phenomena. How far is this statement true? (Use six point)
  4. In six points, justify why a democratic election is important in maintaining peace and security
  5. Tanzania is a poor country, riddled with poverty, justifies this statement.
  6. Briefly explain the effect of Human rights abuse to a country like Tanzania give six points

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) Questions from this section

  1. What is the role of formal sector in spear heading development of Tanzania economy justify using five points
  2. How does Tanzania implements democratic principles
  3. Briefly explain good traits of any leader in society

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 156

OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED ASSESSMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY ANNUAL EXAMINATION –2023

FORM THREE

TIME: 3 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS:

  1. This paper consist of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions
  2. Answer ALL questions in section A and B, and two questions from section C
  3. Section A carry 16 Marks, section B carry 54 Marks and section C carry 30 Marks
  4. Write your Examination number or name on every page of your answer sheet(s).

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer ALL questions in this section

  1. For each of the following items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside item number
  1. The missionary who came to East Africa and opened the first missionary center at Rabai in 1846 was
  1. Dr. David Livingstone
  2. John Speke
  3. Richard Burton
  4. John Ludwing Kraft
  5. Carl Peter
  1. After the first world war of 1914-1918 the league of Nations made Tanganyika as
  1. Mandate territory
  2. Protectorate territory
  3. Independent territory
  4. Trust territory
  5. British East Africa Empire
  1. The military alliance which was formed between German, Italy and japan before the second world war was known as
  1. Berlin-Rome-Tokyo axis
  2. Triple alliance
  3. Triple entente
  4. Berlin-Rome
  5. Dual alliance
  1. Assimilation policy in Mozambique was adopted by which European country
  1. German
  2. Italy
  3. Portugal
  4. Britain
  5. France
  1. A form of colonial economy which was practiced in British East Africa was called?
  1. Settler economy and mixed economy
  2. Plantation and mixed economy
  3. Peasant and settler economy
  4. Settler and Plantation Economy
  5. Peasant and plantation economy
  1. Which of the following treaties prohibited the sultan from exporting slaves outside of Africa
  1. Moresby treaty
  2. Frère Treaty
  3. Hermeton treaty
  4. Bogus Treaty
  5. Helgoland
  1. What did the golden stool which was possessed by Asante Empire in West Africa Symbolize?
  1. Myth of the state
  2. Unit of state
  3. Dream of the state
  4. Decline of state
  5. Wealth of state
  1. The colonialist decided to use different methods to establish colonialism in Africa since it was not easy for Africans to accept colonialism. What was the aim of using intimidation as the method of establishing colonialism in Africa?
  1. To exercise new military fighting weapons
  2. To demonstrate the European military strength to Africa
  3. To implant Africa awareness tow arch colonialism
  4. To stimulate African Army Unity
  5. To create fear and Suppress Africa solidarity against colonialism
  1. Colonialists established various forms of Agriculture that involved use of different colonial Africa labour during colonial economy. Which type of colonial Africa labour was used under peasant agriculture?
  1. Migrant labour
  2. Family
  3. Forced labour
  4. Contract labour
  5. Permanent labour
  1. Mtukazi was the daughter of a chief in a certain tribe in East Africa; his family was forced by colonialist to work in certain social services. His father was also forced by colonists to supervise colonial activities. What was the type of administration that was used in area?
  1. Assimilation policy
  2. Association policy
  3. Indirect Rule
  4. Divide Rule
  5. Direct Rule

2. Match the items in List a with responses in List B BY WRITING THE LETTER OF THE CORRECT RESPONSE beside the item number in the answer booklet provided

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Axis powers
  2. Triple Alliance
  3. Warsaw pact
  4. Allied powers
  5. NATO
  6. Triple Entente
  1. An alliance between UUUSR, Poland, Czechoslovakia, Eastern Germany, Hungary, Romania and Albania.
  2. An alliance between Britain, France, Russia and China against USA
  3. An alliance between Britain, France and Russia
  4. An alliance between Nazist Germany, Fascist Italy, Imperial Japan and Australia
  5. An alliance between Germany, Italy and USA
  6. AN ALLIANCE BETWEEN Italy and USA
  7. An alliance between USA, Britain, France, Belgium, Luxembourg, Netherland, Canada, Denmark, Iceland, Norway, Italy, Western Germany, Portugal and Turkey
  8. An alliance between Britain ,France ,Russia and Italy
  9. An alliance between western block and eastern block to stabilize the world peace during the cold war.
  10. An alliance between USA, Britain, France, Belgium, USSR, Eastern Germany, Poland and Czechoslovakia.
  11. An alliance between Germany, Australia-Hungary and Italy
  12. An alliance between Germany, Italy, Japan and Serbia

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Briefly explain the following

  1. How did interaction between pre-colonial societies result in spread of new Agricultural skills and practices
  2. Differentiate between local Trade and Regional Trade
  3. Comment on Association policy as it was used by French in West Africa
  4. Explain protest and Religious movement
  5. What do you understand by social organization

4. Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 6 beside the item number

  1. This allowed him to devote some of his time on other activities such as craft
  2. This was marked by spread of agricultural communities in area where there were fertile, arable and reliable rainfall
  3. By then the iron Age in East Africa had reached advanced stage
  4. With better and more durable iron tools, mans capacity to produce beyond his immediate subsistence requirement increased
  5. By about 15th century, village communities had emerged in various parts of East Africa
  6. The iron Age was a period in which man made and used iron tools

5. Draw a sketch map of Tanzania showing railway line built during the colonial era and show the following railway centres

  1. Railway from Dar-es Salaam to Kigoma
  2. Railway from Tabora to Mwanza
  3. Railway from Tanga to Arusha
  4. Railway from Tabora to Mpanda

6. Outline six impacts of early contacts in East Africa and outside world

7. The collapse of fort-Jesus in Mombasa in 1698 marked the end of Portuguese rule in East Africa Show six (60 main factor which led to end of Portuguese rule in East Africa

8. British was the first country to industrialize, also was the first European Nation to campaign against slave trade and slavery worldwide. By using this notion, briefly explain why the abolition of slave trade took so long time. (six points)

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions in this section

9. Most of Africa states achieved independence but they are still suffering from colonial heritage challenges. Assess six economic, social and political challenges in-herited from colonialist

10. The establishment of colonial rule in Africa was not an easy task European faced several obstacles. By referring from this statement, explain six ways used to establish colonial rule in Africa.

11. How did abolition of slave trade affect the east African countries? Use six points to elaborate.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 155

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

ANNUAL EXAMINATION, NOV -2023

FORM THREE GEOGRAPHY

INSTRUCTIONS  TIME:2: 30

  1. This Paper Consist Two Section A & B With A Total Of Twelve (12) Questions.
  2. Answer All Questions In Section ‘’A ‘’ And Two Question From Section ‘’B’’
  3. Section “A” Caries Seventy (15) Marks, Section B’’ Thirty (30) Marks.
  4. Programmable Calculator, Cellular Phones And Any Unauthorized Materials Are Not Allowed In The Examination Room.
  5. Write Your Name On Every Page Of Your Answer Sheet.

SECTION A (16-MARKS)

1. For each of items (i) – (ix), choose the most correct answer from among given alternatives given and write its letter on your answer sheet beside item number

  1. One of the following is a set of factors affecters climate
  1. Ocean Current, altitude sleet and Barometer
  2. Distance from sees rainfall, cloud cover, latitude
  3. Prevailing wind, latitude, rainfall, hygrometer aspect
  4. Altitude, Temperature, and Earth notation
  5. Humidity, dew point, atmosphere pressure raingauge
  1. Soil has physical, chemical and Biological properties which of the following are physical properties of soil
  1. Colour, clay, texture, structure and porosity
  2. Porosity, colour, texture, density and structure
  3. Texture, silt, structure, porosity and sand
  4. Porosity, profile, structure, Texture and fertility
  5. Fertility, structure, texture, porosity and colour
  1. Which statement is true regarding air transport
  1. It facilitates integration of global economy
  2. It is the fastest means of transport in the world
  3. It is the most appropriate means of transport for perishable goods
  4. It is categorized into local and domestic
  5. It is one of the most expensive means of Trans sport
  1. If the minimum temperature recorded in a day to 12°C and maximum temperature recorded in C day is 38°C. Find daily range temperature.
  1. 50°C
  2. 26°C
  3. 50°C
  4. 26°C
  5. 55°C
  1. The following are aspects of physical geography except
  1. Natural features of the earth
  2. Structure of the earth
  3. Distribution of plants and animal
  4. Population growth and distribution
  5. Formation and Distribution of land forms
  1. Suppose you want to invest and engage in commercial livestock-keeping. Which three categories of Commercial livestock-keeping will you consider?
  1. Pastoralism, sedentary, nomadism
  2. Traditional, modem and pure livestock keeping
  3. Traditional livestock keeping, cattle keeping, diary keeping
  4. Beef livestock; Dairy livestock keeping and sheep keeping
  5. Pastoralism, cattle keeping, and sedentary animal keeping
  1. Which of the following is an example of residual mountain
  1. Sekenke hills in Singida
  2. Kibo in Kilimanjaro
  3. Uluguru in Morogoro
  4. Usambara in Tanga
  5. Meru in Arusha
  1. What is the best name of a form of energy that is created by force of flowing water from mountains or high land form?
  1. Geothermal energy
  2. Non-renewable energy
  3. Hydro-electric power
  4. Waterfalls energy
  5. Wind energy
  1. A physical feature in which a piece of land enters the ocean is called
  1. Cape
  2. Peninsula
  3. Gulf
  4. Straight
  5. Tributary
  1. Which of the following is not a component of the solar system
  1. Sun
  2. Planet
  3. Plateau
  4. Meteoroid
  5. Asteroid

2. Match the description of features formed by wind in LIST A with corresponding feature in LIST B by writing the letter of correct answer beside item number in answer booklet provide.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Are tower-like structures or shapes composed of alternate branch of soft hard rocks
  2. Are elongated rock ridges of about 100-500M long with gentle slopes separated from one another by furrows
  3. Are flat-topped ridges with steep slope which are separated by grooves of furrows in a desert
  4. Are isolated steep-sided and round topped masses of rock that nise from flat plains
  5. Are sharpened and flattened rocks smoother in their wind facing sides due to sand blasting by action of wind
  6. Are depressions in desert regions resulting from wind removal of loose material from flat area or dry-uncommented sediments
  1. Sand dunes
  2. Deflation hollow
  3. Vent facts
  4. Inselberg
  5. Rock pedestals
  6. Yordangs
  7. Zeugens
  8. Barchans

3. Form four students from Anwarite girls secondary school were conducting a land Survey in order to determine linear measurement to establish vegetable gardens and determine bounder of the school land for different uses. In light of this statement answer questions below

  1. Identify the survey techniques used by students
  2. Give two importance of survey technique used above
  3. Explain why survey technique identified above is referred to as simplest method of surveying give 2 reasons
  4. What was the first step employed in the survey technique you have identified above and why do you think the step is important to survey team?
  5. Suppose in process of surveying in survey technique. You have identified above, the survey team encountered a river as an obstacle, with aid of well labeled diagram, suggest a suitable method they used to overcome the obstacle.

4. Study the following photograph and answer a question that follows.

  1. With two (2) evidence, name the type of photograph
  2. What is the name of dominant vegetation shown on photographed area?
  3. With one evidence from the photograph, suggest the climate of photographed area
  4. In three (3) points show how vegetations depicted on the photograph adapt to climatic condition of the area
  5. Name the feature appearing on the back ground of the photograph and describe the geomorphic process responsible for its formation.

5. Study the following table which indicates Electricity generation in giga watts per hour at Kinyerezi power plant in Tanzania from 2016 to 2020

Source/Year

2016

2017

2018

2019

2020

Hydro-electric power

1992

1769

1721

2613

2124

Gas

2265

2664

2872

2624

2873

Heavy fuel oil

781

1083

1133

784

1188

  1. Draw a multiple bar graph and precisely comment on the graph
  2. Give two (2) advantage and two (2) disadvantages of using multiple bar graph
  3. Identify two (2) alternative method which may be used to present statistical information from given table

6. Study the map extract of SIKONGE (Sheet 13712) and then answer the questions

  1. Using the given RF scale, determine the length of the road in Kilometers from grid reference 740829 to grid reference 760881
  2. Determine the area at the right hand side of northing 800 in km2
  3. With examples, name two (2) ways used to show height of the land on the mapped area
  4. Under what climatic region is mapped area found?
  1. Draw and label eight features of ocean floor
  2. Explain six (6) challenges facing green tourism

SECTION C. (30 MARKS)

Answer any two (2) questions

9. Solar energy is the friendliest source to environment. However it is not harnessed in large quantities on other sources. What might be reasons for the problem and possible solutions give six points

10. Tanzania is known to have a conducive and prospective geological environment with abundant potential of mineral deposits. In six (6) points explain the importance of mining sector to economy of Tanzania

11. In six points, explain factors affecting soil formation in Ngara District.


LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 154

PRESENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

COMPETENCY BASED EXAMS

BIOLOGY FORM THREE

ANNUAL EXAMINATIONS- 2023

TIME: 2:30 HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B carries fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4. All writings must be in blue or black ink except drawings which should be in pencil.
  5. All communication devices, programmable calculators and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  6. Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheet(s).

SECTION A (16 MARKS)

1. For each of the following items (i) – (x) Choose the most correct answer correct answer from among given alternatives given.

  1. After visiting Tarangire National parks, Peter saw organism which had similar feeding habit. What term can be used to describe this organism?
  1. Community
  2. Trophic level
  3. Food chain
  4. Food web
  5. Habitat
  1. Monica found an Organism shaped like an umbrella in a damping site. Which statement is true about the organisms?
  1. It is a mushroom and belongs to phylum Ascomycota
  2. It is yeast and belongs to phylum Basidiomycota
  3. It is mushroom and belongs to phylum Basidiomycota
  4. It is Mucor and belongs to phylum Ascomycota
  5. It is Yeast and belongs to phylum Ascomycota.
  1. David, A bus driver was preparing items for his first Aid Kit Which one did she not include?
  1. A pair of scissors
  2. Touch
  3. Sterilized cotton wool
  4. Amoxylin Tablets
  1. Juma ate a meal consisting of protein. Where did the digestion of the meal begum?
  1. Mouth
  2. Duodenum
  3. Stomach
  4. Small intestine
  5. Ileum
  1. During an investigation a form II student put a piece of bread in a wet cupboard, after a few days the bread was covered with grayish substance. What are the name of the substance?
  1. Penicillium
  2. Rhizopus stononifer
  3. Entamoeba histolytic
  4. Agaricus compestris
  5. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
  1. In a motor car accident the bus driver found that he could hardly maintain equilibrium, which of the structure was damaged?
  1. Semi-circular canal
  2. Fore brain
  3. Medulla Oblangata
  4. Eustachian Tube
  5. The cochlea
  1. Dr. Nambena received medical results from laboratory and identified that the victim suffered from filicidal woman infection. Which of the following disease is typical caused by above worms?
  1. Lymphloma
  2. Elephantiasin
  3. Oedema
  4. Thrombosis
  5. Arteriosclerosis
  1. The glomenulars filtrate contains the following materials
  1. Glucose molecules, water, urea and dissolved mineral salt
  1. Cells, protein and glucose
  2. Uric acid, proteins and urea
  3. Vitamin, urea and water
  4. Mineral salts, proteins and glucose
  1. The part of ear which convert sound signals into nerve impulse which are transmitted to brain include
  1. Ear Ossicles
  2. Semicircular canal
  3. Cochlea
  4. Eustachian Tube
  5. Ear dram
  1. The part of compound Microscope which help to concentrate light into beams to
  1. Ocular tube
  2. Condenser
  3. Mirror
  4. Revolving nosepiece
  5. Diaphragm
  1. Match items from LIST A with correct phrase in LIST B by writing the letter of correct response from LIST B against item number in LIST A.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Muscles
  2. Smooth Muscles
  3. Cardiac muscles
  4. Skeletal Muscles
  5. Tendon
  6. Ligament
  1. Have no ability to relax and contract
  2. Biceps and Triceps muscle
  3. Smooth muscles with disc between cells
  4. Space between bone and bone
  5. Contractile tissue specialized for relaxation and contraction to bring about movement and locomotion
  6. Muscles made up of long fibers that cover bones
  7. Muscles made up of long tapered and cells found in most of internal organs
  8. Connective tissue which attach muscles to bones
  9. Fibers tissue that join bone to bone
  10. Muscle that are able to contract without suffering fatigue and not under influence of Nervous system.

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

3. (a)Give three factors that Aid in Ultra filtration in the glomenulars

(b)Give explanation of the following

  1. Plasma proteins are absent in glomerular filtrate
  2. Urine of a normal person does not have glucose
  3. During cold days one produces large quantities of dilute Urine

(c) State 3 adaptation of convoluted tubule to re-absorption

  1. (a)Sate any three adaptations of the leaf to photosynthesis

(b)How do the following factors affect rate of photosynthesis

  1. Chlorophyll
  2. Sunlight
  3. Carbon dioxide
  1. (a) During cooking a cook unfortunately touched a hot charcoal burner. He pulled in hand abruptly.
  1. What is the name of that response
  2. What is the name given to pathway which describe response in 8a(i) above

(b) Illustrate the pathway of an impulse from the sense organs to effectors of the cooks’ hand

  1. Juma visited Mikumi National park and saw the following organisms, Zebra, giraffe, lion grasses, Mushroom, hyena and antelope.
  1. Construct two (2) food chains from organism observed in the National park
  2. Construct a simple food web
  3. Identify organism which are
  1. Producer
  2. Secondary consumer
  3. Decomposer
  1. (a)Draw a diagram of maize cell and label the parts responsible for the following functions.
  1. Control all activities of cell
  2. Provide shape of the cell
  3. Chemical reaction occur here

(b)How is maize cell different from cell of a goat?

  1. (a)A flower was found to have conspicuous petals scented and firmly held stigma and anthers
  1. What is likely agent of pollination of the flower?
  2. What is the significance of firm held stigma in the flower?

(b)Briefly explain the rule the following structures in flowers

  1. Petal
  2. Stigma
  3. Ovary
  4. Style
  5. Anther

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer two (2) questions in this section

  1. (a)Explain why
  1. The rate of breathing increase quickly during exercise
  2. Is better to breathe through nose than through mouth

(b)How are respiratory surface adapted to their role?

  1. Many people believe that fungi are harmful organism. As biologist, explain six ways in which fungi are beneficial to humans
  1. Humans in their daily life come into contamination with viruses, bacteria, worms, and other pathogens explain any six ways used by humans to prevent invasion and infections by disease causing micro-organisms.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 153

OFISI YA RAIS, TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

JAMUHURI YA MUUNGANO YA TANZANIA

MTIHANI WA MWISHO MWAKA

KIDATO CHA TATU

KISWAHILI NOVEMBA 2023

Muda 2:30

MAELEKEZO

  1. Jibu maswali yote
  2. Mtihani huu una sehemu A. B na C (Jumla ya maswali 9)
  3. Simu za mkononi haziruhusiwi

SEHEMU A (16)

  1. Chagua jibu sahihi katika maswali yafuatayo
  1. Neno lipi kati ya haya ni mofimu huru
  1. Uji
  2. Uzuri
  3. Uchache
  4. Ufa
  5. Upweke
  1. Ni kauli inayotumia maneno ya kawaida lakini hutoa maana tofauti na iliyopo kwenye maneno yale.
  1. Mafumbo
  2. Nahau
  3. Misemo
  4. Semi
  5. Hadithi
  1. Utokeji wa misimu katika jamii hutegemea na
  1. Uchaguzi wa viongozi
  2. Mabadiliko ya Kijamii
  1. Shughuli itendekayo
  2. Utani uliopo miongoni mwa wanajamii
  3. Kutumia na kudumu kwa muda mrefu
  1. Nyenzo kuu za lugha ya Mazungumzo ni
  1. Usimuliaji
  2. Mdomo
  3. Maandishi
  4. Vitendo
  5. Ishara
  1. Kipi kipengele kinachohusu mjengeko wa kazi za fasihi?
  1. Muundo
  2. Wahusika
  3. Mtindo
  4. Mandhari
  5. Lugha
  1. Kikundi cha maneno kinachoonesha jambo lililotendwa na mtenda katika sentensi hujulikanaje?
  1. Kikundi kivumishi
  2. Kikundi kitenzi
  3. Nomino
  4. Chagizo
  5. Shamirisho
  1. ni kauli ipi iliyotumika katika uundaji wa neno “Nitamfitinisha”
  1. Kutendeana
  2. Kutendesha
  3. Kutenda
  4. Kutendea
  5. Kutendewa
  1. Dhima Kuu ya Misima katika lugha ni ipi?
  1. Kuficha jambo kwa wasiohusika
  1. Kuongeza ukali wa maneno
  2. Kupatanisha maneno
  1. Kutambulisha aina za maneno
  2. Kuhimiza shughuli za maendeleo
  1. Ipi ni jozi sahihi ya vipera vya semi?
  1. Soga, nyimbo na nahau
  2. Methal mizungu na vitendawili
  3. Mafumbo, soga, maghani
  4. Misemo, mafumbo na vigano
  5. Mashairi mafumbo na mizungu
  1. Shule zetu zimeweka mikakati kabambe ya kutokomeza daraja la pili ili zibaki na daraja la kwanza pekee. Neno ‘ili’ katika tungo hii ni aina gani ya neno?
  1. Kiunganishi
  2. Kivumishi
  3. Kielezi
  4. Kitenzi
  5. Kihusishi
  1. Oanisha maelezo yaliyo katika Orodha A na dhana husika katika Orodha B. Kisha andika herufi husika katika karatasi ya majibu.

ORODHA A

ORODHA B

  1. Mada, Uhusiano, Malengo na Muktadha
  2. Umeupiga mwingi
  3. Nani Ugali mbuzi choma
  4. Baba Juma amefariki
  5. Hupokea mabadiliko ya papo hapo
  6. Kutumia lugha kulingana na kaida za jamii
  1. Tungo tata
  2. Utumizi wa lugha
  3. Lugha ya mazungumzo
  4. Simo
  5. Rejesta
  6. Humsaidia mzungumzaji kuteua lugha kwa usahihi
  7. Sababu ya utata
  8. Lahaja
  9. Lugha ya maandishi

SEHEMU B (ALAMA 54)

  1. (a)Unaelewa nini dhana ya misimu

(b) Onesha vyanzo viwili vya Msimu

(c) Misimu huweza kuundwa kwa njia tofauti tofauti

  1. Demu
  2. Kumzimikia
  3. Disco
  4. Ferouz ni twiga
  5. Mataputapu
  1. Batuli alitaka kuhifadhi methali na vitendawili kwa njia ya Kichwa tu kwa ajili ya kizazi kijacho. Lakini Kibutu alimkataza asifanye hivyo badala yake atumie njia nyingine
  1. Toa hoja nne (4) kama sababu ya katazo hilo
  2. Taja njia tano (5) sahihi ambazo unahisi kibuyu angemshawishi batuli atumie.
  1. Eleza kinagaubaga tofauti zilizopo kati ya lugha ya mazungumzo na lugha ya maandishi kwa kuzingatia vipengele vifuatavyo.
  1. Uwasilishaji
  2. Uhifadhi
  3. Manadiliko
  1. Lugha ina tabia ya kujiongeza msamiati wake kwa njia kadha wa kadha; kwa kuthibitisha dai hilo, tambulisha njia zilizotumika kuunda maneno yafuatayo.
  1. Kuku
  2. Mpangaji
  3. Kifaurongo
  1. TATAKI
  2. Fedha
  3. Msikwao
  1. Kitivo
  2. Pilipili

ix. Imla, mali, mila, lami

  1. Maendeleo ya Sayansi na Teknologia ni ndumi la kuwili kwa fasihi simulizi. Kwa hoja sita thibitisha ukweli wa kauli hii kwa kutoa hoja mbili.

8. Soma kifungu habari kifuatacho kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata:

"Ndugu wazazi, kumbe safari yenu inahusu harusi ya Maria ?".Mkuu wa shule aliwauliza wazazi."Ndiyo," wazazi walijibu kwa Pamoja bila aibu."inategemewa kufugwa lini ."Mkuu aliendelea kuhoji. Harusi hii ilikuwa ifanyike wakati Maria anapofika kidato cha nne, Lakini Maria huyu ametufanyia uhuni na vituko visivyoelezeka. Nasi sasa tunachukiwa kijiji kizima na kudharauliwa na kila mtu.Hii imetuudhi sana, tumetungiwa nyimbo na kufanyiwa kila shutuma. Hatuna raha ;hivyo tumeonelea bora tuje kukuomba umfukuze shule ili kiburi kimwishie .Nasi tupo tayari kukulipa kiasi chochote cha fedha ukitimiza haja yetu hii,"Mzee Abdallah alieleza." Muda wote mkuu wa shule alikuwa akimtazama Mzee kwa chati sana .Kisha akauliza swali la kuchochea zaidi: Maria ana kiburi kumbe?"

Mama Maria hakutaka hilo limpite ,hima hima akatoa maelezo yake ."Mama wewe ,Maria usimuone hivi. Maria mwanangu hataki kufuata utamaduni wetu wa kuolewa. Maria ati achague mchumba mwenyewe, ati mahari haiyoni kama ni kitu cha msingi. Kiburi hicho kinatokana na elimu mliyompa.

Mtoto sasa ameharibika .Anafanya apendavyo elimu gani isiyojali adabu.wala utii?" Mama Maria alimaliza huku jasho na machozi yanamtoka".

Hapa mkuu wa shule aliona kwanza awaelimishe kabla hajawatolea kauli ya mwisho.Alikwishatambua kwamba wazazi wa Maria walikuwa wameachwa nyuma na wakati .Kila upya wa mawazo waliuita kiburi.

Maswali

(i)Bainisha dhima nne (04) zilizotokana na habari uliyosoma.

Fupisha habari hiyo kwa maneno yasiyopungua 70 na kuzidi 80.

SEHEMU C: (ALAMA 30)

Jibu maswali mawili katika sehemu hii swali la 11 ni lazima

ORODHA YA VITABU

ORODHA YA VITABU.

USHAIRI.

  • Wasakatonge - M.S. Khatibu (DUP).
  • Malenga wapya -TAKILUKI (DUP)
  • Mashairi ya Chekacheka - T.A.Mvungi(EP&D.LTD)

RIWAYA.

  • Takadini -Ben J.Hanson (MBS)
  • Watoto wa Mama N'tilie - E.Mbogo(HP)
  • Joka la Mdimu - A.J.SaiTari (HP)

TAMTHILIYA

  • Orodha - Steve Reynolds(MA)
  • Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu Cha uzembe - E. Semzaba (ESC)
  • Kilio chetu - Medical Aid Foundation (TPH)
  1. Fasihi ya Kiswahili imemuweka mwanamke katika hadhi tofauti tofauti. Thibitisha Usemi huu kwa kutumia hoja tatu kwa kila riwaya
  2. Lugha ni mhimili katika kazi yoyote ya fasihi. Watunzi hutumia lugha kiufundi ili kufikisha ujumbe kwa jamii husika. Kwa kutumia jazanda au taswira tatu kutoka katika diwani mbili ulizosoma na uonyeshe namna zinavyofikisha ujumbe kwa jamii.
  3. “Ukiona mtu mzima analia ujue kuna jambo au mambo hayapo sawa. Kauli hii inaweza kuwiana na waandishi wa riwaya Juu ya jamii inavyowazunguka, kwa kutoa hoja tatu kutoka kila riwaya katika riwaya mbili ulizosoma, jadili kwa nini wasanii hao hulia?

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 152

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL, ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAM SERIES

FORM THREE ANNUAL EXAMINATION

041  BASIC MATHEMATICS

TIME:3 HOURS NOV, 2023

INSTRUCTION

  1. This paper consist of two sections A and B
  2. Answer all questions
  3. Calculators and mathematical tables may be used
  4. All diagram must be drawn by using pencilhttps://myfiles.space/user_files/30996_4958b541bbe404eb/1691674214_basc-mathematics/1691674214_basc-mathematics-1.png
  5. All writing must be in a blue or black ink

SECTION A (60 MARKS)

  1. (a)Write 490.032578 correct to
  1. 5 significant figure
  2. Thousandths
  3. 4 decimal places

(b)The anterior angle of a regular polygon is four times as its exterior angle. Find

  1. Size of each exertion angle
  2. Number of sides
  3. State name of polygon
  1. (a)Solve the following exponential equation

(b)Given log 52 = 0.4307 and log 53 = 0.6826

  1. (a)A painter placed 20m ladder against the wall of a house so that the base of the ladder is 4m away from the wall. How high does the ladder touch the wall from the ground?

(b)If  Where A is an active angle find

  1. Sin A
  2. Cos A
  1. (a)If  simplify

(b)Describe application of Logarithm in daily life

  1. (a) In following figure.  and  if =13cm and  Find area of BCDE

(b) What do the following terms mean as used in accounting

  1. Cash Book
  2. Assets
  3. Credit Transaction
  1. (a)A company bought two vans for Tshs 25,000,000/=each. If one car was sold at a profit of 18% and another was sold at a loss of 6%. In the whole transaction, there was no loss. What was profit made by the company?

(b) If the square of the hypotenuse of an isosdes right angle Triangle is 128cm2. Find the length of each side.

  1. (a)From the top of a tower of height 60m the angles of depression of the top and bottom of a building are observed to be 30° and 60° respectively. Find the height of the building.

(b)Three bells commerce tolling together and toil at an interval of 8, 10 and 12 seconds respectively. How many times do they together is 50minutes?

  1. (a) If the length of each side of a square is mix eased to 16times the area of Small Square. Find the length of one side of Original square

(b)A large rectangular garden in a park is 120m wide and 150m long. A contractor is called in to add a brick walkway to surround the garden by the same width. If the area of the walkway 2800m2 how wide is the walkway?

  1. (a) . Find the value of t

(b)Write “L” in terms of M, N and T from the formula

(c)Determine the value of x if

  1. (a) Let  be a universal set and A and B be sub-set of , if μ = {a, b, c, d, e, f, g, h}

A = {c, g, f} and B = {b, d, h} find

  1. The number of sub sets of set A
  2. n(A'∩B)

(b)The traffic lights at three different road crossing changing after every 48 seconds, 72seconds, and 108 seconds respectively. If they change simultaneously at 7am at what time will they change simultaneously again?

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions

  1. (a)The marks in Basic Mathematics terminal examination obtained by 40 students in one of secondary schools in same district were as follows.

60, 54, 48, 43, 37, 61, 43, 66, 65, 52, 37, 81, 70, 48, 63, 74, 67, 52, 48, 37, 48, 42, 43, 52, 52, 22, 27, 37, 44, 38, 29, 19, 28, 36, 42, 47, 36, 52, 50, 28.

  1. Prepare a frequency distribution table with class interval 10 – 19, 20 – 29, etc
  2. Find class that contain medium
  1. Find the mean
  2. Calculate the median

(b)Find the value of angle x in figure below, where O in the center of the circle.

  1. (a) Two towns P and Q on latitude 48° are 370 nautical Milles a part. Find the difference in their longitude.

(b)A regular hexagon is inscribed in a circle. If the perimeter of hexagon is 42cm. Find the radius of the circle and its area.

  1. (a)If  and. Find  and

(b)From the following information given by Mbeya Co. Ltd for the year ended 31st Dec 2022.

Stock (01.01.2022) ................... Three quarter of closing

Stock (31.12.2022) ..............  of Net purchases

Net purchases during 2022 ................ 432.000

Gross Margin ........................... 15%

Expense .................................... 20% of Net profit

Calculate:

  1. Cost of good sold
  2. Gross profit
  3. Net-profit
  1. (a)(i) With using table of values draw the graph of

(ii) State the domain and range of f(x)

(b) Solve for x and y if

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 151

 

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL  ADMINISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED  ASSESSMENT

COMMERCE FORM THREE

MID TERM EXAMS-AUG– 2023

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B carries fifty-four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  5. Write your name on every page of your answer sheet

SECTION A (16 Marks)

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer sheet provided.
  1. Which of the following element of communication is a pathway for the information?
  1. Receiver  C. Channel E. Decoding
  2. Sender  D. Ideas
  1. The means of advertising through which goods are neatly arranged to create an impact on customers mind so that they can be attracted to buy is referred to as:
  1. Magazine and trade journals D. Personal selling
  2. Window shopping   E. Window display
  3. Trade fair and exhibition.
  1. As a bank customer which means of bank payment is appropriate for you to adopt when funds is not immediately available?
  1. Credit transfer C. Standing order E. ATM card
  2. Direct debit D. Credit card
  1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the effective communication?
  1. It must be in a foreign language
  2. It must be free from personal prejudices
  3. It must be strategically planned
  4. It should be a two-way process
  1. Which of the following types of account is most suitable for a businessman?
  1. Savings account C. Deposit account E. Fixed deposit account
  2. Current account D. Personal account.
  1. Which type of bank account would you recommend to a lower income earner?
  1. Current account  C. Savings account E. Debit account
  2. Fixed deposit account D. Deposit account
  1. One of the following is not a business communication document.
  1. Employment agreement
  2. Friend letter
  3. Certificate of business registration
  4. Business contracts.
  1. Mr. Mango wants to communicate effectively in business. Out of the following, what should he consider?
  1. Name of the media owner
  2. Cost of the media
  3. The relationship between the media owner and the user
  4. Number of people to use the media.
  1. One of the following is not tools of electronic communication.
  1. Instagram  C. E-mail  E. Video conferencing
  2. WhatsApp  D. Pictures and photos.
  1. What is the term used to define the communication which involves the word of mouth?
  1. Oral communication  D. Formal communication
  2. Written communication  E. Non-verbal communication
  3. Informal communication
  1. Match the items in ColumnA with the responses in ColumnB by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer sheet provided.

Column A 

Column B

  1.  

Letters, folders, reprints, or other material sent through the mails directly to prospective purchases is

A. marketing mix.

  1.  

is a combination of marketing functions, including advertising, used to sell a product

B. Customer

  1.  

brings the product to the attention of potential customers.

C. Account

  1.  

allows the prospect to respond directly to the advertiser rather than going through a retailer or other middlemen.

D. Sales

  1.  

The client of an advertising agency is called

E. Direct mail advertising

  1.  

Emerges when people decide to satisfy and want through exchange.

F. Advertisement

 

 

G. Direct advertising.

 

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

  1. Effective business communication is the key for a business to grow and do extremely well in its operations. Justify this statement by briefly explaining any four points.
  2. a) Give the meaning of “BOT”.

b) Wema and Grace were form four students, after session Wema asked for help from Graceabout major differences between NMB – Bank and BOT, but Grace couldn’t help her at all. Now briefly explain to them about their concern (provide any three points)

  1. Many people always confuse between standing order and credit transfer because of the little knowledge on the banking services. As a commercial student, discuss any three differences and two similarities between standing order and credit transfer.
  2. Mr Mwakalobo is the businessman and has a current account at CRDB bank and is allowed to operate this account through e-banking, explain the benefits that he will enjoy by using this service. Give six (6)points.
  3. There are several elements of promotions mix available to marketers. Identify the factors that marketers should consider when selecting the promotion mix to use.
  4. Mapengo is the customer of Udugu Home appliances. He always prefers to buy various home accessories on credit.  Which kind of credit will be suitable for him and why? Support your suggestion with four points.

 

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer only two questions from this section

  1. In order the value of the currency unit and ensure that there is just right quantity of money in circulation in the country, the central bank should take appropriate steps towards credit control. What are the methods employed by the central bank in east Africa on credit control? Give six (6) points.
  2. Assume you have written an invitation card for business men to attend the day of launching your product, but at the day the attendance is not satisfactory. Explain five possible reasons that may be the cause of bad attendance and two solutions to the problems above.
  3. Assume you are a marketing officer in one of the marketing agencies in Tanzania. You are working with groups of farmers who are seeking to find new market for their products. Identify different functions of your institution in relation to this core. Give six (6) points.

 

Page 1 of 3

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 150

 

 

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL  ADMINISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED  ASSESSMENT

FORM THREE

MID TERM EXAMS-AUG– 2023

062     BOOK KEEPING

Time: 2:30 Hours                             August, 2023

Instructions 

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of nine (9) questions.
  2. Answer all the questions.   
  3. Sections carries fifteen (15) marks and B carries forty (40) marks and Section C carries forty-five (45) marks.
  4. All writings must be in blue or black ink.
  5. Non – programmable calculators may be used.
  6. All communication devices, programmable calculators and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  7. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s).

 


SECTION A (15 Marks)  

Answer all questions in this section 

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided:
  1. How could purchases of a non- current assets by cheques affect the statement of financial position?
  1. By decreasing non-current assets account and decreasing bank account 
  2. By increasing bank account and decreasing asset account 
  3. By increasing non-current asset account and decreasing cash account 
  4. By increasing cash account and decreasing asset account 
  5. By increasing non-current asset account and decreasing bank account 
  1. Amount of surplus in a statement of income and expenditure account indicates:
  1. Excess of income over expenditure  
  2. Excess of cash received over credit sales
  3. Excess of expenditure over income
  4.  Excess of gross profit over expenses
  5. Excess of expenses over net profit
  1. Government expenditures on items from which the government attains no value are called.


  1. Development expenditure.
  2. Recurrent expenditure.
  3. Capital expenditure.
  4. Revenue expenditure
  5. Nugatory expenditure.

 


  1. Which items would appear under non-current liabilities in the statement of financial position?
  1. TZS 700,000/= 5 years Loan from NBC. 
  2. TZS 900,000/= of Credit purchases 
  3. TZS 500,000/= paid for expenses 
  4. TZS 600,000/= 10 months Loan from NMB
  5. TZS 800,000/= 6 months Loan from CRDB
  1. On 20th July, 2023, Mtumzima, a sole trader purchased a machinery for cash paying TZS 3,500,000/=. What would be a double entry for this transaction?
  1. Debit: Cash account, Credit: Machinery account
  2. Debit: Purchases account, Credit: Machinery
  3. Debit: Machinery account, Credit: Purchases account
  4. Debit: Machinery Account, Credit: Bank account
  5. Debit: Machinery account, Credit: Cash account
  1. At the beginning of Accounting year, Wini Charity Foundation had TZS 140,000/= as non-current Assets, TZS 50,000/= as current Assets and TZS 60,000/= as liabilities. What would be its opening Accumulated fund?


  1. TZS 190,000/=
  2. TZS 200,000/=
  3. TZS 110,000/=
  4. TZS 130,000/=
  5. TZS 250,000/=


  1. Which of the following best describes Non-current assets?
  1. Expensive items bought for the business
  2. Items having long life and not bought for resale
  3. Items which will not wear out quickly
  4. Items which do not add value to a business
  5. Items bought to be used by the business
  1. ______________ are the books under which the transactions are entered before being posted to their respective ledgers.


  1. Accounts
  2. Subsidiary books
  3. Cash books
  4. Ledger books
  5. Note books


  1. “A company does not include the value of skills gained by its employees from training programs in its financial records.” Which accounting concept is applied?


  1. Dual aspect concept
  2. Matching concept
  3. Dual Aspect concept
  4. Money measurement concept
  5. Business entity concept


  1. A firm bought a Motor van for TZS 5,000,000 which had a scrap value of TZS 500,000, and useful life of 5 years. What would be the depreciation charge if a straight line method is used?


  1. TZS 1,000,000 
  2.  TZS 1,100,000  
  3. TZS 900,000 
  4. TZS 100,000 
  5.  TZS 500,000


 


  1. Match the items in Column A with the responses in Column B by writing the letter of the correct responses below the corresponding item number in the table provided.

Column A

Column B

  1. The ministry which has been generally vested the task of accounting for all government money
  2. A person appointed by the treasury in writing and charged with the duty of regulating funding issue from exchequer account
  3. Any person who is appointed in writing by accounting officer to authorize the expenditures for specific items of expenditures
  4. An account to which all government money collected from various sources are deposited.
  5. An officer appointed by the president of United Republic of Tanzania for controlling and regulating the use of public money
  1. Collector of revenue
  2. Authorized officer
  3. Treasury
  4. Accounting officer
  5. Consolidated fund
  6. Controller and Auditor General
  7. Warrant holder
  8. Exchequer Account
  9. Paymaster General

 

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1. Complete the following table by identifying the account to be credited and debited as well:

 

S/N

Transactions

Account to be debited

Account to be credited

i

Cash paid to Rahima

 

 

ii

A payment of rent by cash

 

 

iii

Sales of goods to Mtumzima

 

 

iv

Cash received from Julius

 

 

v

Purchased goods for cash 

 

 

 

  1. Use the knowledge of accounting equation to fill in the gap in the following table

S/N

ASSETS

CAPITAL

LIABILITIES

i

TZS 3,500,000

TZS 1,700,000

TZS   __________

ii

TZS   ___________

TZS 8,000,000

TZS 4,100,000

iii

TZS 4,900,000

TZS  _________

TZS 2,100,500

iv

TZS 25,600,000

TZS 17,900,000

TZS    __________

v

TZS   ____________

TZS 15,500,000

TZS 3,400,000

 

  1. Briefly describe the meaning of the following terms as used in book keeping:


  1. Accrued expenses
  2. Book keeping
  3. Credit transaction
  4. Carriage outwards
  5. Trial balance
  1. Winfrida is a business woman who owns a Jewels shop in Arusha. She is also a customer of CRDB bank. Winfrida prefers to settle her debts using cheques. In the last month, she wrote a cheque to Onesmo, her creditor, for which the bank refused to settle it. In five points outline the reasons for this to happen.

 

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1. Mtumzima Transport Company with the financial year ending on 31st December, bought two motor vans on 1st January 2011, No 1 for TZS 18,000,000 and No 2 for TZS 15,000,000. It also buys another van, No. 3 on 1st July 2012, for TZS 19,000,000 and another No 4 on 1st October, 2013 for TZS 17,200,000 the van No 1 was sold for TZS 6,290,000 on 30th September 2014. It is a company’s policy to charge depreciation at 15% per annum using a straight line method for each month of ownership basis.

         Required: Prepare for the year ended 31st December, 2011, 2012, 2013 and 2014.

  1. Motor van account
  2. Accumulated Provision for depreciation account
  3. Motor van disposal account
  1. The following information is available from the books for Ethan Wholesale Store on 1st September, 2021:

Balances in purchases ledger     TZS 120,000 (CR)

Balances in sales ledger      TZS 7,100 (CR)

Balances in purchases ledger     TZS 4,800 (DR)

Balances in sales ledger      TZS 163,100 (DR)

During September 2021:

Sales         140,000

Purchases         88,000

Returns inwards from debtors      55,000

Returns outwards from creditors       7,300

Receipts from debtors       91,300

Payments to creditors       76,700

Discount allowed        4,000

Discount received         2,200

Bad debts written off       3,800

Debtors cheque dishonored      7,500

Interest charged to debtors on overdue accounts     500

Sales ledger debit transferred to purchases Ledger   9,600 

Notes:

  1. 10% sales and discount allowed relate cash transactions
  2. 5% of the goods bought during the month were destroyed by fire, the insurance company had agreed to pay adequate claim.

You are required to prepare:

  1. A sales ledger control account
  2. A purchases ledger control account
  1. Mtumzima Entreprises had the following assets and liabilities on the date shown:

       01.01.2021         31.12.2021

 Premises          14,500     14,500

 Motor cars            2,800                 1,800 Furniture                                                                             3,500                                  3,200

 Stock in Trade          11,200      13,100

 Trade debtors          10,900      11,400

 Trade creditors                   14,600                17,200

 Cash at bank             1,330         3,980

 Prepaid expenses              670                  1,120

 Accrued expenses           1,300                     600

During 2021, Mtumzima withdrew TZS 3,000 per month from the business bank account for his personal use. On 4 July 2021 he sold his personal car for TZS 12,000 and paid the proceeds into the business bank account.

Required:

Calculate the net profit or loss made by Mtumzima for year ended 31st December, 2021.


 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 149

OFISI YA RAIS

TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

MITIHANI YA KUJIPIMA KWA SEKONDARI 

                           MTIHANI WA NUSU MUHULA WA PILI

KISWAHILI KIDATO CHA TATU

 

MUDA: MASAA 3                                                                         AUG 2023

 

MAELEKEZO

1.      Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C

2.      Jibu maswali yote sehemu A na B na maswali 2 sehemu C

3.      Zingatia maelekezo ya kila swali

 

SEHEMU A (ALAMA 16) JIBU MASWALI YOTE.

1. Chagua jibu sahihi katika vipengele (i-x) kisha andika herufi ya jibu sahihi katika karatasi ya kujibia.

i.      Huyu ni mwanafunzi hodari sana. Je “ni” ni aina gani ya neon.

a)      Kitenzi shirikishi

b)      Kiunganisha

c)      Kitenzi kisaidizi

d)      Kielezi cha wakati

 

ii.      Njia ipi ni ya uhifadhi wa fasihi simulizi inayoweza kupokea mabadiliko kwa haraka kati ya hizi

a)      Maandishi

b)      Vinasa sauti

c)      Kichwa                                     (d)Kanda za video

 

iii.      Tofauti ndogondogo zinazojitokeza katika lugha moja huitwa

a)   Kimtang’ata

b)  Lugha za kikanda

c)   Lahaja

d)  Kiimbo

 iv.      Wazo kuu la mtunzi katika kazi ya fasihi huitwa

a)      Ujumbe

b)      Dhamira

c)      Falsafa

d)      Mtazamo

v.      -------------- ni maneno yasiyo sanifu yayozuka na kutoweka

a)      Misimu

b)      Rejesta

c)      Msamiati

d)      Kishazi tegemezi

vi.      Kisawe cha neno umaskini

a)      Ukwasi

b)     Ubahili

c)      Ujima

d)     Ukata vii. Ni neno pamoja na taarifa zake kwenye kamusi huitwa

a)      Kidahizo

b)      Kitomeo

c)      Msamiati

d)      Muundo

viii.      Utofauti wa kazi za kifasihi toka muandishi mmoja dhidi ya mwingine husababishwa na 

a)      Mtindo wa kazi

b)      Dhamira za kazi za fasihi

c)      Migogoro ya kazi husika

d)      Muundo wa kazi ya fasihi

 ix.      Moja ya sifa kuu ya kirai ni 

a)      Kukaa sehemu yeyote katika sentensi 

b)      Hakina muundo wa kiima na kiarifu

c)      Hutoa maana kamili

d)      Huwa na muundo wa kiima na kiarifu

x.      Neon lipi kati ya maneno haya linaweza kudokeza mtenda au mtendwa wa jambo

a)      Kiunganishi

b)      Kihisishi

c)      Kielezi

d)      Kivumishi

2.      (a) Oanisha dhana katika orodha A kwa kuchagua herufi ya dhana husika kutoka orodha B kisha andika herufi ya jibu sahihi katika karatasi ya kujibia. 

 

ORODHA A

ORODHA B

I.   Tungo shurutia

II.   Kosa la mpangilio mbaya wa viambishi

III.   Maneno yasiyo sanifu yanayozungumzwa na kikundi kidogo cha watu

IV.  Viambajengo vya sentensi

V.    Sehemu ya nchi kavu iliyochongoka na kuingia baharini

VI.  siataimba

A.    Ghubu

B.     Mpegani

C.     Ukanushi

D.    Anampigia pasi

E.     Rasi

F.      Ukimwonw ndani ya gari utamlipia nauli

G.    Kiima na kiarifu

H.    Simo

I.        Misemo

J.       jakabu

 

 

 

SEHEMU B (ALAMA 54)

 

3.      Wewe ni mwanafunzi wa shule ya sekondari Mazinyungu iliyopo Morogoro.

Umepokea barua kutoka kaka yako aitwaye Amani Furaha anayeishi Tabora S.L.P 300  pamoja na kukujulia hali amekueleza vipi wanavyoendelea huko kwenu Tabora. Pia ametaka uwajulishe ni lini utakwenda huko Tabora. Kutokanaa na ratiba ya shule kukubana unatarajia kwenda utakapofunga shule mwezi Septemba mjulishe kwa kutumia simu ya maandishi jina lako liwe Tusekele Amani.

4.      Kw kutoa hoja nne na mifano eleze jinsi matumizi ya picha na michoro yanavyosaidia matumizi ya kamusi.

5.      (a) toa dhana ya sentensi

(b)  sentensi za Kiswahili hujipambaua kwa sifa zake (taja 3).

(c)   changanua sentensi zifuatazo kwa mkabala wa kimuundo na kimapokeo

(i)     watu wote walimsikilza Rais (kwa njia ya matawi)

(ii)  wao wanaimba lakini sis tuanacheza ngoma (kwa njia ya jedwali)

6.      (a) nini maana ya mzizi wa neon

(b)  Onesha mizizi ya maneno yafatayo 

(i)       Salisha

(ii)    Onesha

(iii)  Onyana 

(iv)   Mpiganaji

(c)   Eleza maana ya istilahi zifuatazo

(i)       Sarufi

(ii)    Kitomeo

(iii)  Lugha

(iv)   Kielezi

7.      Kwa kutumia mifano toshelezi toa uthibitisho wa kiisimu wa Kiswahili ni kibantu.

8.      Kwa kuzingatia maumbo ya umoja na wingi tunga sentensi mbili kwa kila ngeli zifuatazo 

(a)                YU-A-WA

(b)               KI-VI

(c)                U-ZI

(d)               I-ZI                                 

(e)LI-YA. 

 

SEHEMU C (ALAMA 30)

JIBU MASWALI MAWILI KUTOKA SEHEMU HII

9.      Ujio wa waarabu ulisaidia sana kukuza lugha ya Kiswahili. Thibitisha kauli hii kwa hoja zisizopungua nne (4).

10.  Wanaisimu huona kuwa fasihi simulizi ni bora kuliko fasihi andishi. Kwa kutumia hoja tano (5) thibitisha ukweli huu.

11.  Methali zinafunza na zinaweza kupotosha jamii zisipotumika kwa ukamilifu kwwa kutumia methali tano (5) thibitisha kila moja inayoweza kufunza na kupotosha.

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 148

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL, ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAM SERIES

FORM THREE MID TERM EXAMINATION

041                                                               BASIC MATHEMATICS

TIME:3 HOURS                                                                                                                                                                                                                    AUG, 2023

INSTRUCTION

1. This paper consist of two sections A and B

2. Answer all questions

3. Calculators and mathematical tables may be used

4. All diagram must be drawn by using pencil

5. All writing must be in a blue or black ink

                                SECTION A (60 MARKS)

1. (a) If a=write in the form of a/b where b≠0 

(b)Three bells are set to ring at intervals of 12 minutes,15 minutes and 24 minutes. If they started together at 2:00 pm, then find at what time will the bells ring together for second time

2. (a)Find the value of X if ()x+3()-x=1  

 (b)Solve for X if log39-1=X2-2x-5

3. (a)If  = p+q√r, simplify by rationalizing the denominator and hence find the value of p, q and r

 (b)In a class of 100 students, 38 study mathematics,20 study biology and 45 study neither of two  subjects by using venn diagram, find the number of students who

 (i)Study both subjects

 (ii)Study exactly one subject

4. (a) A straight line has a gradient of  and it passes through the point (-1,2). Find 

 (i)Its equation    

 (ii)The Y-intercept

 (b)Make V the subject from   = 

5. (a) a radio is bought for sh.24,000 a sold for sh. 36,000.  Find the 

  1. The profit made
  2. The percentage profits

 (b) The operation ab = (a+b)2- ab

Find the value

  1. 32
  2. 9-

6. (a) The variable V varies directly as the square of X and inversely as Y.  Find V when X =5 and Y=2, When V =18, X=3 and Y =4.

 (b) Water from a tap gets into a tank at a rate of 20 litres per minutes. How long will it take to fill a tank that is 10,000 litres. Give your answer in hours and minutes.

7. (a) Find the first term and common difference of an arithmetic progression whose 5th term is 21 and 8th term is 30.

 (b) The products of three terms of a geometric progression (GP) is 8000. If the first term is  4. Find the second term and the third term. 

8. (a) How many grams are there 0.00912 tones?

 (b) A ladder 15cm long leans against of vertical wall so that angles make with the horizontal ground is two times that makes vertical wall. Calculate how far up the wall does the ladder reaches?

9. (a) Basil has to share eighty books with his daughters Rose and Nancy. He decided that for every two books Nancy gets, Rose gets three books and he gets five books. Find the number of books each gets.

 (b) Solve by elimination method          2x – y = 1

                                                               x + y = 1

10. (a) Solve the quadratic equation x2-8x+7=0 by completing the square

 (b) A field is 10m longer than its wide. The area is 7200m2. What is the width?

                                           SECTION B (40 MARKS)

11. The table below represents score of 100 students in geography test

   

Marks ()

40 - 49

50 - 59

60 - 69

70 - 79

80 - 89

90 – 99

Frequency

       7

      13

      36

       30

       X

        4

  1. Determine the value of X

(b)  By using assumed A=74.5, determine mean

(c)  Find mode

 (d)  Find median

 

12. (a) Kwembe went to the market with 3000Tsh to buy oranges and mangoes. He bought 20 oranges and 5 mangoes. If Grace went to the same market with 2000Tsh and bought 10 oranges and 5 mangoes. What is the price of one mango and one orange? 

 (b) Mchilo invested a certain amount of money in a saving Bank whose interest rate was 10 compound annually. After two years he got 5000 shillings.

(i) How much did he invest at the start?

 (ii) How much did he receive as interest at the end of two years?

13. (a) Given a function f(x)=x2-2x-3. Find 

(i) Line of symmetry

 (ii) The turning point

 (iii) Express f(x) in the form of a(x+b)2+c where a,b and c are real numbers

 (b) If f(x) is the function such that

                                                   

                                                     F(x)=

(i) Sketch the graph of f(x)

(ii) State the domain and range of f(x)

(iii) Find the value of f(100) 

14.  MRS CHENI started a business on 16thMarch 2023 with capital in cash 2,066,000

March 17 Bought goods for cash 1,000,00/-

19 Bought shelves for cash 110,000/-

20 Sold goods for cash 900,000/-

21 Purchased goods for cash 800,000/-

22 Sold goods for cash 1,400,000/-

26 Paid rent            300,000/-

 (i) Record the above transaction in cash account

 (ii) Extract a trial balance

                       

1

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 147

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED EXAMS

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

FORM THREE MID TERM-2 EXAMINATION

031  PHYSICS

TIME : 3HRS AUG,2023

INSTRUCTIONS 

  1. This paper consists of section A, B, and C with a total of eleven (11) questions
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and any two (2) questions from section C
  3. Show clearly your work
  4. Section A carries fifteen (15)marks, section B sixty (60) marks and section C carries twenty five (25) marks
  5. All writing should be in blue or black pen except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  6. Non-programmable calculator may be used
  7. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  8. Write your examination number on each page of your answer sheet(s)
  9. Where necessary, use the following constants
  • Acceleration due to gravity(g) = 10m/s2
  • Density of water = 1g/cm3 or 1000kg/m3

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the following items (i-x) choose the correct answer from the among the given alternative and write its letter beside the item number in your answer sheet

i. Which property of a concave mirrors is suitable for a dentist to consider when selecting concave mirrors for repairing dental related activities?

  1. The one that produce diminished images
  2. The one with wide field of view
  3. The one which produce virtual and erect image
  4. The one which produce larger magnification
  5. The one in which objects and images are seen clearly

ii. Why is mercury preferred in clinical thermometer as a thermo metric liquid as compared to water and alcohol?

  1. Its denser than other liquids
  2. It is opaque and does not need colouring
  3. It is more sensitive to temperature 
  4. It is active and does not net the glass 
  5. It is poor conductor of heat

iii. When a plastic pen is rubbed against a dry hair, the pen attracts small pieces of paper. This means that

  1. Hair becomes negatively charged
  2. Hair becomes positively charged 
  3. Pen loses electrons
  4. Paper loses electrons 
  5. Hair gains electrons 

iv. Which of the following statements is correct when the resistance “R” if a wire is measured using an ammeter, voltmeter and Rheostat?

  1. The ammeter is in parallel with R
  2. The voltmeter is in series with R
  3. A graph of V against I has a gradient equal to R
  4. A graph of I against V has a gradient equal to R
  5. The Rheostat is in parallel with R 

v. A form three student wishes t check the upper fixed point and the lower fixed point on Celsius scale thermometer. The student has four beakers namely P, Q R and S

P- Contains a mixture of boiling salt solution

Q- Contains a mixture of ice and water

R- Contains a mixture of ice and salt

S- Contains boiling water

Which beaker should a student use to check the fixed points?

  1. P and R 
  2. P and S 
  3. Q and S 
  4. Q and R 
  5. S and R 

vi. Refractive index of glass block cannot be evaluated from the following relation-

  1. sin i to sin r
  2. velocity of light in air to velocity of light in glass
  3. real depth to apparent depth
  4. Velocity of light in glass to the velocity of light in air 
  5. A and C

vii. A force prevents a body from sliding is called?

  1. Compression force 
  2. stretching force
  3. Frictional force 
  4. restoring force 
  5. Repulsion force 

viii. A stone is thrown from the top of a building 45m high at a speed of 12m/s. How long does it take to reach the ground?

  1. 15 sec 
  2. 5 sec 
  3. 3sec 
  4. 8sec 
  5. 2.03sec

ix. Racing cars rarely gets accident despite their high speed because they-

  1. Have greater momentum
  2. Have big tyres with big treads
  3. Have wide base and low centre of gravity
  4. Have less mass
  5. Exert greater frictional force 

x. “Extension of material is proportional to force applied” where is this statement belongs?

  1. Dalton atomic theory
  2. Archimedes principle
  3. Charles law
  4. Hook’s law
  5. Newton’s law 

2. Match the items in list A response to list B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the items number in your answer booklet provided

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Ability of liquids to rise or fall in a narrow tube
  2. Tendency of matter to be a state of randomly motion
  3. Ability of the surface of liquid to behave like a fully stretched elastic skin
  4. Attraction force between the molecules of the same substance
  5. Force which resists a fluid to flow
  1. Surface tension
  2. Buoyancy
  3. Cohesive
  4. Adhesive
  5. Capillarity
  6. Viscosity
  7. Plasticity
  8. Brownian motion
  9. Matter

SECTION B (60 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

3. a)i) A form three students from a certain school was unable to know the rules of locating an image by using converging mirror. List three rules that will help the students to locate an image when an object is placed in front of converging mirror perpendicular to its principal axis.

ii) A concave mirror is used to form an image of a pencil with the same size as a pencil’s objects. By using a well labeled diagram show the position of the image and state its characteristics.

b) A ray of light is travelling from air to water make an angle of incidence of 60o given that the refractive index of water is 4/3, what is the angle of refraction of the ray of light?

4. a)i) What is the turning effect of a force?

ii) How can the moment of a force be increased considerably in practical life? Give two examples.

b) i) Briefly explain why the handle of a door is near to its outside edge?

ii) A uniform meter ruler AB is pivoted at a distance of 80cm from end B. If 20g mass hang at end B. At what distance from end A must 100g mass hang on a meter rule in order to balance the rule horizontally? (Neglect the mass of the rule).

5. a) i) Distinguish between light spectrum and dispersion of light.

ii) Briefly describe how a light ray passes through an equilateral glass prism.

b) Figure below represents three primary colours combined together and answer the questions that follow

  1. Identify the colours represented by A, B C and D.
  2. What general name is given to the colours obtained by mixing two primary colours
  3. Name the colour produced as a result of mixing three primary colours.

6. a) Suppose you are given a bar magnet whose poles are not located. Briefly explain how you can determine which end of a bar is the North pole in the laboratory.

b) Explain the meaning of magnetic shielding.

c) Draw the following diagram.

  1. Arrangement of atoms or magnetic domains in a non-magnetic materials.
  2. Arrangement of atoms or magnetic domains in a magnetic iron bar.

7. a) State the relationship between pressure, force and area.

b) Explain why one feels not comfortable when he/she lift a bucket of water by its handle made of thin metal. What will be the pressure experienced if the handle is made of thicker metal?

c) The mss of the cube is 120kg, if it measures 50cm x30cm x20cm, what is maximum pressure that it can exert?

8. a) A positively charged rod is brought near body A and B if body A is at a distance of 1cm and body B is a distance of 3cm, which of the two bodies will be attracted more?

b) i) What happens when two positively charged bodies brought into contact?

ii) Explain why a pieces of paper attracted by a plastic charged pen after few seconds fell off?

SECTION C (25 MARKS)

Answer any two questions from this section

9. a) A resistor of 4? is connected in series with two bulbs of 3? and 6? connected in parallel. If two cell (battery) of 3V is connected across the circuit.

i) Draw the circuit diagram to show the arrangement.

ii) What is the P.D across the 3? bulb?

b) What is the advantage of parallel arrangement of a bulbs over series arrangement during electric installation at home.

10. a) i) State the law of flotation.

ii) Mention two conditions that can make an object to float.

b)i) Why hydrometer contain a large number below and small number above.

ii) Draw a well labeled diagram of Hydrometer.

c) A body weight 0.8N in air and 0.5N when completely immersed in water. Calculate,

  1. The relative density of a body.
  1. The density of a body

11. a) Car A is moving with a velocity of 20m/s while car B is moving with a velocity of 30m/s. Calculate the velocity of car B relative to car A if,

  1. They are moving in the same direction
  2. They are moving in the opposite directions

b) i) What is resolution of a force?

ii) Figure below shows a block being pulled along a horizontal surface. If a force of 20N is applied in direction of A at an angle of 60o. What is the resolved part of the force in direction B?

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 146

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

MID TERM EXAMINATION AUG 2023

LITERATURE IN ENGLISH

Time  3 HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of three section A, B and C
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only two questions in section C
  3. Write  your name on every  page of your sheet

                                                SECTION    A (16 MAARKS)

  1. Choose the correct answer from the alternative given by writing the correct letter on the space provided
  1. The following terms are found in the definition of literature except
  1. Art B. Language. C society D. Form E. Messages.      (      )

 

  1.  The creativity of composing the work of art and how he/she used the language is known as?
  1. Language B. Art C. Society   D. aesthetics E. relevance      (     )

 

  1. What make literature the work of art?
  1. The use of characterization, symbolism, imagery, and plot 
  2. The use of characters, exploitation and language.
  3. The use of language plot and humiliation
  4. The use of dialogue, monologue and customs
  5. The use of metaphor, simile, and exploitation             (       )

 

  1. John is the lion this is an example of…..
  1. Metaphor   B. Simile C. Euphemism   D. personification  E. Symbolism (   )

 

  1. The following are the function of literature except?
  1. Entertain B. Educate    C. Liberate D. Develops language E. erosion    (   )

 

  1.  ………….. is presented through written form
  1. Simile   B. Written literature C.  Oral literature D. Metaphor    (   )

 

  1. Refers to things said to cause amusement or laughter
  1. Parable B. jokes C. Fable D. Idioms E simile     (    )

 

  1. The type of literature that includes poetry , plays and novels 
  1. Genres B. legends C Parable D. prose  E. Narration    (    )

 

  1. Oral literature is older than written literature because?
  1. Undergo changes B. stored in people’s mind C. Its cost full    D. Started since man born  (     )

 

  1.  A person who compose a poem is known as
  1. Persona   B. Poet C. Rhyme D. narrator   E. novelist  (    )

 

  1. Match the items in LIST A with those in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct answer besides the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. The written script
  2. A play which has both comedy and tragedy features
  3. It has happy ending
  4. The hero/heroine ends into danger or death
  5. A sequence or arrangements of events.
  6. A type of drama which deals with historical events.
  1. Plot
  2. Play
  3. Comedy drama
  4. Tragedy comedy
  5. Tragedy drama
  6. Historical drama

                                     

             

 SECTION B     (54 MARKS)

  1. Read the following poems and then answer the questions that follow

 

BUILDING THE NATION

By Christopher H. M. Barlow (Uganda)

Today I did my share

In building the nation.

I drove the permanent secretary

To an important urgent function

In fact, to a luncheon at the Vic.

 

The menu reflected its importance

Cold Bell beer with small talk,

Then fried chicken with niceties

Wine to fill the hollowness of the laughs

Ice-ream to cover the stereotype jokes

Coffee to keep the PS awake on return journey.

 

I drove the permanent secretary back.

He yawned many times in the back of the car

Then to keep awake, he suddenly asked,

Did you have any lunch friend?

I replied looking straight ahead

And secretly smiling at his belated concern

That I had not, but was sliming!

 

Upon which he said with a seriousness

That amused more than annoyed me,

Mwananchi, I too had none!

 I attended to matters of state.

Highly delicate diplomatic duties you know,

And friend, it goes against my grain,

Causes me stomach ulcers and wind.

Ah, he continued, yawning again,

The pains we suffer in building the nation!

So the PS had ulcers too!

My ulcers I think are equally painful

Only they are caused by hunger,

No sumptuous lunches!

                             

So two nation builders

Arrived home this evening

With terrible stomach pains

The result of building the nation –

   -Different ways. 

Questions 

a.    What is the poem about?

b.    Who is the persona? How do you know?

c.    Suggest three literary and poetic devices used in the poem.

d.    What is the tone and mood of the poem?

e.    What type of the poem is this?

f.    mention two themes found in the poems.

 

4. Which literary term is being described by each of the following characteristics?

 (a) The references (quotations) which are made by the literary writers from either bible or any other known statement.

 (b) The story started by showing a gun and later on one of the characters uses it to kill his brother.

 (c) A character who changes his or her behaviour throughout the story.

 (d) Use of conjunctions to compare two unlike things 

 (e) A type of oral literature in which most of characters are animal

5. What are the possible five (5) challenge’s facing oral literature. 

6. With vivid examples differentiate the following literary terms

  1. Form and content
  2. Stage direction and episode
  3. Diction and point of view
  4. Riddle and proverbs
  5. Oral literature and written literature

 

7.“Literary devices are important in literature” support this question with four (4) points

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer only two questions from  this section. 

  1. language and literature are two sides of the same coin” Discuss (six point)
  2. Imagine that you have gone home. For the holiday and you meet your friend who is studying PCM at Sengerema secondary school. You tell her that you are studying literature in English and she says “The study of literature is the wastage of time”. Prove her wrong by using six (6) point
  3. You are walking to the school library and you meet your friends who are taking science subjects arguing that there is no any difference between poetry and other literary works like novels and plays. As a literature in English student give them six (6) points to solve the conundrum

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE LITERATURE EXAM SERIES 145

OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED  ASSESSMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY MID TERM EXAMINATION – AUG 2023

FORM THREE 

TIME: 3 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS:

  1. This paper consist of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions
  2. Answer ALL questions in section A and B, and two questions from section C
  3. Section A carry 16 Marks, section B carry 54 Marks and section C carry 30 Marks
  4. Write your Examination number or name on every page of your answer sheet(s).

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer ALL questions in this section

  1. For each item (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter beside the item number
  1. A researcher conducted her research in a certain society and found that some people had access in salt making. Do you think a researcher was at which center?
  1. Axum and meroe
  2. Axum and Uvinza
  3. Meroe and Taghaza
  4. Taghaza and Uvinza
  5. Timbuktu and Uvinza
  1. While finding food as a basic need of family, Mwajuma found Adija fighting much to get more than food. As a community development officer what other things apart from food do you think Mwajuma should think as part of basic needs?
  1. Food, water and soil
  2. Food, clothing and medicine
  3. shelter, medicine and food
  4. Shelter, food and clothing
  5. Food, education and health
  1. Some people goals are not being achieved due to the different factors. How can you assimilate this with the factors for the failure of assimilation policy
  1. Economic dependence
  2. Heterogeneous culture
  3. Minimizing of resistance
  4. Cheap economic
  5. Poor belief
  1. The existence of transport known as Dhows and junks used by Arabs and Chines were supported with the strong steady winds which blow across the Indian ocean known as
  1. The periplus of the erythrean sea
  2. Strong wind
  3. Monsoons wind
  4. Indian winds
  5. Steady winds
  1. We consume what we are not producing and we produce what we are not consume and this was due to the impact of revolution in industry. When did industrial revolution took place in Europe?
  1. 1000s to 1500
  2. 1700s to 1850
  3. 1890s to 1950
  4. 1650s to 1750
  5. 1750s to 1850
  1. There are many duties that performed by LAIBON within Maasai societies and he earn acceptance in the society. Which among the following prove that
  1. They were guardian of livestock and other types of communal properties
  2. They protecting society
  3. Finding pasture
  4. Grazing and milking
  5. Protecting livestock against wild animals
  1. You are invited by form one students to speak about feudalism that practiced in Rwanda, Burundi and Buha. Which feudal system will you talk about?
  1. Umwinyi
  2. Nyarubanja
  3. Ubugabile
  4. Kihamba
  5. Mvunjo/Busulo
  1. Before the coming of whites in Africa, Africans had medicine men and women who played an important roles both spiritually and medically. Which social interaction took place through this?
  1. Migration
  2. Marriage
  3. Religion
  4. Medicine
  5. Music and dances
  1. A history teacher selected some of students and used some sweets asked students to struggle on it then after she took some sweets that were struggled by students and she partitioned to them. This situation can be associated by
  1. Berlin conference
  2. European balance of power
  3. Scramble for and partition
  4. African reaction
  5. Struggle to acquire African parts
  1. Earning of African resources by Europeans was not easy due to the reaction of Africans, in order to earn easier exploitation European used coercive apparatus which are
  1. Discipline and well organized army
  2. Military and super weapons
  3. Good transport and weapons
  4. Legal institution and colonial military
  5. Armed force and weapons
  1. Match the description in List A with the corresponding historical terms in List B by using the letter of the correct response beside the item number.

List A

List B

  1. A name given to the trade that involve America, Africa and Europe before industrial revolution
  2. A name given to the process of exchange goods by goods
  3. A process that involve the exchange of goods between two different geographical region
  4. A name given to the process of exchanging goods between people living in the same area
  5. A name of the trade that involve the exchange of goods between the people of western Africa and northern Africa
  6. A trade introduced to replace slave trade
  1. Regional trade
  2. Barter trade
  3. Trans antlantic trade
  4. Long distance trade
  5. Local trade
  6. Legitimate trade
  7. Trans-Saharan trade
  8. Triangular trade
  9. Slave trade

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer ALL questions in this section.

  1. Allan is a form one student at Makoko secondary school but he is yet familiar with the resolution reached during the berlin conference in regard to the partition of Africa continent. Use the knowledge learned in History to make him familiar with the resolution reached. (Six points).
  2. The change of French administrative in Africa after 1945 was unavoidable. Support this statement with six points.
  3. The old man who born during the middle stone age , was invited during watoto shangwe show in ITV station to cerebrate a Christmas day, when he was there narrate the uses of fire during homo Erectus. What do you think he narrated? (six points)
  4. Why do you think indirect rule and Assimilation policy were equal as shillings? (Six points)
  5. Show factors for the development of centralized state. (Six points)
  6. There were factors in Europe that helped to make a step forward in industrial development. Verify (Six points)

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer TWO questions in this section.

  1. Explain how technological backwardness led to the defeat of Africans against the imposition of colonial rule. (Six points)
  2. A form one student heard saying that “studying history in secondary school is like killing a dead snake”. As an expert in History subject, in six points defend the subject against this notion.
  3. By using East African countries, show how colonial economy was characterized by super exploitation of labour and natural resources. (Six points)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 144

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

MID TERM ONE EXAMINATION, AUG -2023

FORM THREE

GEOGRAPHY

INSTRUCTIONS                                                                                           TIME:2:30

  1. This Paper Consist Two Section  A &  B With A Total Of Twelve (12) Questions.
  2. Answer All Questions In Section  ‘’A ‘’ And Two Question From Section ‘’B’’
  3. Section “A” Caries Seventy (15) Marks , Section   B’’ Thirty (30) Marks.
  4. Programmable Calculator , Cellular Phones And Any  Unauthorized  Materials Are Not  Allowed In The Examination Room.
  5. Write  Your  Name  On  Every  Page Of Your  Answer  Sheet.

SECTION A (16-MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS FROM THIS SECTION.

  1. For each of the items(i-x) choose the correct answer from among  the given alternatives and write its letter in the answer  sheet.
  1. Why does the sun appear large than other stars that are seen at night?
  1. The capacity of our eyes does not view far during the night.
  2. The sun is closer to the earth than other stars.
  3. The earth’s atmosphere filters out light from other stars.
  4. Daylight brightness the sun making  it appear large.
  1. Which layer of the earth forms the ocean floor?


  1. Mantle
  2. Sial
  3. Sima
  4. Crust


  1. In the field study students were told that , soil has a certain biological, chemical and physical characteristics. what is the general  term  for these characteristics?


  1. Soil profile
  2. Soil particle
  3. Soil properties
  4. Soil formation


  1. A girl was crossing a river and accidentally dropped her school bag in the river the girl cried as she observed her beg being pulled by river water toward the river mouth . what could the bag named in relation to the river action?


  1. River erosion
  2. River transportation
  3. River load
  4. River bed


  1. Husna and his young brother  Hamid like to play with wet soil around their home . they enjoy observing quick percolation of water in the soil . what type of soil were they playing with?


  1. Clay
  2.  Silt
  3. Sand
  4. loam


  1. which among the following is an extrusive volcanic features?


  1. Dykes
  2. crater
  3. Sills
  4. Batholiths


  1. One of the factors for soil formation is


  1. Organic matter
  2. Mineral matter
  3. Water
  4. Air


  1. The layer of atmosphere  which is nearer to the  earth’s surface  is called.


  1. Troposphere
  2. Stratosphere
  3. Mesosphere
  4. Thermosphere


  1. Which of the following is not a process  for chemical weathering


  1. Carbonation
  2. Saltation
  3. Hydration
  4. Oxidation


  1. Which among the following features are produced by wave erosion.
  1. Geo, wave cut platform and stack
  2. Blow hole, sea arch and levee.
  3. Tombolo , meander and cliff.
  1. Match the process involved in the formation of rocks in list A with the type of rock in list B by wring the letter of the corresponding response  beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

 

 

 

 

LIST  A

LIST  B

  1. Rocks formed when magma solidifies deep in the crust and can be exposed on the surface by agents of erosion
  2. Rocks formed when a molten magma cool and solidifies inside the rocks of the earth or on the surface of the earth.
  3.          Rocks formed as a results of deposition and compaction of remains of dead plants and animals
  4.          Rocks formed when different types of rocks are subjected to great heat and pressure.
  5. Rocks formed when sediments are deposited either by water, sand or ice.
  1. Crystalline rocks
  2. Igneous rocks
  3. Organic sedimentary rocks.
  4. Intrusive volcanic rocks.
  5. Extrusive volcanic rocks.
  6. Metamorphic rocks.
  7. Sedimentary rocks.

 

  1. A.   define the following terms.
  1. Distributaries
  2. Lagoon
  3. Levee
  1.   Delta is formed under  different conditions. Outline three conditions necessary for its   formation
  1. Explain the function of the following survey tools
  1. Arrow
  2. Pegs
  3. Ranging rod
  4. Beacon
  5. Tape measure
  1. Explain why temperature in the stratosphere increases with the increase in height while the mesosphere experiences a decrease in temperature as height increase.
  2. Describe the importance of water in the soil.
  3. What would you do to overcome obstacles such as pond in a chain survey?
  4. A.   Define the term soil
  1. Briefly explain four importance of soil to human life.
  2. Mention three sources of soil nutrients.

 

    

SECTION ‘’ B’’ 30-MARKS

ANSWER  ANY TWO QUESTIONS FROM THIS SECTION .

  1. (a) Describe discordant drainage system

(b) Explain the process of river transport and describe four ways in which a river transports its load.

10. (a) Explain two major forms of measurements in land surveying.

     (b) (i) Define leveling

  (ii) Explain four significances of leveling.

  1.          With the aid of diagram show the layer of atmosphere and describe the characteristics of each layer.
  2.          Show how human population growth relate with the rate of soil  erosion.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 143

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

FORM THREE MID TERM EXAMINATION

 ENGLISH LANGUAGE AUG, 2023

TIME :3HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

This paper consist of section A, B and  C with a total of ten (10) questions 

Answer all questions as instructed

                                            SECTION: A  (16 Marks)

1.For each of the following items (i-x) choose the most correct answer from the among given alternative and write it’s letter in the space provided.

 

i. Asha is ………………. at Mwendapole Secondary school

  1. Studying
  2. Study
  3. studies
  4. Studied

 

ii) Juma is tall, Anna is taller but Stella is ………………….

  1. Taller than all
  2. More tallest than all
  3. Most tall than all
  4. The tallest of all

 

iii) Mr. John makes and repair shoes. So Mr. John is………………..

  1. An optician
  2. Cobbler
  3. A tailor
  4. Mason

iv) Joseph ……………….the school compound everyday

  1. Clean
  2. Is cleaning
  3. has cleaned
  4. Cleans

v) A bicycle differs ……………. A  motorcycle

  1. Between
  2. From
  3. After
  4. Across

vi)  Mariam is suffering.............. malaria 

  1. Through
  2. because
  3. from
  4. At

vii) You speak English. The correct question tag is…………….

  1. Isn’t he?
  2. Doesn’t he?
  3. Don’t you?
  4. Aren’t you?

 

viii) Your brother’s son is your ………………

  1. Uncle
  2. Cousin
  3. Niece
  4. Nephew

 

ix) My sister takes care sick people in a ward is a ………………..

  1. Doctor
  2. Teacher
  3. Tailor
  4. Nurse

x) The Kigoma train accident is …………. Accident I never saw in my life

  1. Bad
  2. Worse
  3. The worst
  4. Worser

2. Match the items in column A and B to produce complete and meaningful sentences.

 

COLUMN A

COLUMN B

I. No sooner had the Simba vs Young match began................

ii. Although I am tired……..

iii. Inspite of their poverty.............

iv. Tanzanians speak English………

v. She has to wake up early in morning…...

vi.A foal is a young.........

A. I have to complete my task.

B. Goose

C. English was spoken in Tanzanian

D. because it will soon be raining 

E. but I have to complete by task

F. Horse

G. In order to do her work effectively

H. than it started raining 

I.  they lived happily

J. English is spoken in Tanzania.

K. In order to do his work effectively

L. When it raining 

 

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

3. Dictionaries use abbreviations and symbols to save space. What do the following abbreviations and symbols stand for?

  a. N

  b. (C)

  c. Phr V

  d. V

  e. BrE

   f. Syn

   g.AmE

   h.Pp

    i.Conj.

 

4.Fill in the blank with correct words from the box provided below.

(a)

   Own, mine, owns, Mary's, Juma's, belongs

i)That is …….. car. It is hers.

ii)This book……..to me.

iii)She ……..coffee plantation

iv)we ……..a small piece of land.

v)This is my house. The house is…………

 

(b) Fill the gaps with appropriate article

i) I need to by ……………. Orange

ii) Kilimanjaro is …………..highest mountain in Africa

iii) The Earth moves around ……………….. Sun

iv) Juma is …………… honest man

 

5. (a) Re- write the following sentences in negative form

i) Juma is watching TV

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Neema and James are helping Janet to clean the houses

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii) The doctor is talking to the patient at this moment

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iv) Asha and Anna are going to Mwanza today

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

v) The presidents is addressing the press conferences

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

 

(b). Write an appropriate questions tag for each of the following statements.

i) I am okay........................

ii) Wait a minute................

iii) Close the door.............

iv) You don't expect father to believe that....................

 

6. Make questions with these words. Use "is"  or  "are".

 (a) (at home/ your mother?)

 (b) (your parents/ well?)

 (c) (interesting / your job?)

 (d) (near here / the post office?)

 (e) (the shops / open today?)

 (f) (interested in sport / you?)

 (g) (at school / your children?)

 (h) (why/ you/ late?)

 (i) You/now/going/to school?)

 

7. For each of the items below change the verbs in brackets in their correct form.

 (a) I would have (give) him some money if he asks.

 (b) Hashim will build the house, if he (get) a building permit.

 (c) If she (purchase) more goods, she would (retain) her customers.

 (d) I will (talk) to her parents, if she (come) rate.

 (e) They (went) to school yesterday.

 (f) If you had ( send) me an invitation, I ( come) to your party.

 

8. (a) State whether each of the following is a FACT or OPINION.

(i) Soil erosion destroys the soil..................

 (ii) Science subjects are simple compared to Arts..........

 (iii) The sun rises from East..............

 (iv) Food crops are more useful to farmers than cash crops..........

 (b) Re- write the following sentences according to instructions given after each.

(i) If he comes. He will enjoy life ( use: Unless)

 (ii) Joel is handsome. Dickson is handsome. (use: both)

 (iii) He sent to school for further studies. (Re- write in present perfect progressive)

 (iv) Jonathan scored four goals for his team. ( Begin with four goals)

 (v) He was sick but he managed to go to school. ( Begin with however) 

 

 

SECTION: C (30 Marks)

Answer ALL Questions in this section

9. (a) You have been in a boarding school for a couple of months and you almost feel homesick. Therefore, you have decided to write a letter to your mom. Write down five essential components that you would consider to make your writing friendly one.

 

 (b) Your sister has given birth to a baby girl last year and she wants to invite relatives and friends to your niece's birthday party, but she doesn't know how to write an invitation card. Help her to outline five important things to consider when writing it.

 

10. Your friend does not like to learn literature in form three because he doesn't know it's importance. Educate him by using only five hints. 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 142

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATION AUG- 2023

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS FORM THREE

TIME: 3HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer ALL questions in section A and B and three (3) questions from section C
  3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B forty (70) marks and section C forty-five (15) marks
  4. Cellular phones and unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  5. Write your name on every page of your answer sheet(s)

SECTION A (15MARKS)

  1. For each of the following items (i) –(x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter in the space provided (10 marks)
  1. The chairperson of Mjimwema village displays the village income and expenditure report on the wall, outside her office before annually village meeting. Which among the following is the principle of democracy demonstrated by village chairperson?
  1. Political tolerance
  2. Civic responsibility
  3. Citizen participation
  4. Separation of power
  5. Transparency
  1. In the corrupted society, officials exercise power than what they argued by laws, which means they are free to do that they think to be right and saves their interests. This situation can be termed as: -
  1. Abuse of power
  2. Corruption
  3. Rule of law
  4. Equality
  5. Equity
  1. After death of president John Pombe Magufuli, soon President Samia Suluhu Hassan took over after taking an oath in front of chief justice of the united republic of Tanzania. Taking an oath by elected leaders is not an individual obligation but is a lawful action. What does an oath intend?
  1. To bring an individual close to God
  2. To start new government
  3. To defend public interests
  4. To declare a person who won election
  5. To end the process of election
  1. There so many ranks in the hierarchal government of Tanzania, which controls the nation from the top to the bottom. Who is the officer in charge in the district government?
  1. District commissioner
  2. District chairperson
  3. District executive director
  4. The councilor
  5. Citizen responsibility
  1. In life skills it is said a person must appreciate herself/himself if you are to be successful. What can we call such stage?
  1. Self-esteem
  2. Self-services
  3. Self- awareness
  4. Assertiveness
  5. Self-expression
  1. Lack of public awareness, ignorance of the language of the law required and sometimes limited financial resources are the major limits for the civilians to defend themselves into the courts. In this case, private law firms and lawyers are responsible to defend the accused people in all judicial levels except?
  1. District courts
  2. High courts
  3. Residential magistrate courts
  4. Primary courts
  5. Court of appeal
  1. If you are to explain on the importance of human rights, which among the following are group of rights that cannot be claimed in the court of law and are not included officially in the documents of laws in the country?
  1. Civil rights
  2. Political rights
  3. Environment conservation rights
  4. Moral rights
  5. Economic and cultural rights
  1. There has been a campaigns led by the government officers that citizens has to employ themselves by stating and run their business. On the other hand, youth’s access to soft loans from financial institutions in the country in the so limited. What do you think is the reason for such limitation?
  1. Lack of proper identification
  2. Few number of loan giving institution
  3. Lack of entrepreneur skills and security of the loans
  4. Political conditions attached on the loan
  5. Ignorance of the youths
  1. Which among the given alternatives is the deliberately formulated rules of behavior that are enforced by a special authority?
  1. Laws
  2. Customs
  3. Traditions
  4. Norms
  5. Rules
  1. The essence for posting, drawing and keeping a road traffic signs along the road is : -
  1. Directing drivers
  2. Helping traffic police when they are tired
  3. Reducing traffic
  4. Managing the best ways of using the roads by roads users
  5. Abiding the laws

2. Match the physical processes represented by roman number (i)- (v) in LIST A with the corresponding terms in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided

LIST A

LIST B

  1. National heritage in terms of wild-life
  2. Readiness of the people’s spirit to defend their nation
  3. National sovereignty
  4. Symbol of freedom and Enlightenment
  5. Tools used by peasants and farmers
  1. Axe and hoe
  2. Peak of mount kilimanjaro
  3. Uhuru torch
  4. Elephant tusks
  5. Sea waves
  6. National flag
  7. Shield and spear
  8. A man and woman

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

  1. In Tanzania, there is an ongoing discussion for constitutional reforms in the country. As a form three expert in civics, point out five (5) importance of national constitution
  2. Tanzania revenue authority (TRA) is one among the entrusted institution for collection of revenue in the country for the best interest of citizen. In light of this statement, what are the five (5) areas where the central government spends its revenue?
  3. As a development stakeholder, explain five development models that are applied by many countries in the world including Tanzania
  4. Working hard is an engine for development in any country. If the community to join their efforts together it will bring development in all spheres in their areas. What are five importance of team working?
  5. Social interaction in a community contributes to the development in the society. In the light of this statement, assess the qualities of developing the positive relationship in a community.
  6. Despite of good human rights records in the country, Tanzania still suffer from the problem of human rights abuse. You as a member from amnesty international, propose five ways of combating with this problem in Tanzania.
  7. High standard of life and work are inseparable. In the light of this statement highlight five points on the importance of work to national development
  8. Assume you are an activist from Tanzania Gender Network program(TGNP), explain to the community five consequences of negative socio-cultural practices in Tanzania.

SECTION C (15 MARKS)

  1. Every organ of the government has its separate roles to perform as per the laws of the country, with reference to Tanzania, what are the five (5) functions of national electoral commission (NEC) during election period

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 141

PRESENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY FORM THREE

MID-TERM EXAMS – AUGUST – 2023

TIME: 2:30 HRS

INSTRUCTIONS 

SECTION A 

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the alternatives given
  1. A beaker containing solid carbon dioxide in placed in a fume chamber at room temperature. The carbon dioxide became gaseous. Which process describes this change of state?


  1. Boiling
  2. Evaporation
  3. Condensation
  4. Sublimation


  1. Which of the chemical reactions release energy in form of light and heat?


  1. Combustion
  2. Decomposition
  3. Displacement
  4. Neutralization
  5. Precipitation


  1. Laboratory Technician prepared a solution containing 26.5g of anhydrous carbonate is 5dm3 of solution and provided to form four students to calculate its morality. Which among the following will be the possible answer?


  1. 0.05
  2. 0.25
  3. 1.25
  4. 5.3
  5. 0.025


  1. In a blast furnace carbon monoxide is prepared by passing carbon dioxide over a red hot coke. What is chemical role of carbon dioxide?


  1. An accelerator
  2. An Oxidizing agent
  3. A reducing agent
  4. A catalyst
  5. Oxidized


  1. What volume of hydrogen gas will be produced when 1.3g of Zinc granules react completely with excess dil.H2SO4 at STP?


  1. 223cm3
  2. 130cm3
  3. 220cm3
  4. 440cm3
  5. 448cm3


  1. 10cm3 of 0.4M sodium Hydroxide are added to 40cm3 of 0.2MHcl. The resulting mixture will be


  1. Neutral
  2. Alkaline
  3. Dilute
  4. Acidic
  5. Amphoteric


  1. A metal nitrate which will not give a metal oxide on heating is


  1. Calcium nitrate
  2. Silver nitrate
  3. Lead nitrate
  4. Copper Nitrate
  5. Zinc Nitrate


  1. Which substance can be reduced when heated with carbon


  1. Aluminum
  2. Calcium Carbonate
  3. Iron II Oxide
  4. Magnesium Oxide
  5. Sodium Oxide


  1. What numbers of Faradays of Electricity is required to deposit 4g of calcium from molten calcium chloride?


  1. 0.1
  2. 0.2
  3. 0.4
  4. 0.3
  5. 0.7


  1. The reaction between hydrogen and iodine is represented by H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g)?H= -xKj/Mol: The reaction is


  1. Endothermic reaction
  2. Neutralization reaction
  3. Displacement reaction
  4. Decomposition reaction


  1. Match item in LIST A with correct response from LIST B

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Methyl Orange indicator
  2. Calcium hydroxide
  3. PH2
  4. Neutralization reaction
  5. Sodium hydrogen sulphate
  1. Normal salt
  2. Concentrated base
  3. H+(eq) + OH-(eq) → H2O(i)
  4. Composition reaction
  5. Strong acid + weak base
  6. Slaked time
  7. Strong acid + Weak acid
  8. Acidic salt
  9. Concentrated acid
  10. Neutral salt

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions

  1. (a)iron is extracted from various Ores by reduction in the blast furnace
  1. What is the Chief ore from which iron is extracted?
  2. Write equation for the reductions of the ore in blast furnace
  3. Explain the role of the following substances in the blast furnace, Limestone, coke

(b) If 0.5g of hydrogen gas in exposed to air. What mass of water will be formed?

  1. Juma drew a periodic table and then put a shadow on the element with atomic number 8
  1. What type of chemical bond is found between atoms of element
  2. Compound X contains 24.24% carbon, 4.04% Hydrogen and 71.72% Chlorine. Given that, the vapour density of X is 49.5
  1. Calculate molecular formula of compound X
  2. Draw and Name the Open structural formula of compound X
  1. (a)Hydrogen gas can be prepared by passing steam over heated magnesium ribbon as shown below

 

 

 

  1. Write equation for reaction that produce hydrogen gas
  2. Explain why the delivery tube must be removed from beneath the water before heating is stopped
  3. Explain why sodium metal is not suitable for this experiment

(b)Explain the following Observation 

  1. The colour of aqueous Copper. II Sulphate fades when a place of Magnesium metal is dropped into the solution
  2. A piece of iron bar is coated with a brown substance when left in open on a rainy day
  1. (a) 30.0cmof aqueous sodium hydroxide containing 8.0g per litre of sodium hydroxide were completely neutralized by 0.294g of a dibasic acid. Determine the relative formula mass of dibasic acid (Na=23.0, O= 16.0,  H=1.0

(b)Element U has atomic number 12 while element V has atomic number 16. How do the melting points of their oxides compare. Explain

  1. Figure below shows part of periodic table. The letters do not represent actual symbols of elements

 

G

 

 

 

 

 

 

I

 

 

V

K

L

M

 

 

 

 

 

J

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

(a)(i)Select element which belong to the same chemical family 

(ii) Write the formula of ions for elements in the same period

(b)The first ionization energies of two elements K and M at random are 577 Kjlmol and 494KJlmol

  1. Write the formula of the compound formed when L and I react
  2. Give one use of element V
  3. State another group that G can be placed in figure above
  4. How do reactivity of element J and K compare
  1.  
  1. Distinguish between Temporary Hardness and Permanent Hardness of water basing on their ions
  2. Using equation show how each hardness can be removed
  3. Giving four reasons explain why people who use hard water can expect high cost than people using soft water.
  1. (a) Give good reason for the following
  1. Natural gas is popular in heating and cooking in homes
  2. Nuclear energy is not sustainable source of Energy

(b)State the main raw materials and process involved in manufacture of each of the following products 

  1. Wood charcoal
  2. Coke
  3. Lamp Black
  4. Animal charcoal
  1. (a)Explain the meaning of each of the following terms
  1. Reversible reaction
  2. Dynamic equilibrium

(b)The industrial Oxidation of sulphur dioxide is summarized in equation below

2SO3(g) + O2(g)  2SO3(g) ?H=94.9 KJlmol

What will be the effect of each of the trioxide?

  1. Increase in moles of Sulphur dioxide
  2. Increase in Temperature
  3. Decrease of moles of Sulphur dioxide

(c)Give one good reason for the following

  1. Fruits ripe faster during summer than during winter
  2. Steel wire get rust faster than iron nails
  1. (a)State faradays laws of Electrolysis

(b)Dilute silver nitrate solution was decomposed by the passage of electric current through it. What mass of Silver and what volume of Oxygen measured at Stp would be liberated in electricity?

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 140

PRESENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

COMPETENCY BASED EXAMS

BIOLOGY FORM THREE

MID-TERM EXAMS – AUGUST – 2023

TIME: 2:30 HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions

2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two (2) questions from section C.

3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B carries fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.

4. All writings must be in blue or black ink except drawings which should be in pencil.

5. All communication devices, programmable calculators and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.

6. Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheet(s).

 

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

  1. For each of questions (i) – (x) choose the best alternatives from choices given.
  1. The skin can be described as multipurpose organ because beside being an excretory and touch reception organ. What else is among the roles played by skin in Mammals
  1. Organ for vitamin formation
  2. Sound reception Organ
  3. Temperature controlling Organ
  4. It is an Organ of corti
  1. A form two student found an organism shaped as an umbrella in damping place. Which statement is true about the organism
  1. It is mushroom and belongs to phylum ascomycota
  2. It is yeast and belongs to phylum Basidiomycota
  3. It is a mushroom and belongs to phylum Basidiomycota
  4. It is bread mould of Phylum Zygomycota
  5. It is a mucor of phylum Ascomycota
  1. A patient complained to a Doctor that the always suffers from the following, pain and difficult in Urination, back pain, nausea and vomiting, chills and fever and blood in urine. The patient was probably suffering from


  1. Gout
  2. Yellow fever
  3. Urinary tract infection
  4. Hepatitis
  5. Kidney stones


  1. Mr. Baraka visited his maize plantation and discovered that the maize had stunted growth and leaves had turned yellow. Which mineral did his plantation lack?


  1. Iron
  2. Calcium
  3. Nitrogen
  4. Sulphur
  5. Potassium


  1. When a bird builds a nest on a tree the bird, benefits but the tree neither benefits or loses. What type of relationship is shown by bird and the tree?


  1. Amensalism
  2. Parasitism
  3. Mutualism
  4. Neutralism
  5. Commensalism


  1. Amina was asked to identify chemical substances that catches fire easily, which one was it


  1. Corrosive
  2. Flammable
  3. Oxidant
  4. Irritant
  5. Harmful


  1. Steve was given iodine solution, which food can he test using it.


  1. Protein
  2. Starch
  3. Carbohydrate
  4. Non-reducing sugar
  5. Reducing sugar


  1. Accumulation of lactic acid in muscle is as a result of
  1. Aerobic respiration plants
  2. Anaerobic respiration in plants
  3. Anaerobic respiration Animals
  4. Aerobic respiration in animals
  5. Lack of water in a cell
  1. Hamisi started salivating as he saw a plate of rice and beef in a restaurant when he was on his way from school to home. Which part of brain in concerned with salivation?


  1. Cerebellum
  2. Central hemisphere
  3. Medulla oblongata
  4. Hypothalamus
  5. Hind brain


  1. The main end product of photosynthesis in transported away from the leaves by the


  1. Xylem
  2. Veins
  3. Phloem
  4. Vascular bundles
  5. Lateral buds.


  1. Match the description of the part of urinary system in LIST A with their correspondence terminologies in LIST B. by writing the correct letter beside the item number in answer booklet.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Renal vein
  2. Renal artery
  3. Urethra
  4. Ureter
  5. Urinary
  6. Bladder
  1. Tube that carry Urine from Kidney to the bladder
  2. Tube that carry urine from bladder to Outside of the body
  3. Stores Urine Temporary
  4. Collects the Urine from all collecting duct
  5. Take blood away from kidney
  6. Bring blood containing waste
  7. Carry blood toward kidney
  8. Functional unit of kidney

SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all questions

  1. Mkude in always suffering from sudden, involuntary and painful contraction of single or a group of muscles. When attempt to strenuous exercise
  1. Name condition he is suffering
  2. Give two causes of conditional named above
  3. State three ways you can active Mkude how to avoid this problem
  1. (a)In process of digestion, explain why food is
  1. Acidic when in the stomach
  2. Alkaline when in the mouth
  3. Alkaline when in ileum

(b)Name the organism that 

(i) Causes malaria   (ii) Transmits Malaria

(c)State two control measures of Malaria

  1. (a)How is human stomach adapted to

(i)Protein digestion   (ii) Churning 

(b)What happens to glucose synthesized during photosynthesis? 

(c)Distinguish between diffusion and osmosis 

  1. Imani was exercising long marathon during a hot day. He sweats a lot. When he felt thirsty he sat down on a rock and opened his back pack intending to drink some water. Unfortunately he had forgotten to fill his bottle.

a) Describe the mechanism which will be used to regulate water content in Imanis body until he reaches a place where he can drink water.

b) Explain why Imani may not urinate until he drinks water.

 

 

  1. (a)The diagram below illustrates a blood capillary surrounding a structure for gaseous exchange in human being.

  1. Identify the gaseous exchange structure
  2. Identify gases labelled Y and Z
  3. How does gas labelled Y reach inside of blood capillary
  4. How does cigarette smoking lead to lung cancer
  1. (a)Define the following ecological terms

(i) Trophic level (ii) A biotic factors (iii) Food chain 

(b)An ecologist carried out a survey to investigate the structure of trophic level in a certain pond. She discovered that trophic level become narrower as you move upward and become broader as you move downward. Give three reasons that bought such condition

  1. (a)Explain how plants respond positively through the following processes

(i)Nyctinastic process  (ii)Thigmotropism process   (iii)Seismonastic process 

(b)State the main function of vacuole in the amoeba 

  1. Give the name of the muscles which regulate internal body temperature. When the external environment is over heated? Briefly explain by giving three ways.

SECTION C (15 Marks)

Answer question 11

  1. Describe how the mammalian eye is structurally adapted to its function.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 139

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSESSMENT

LITERATURE IN ENGLISH 

FORM THREE 

TERMINAL EXAMINATION - MAY, 2023

TIME: 3:00 HRS  

INSTRUCTION:

  • This paper consists of 10 questions
  • Answer all questions in section A , B and C
  • Section A carry (15) marks section B (40) marks and section C ( 45) marks

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the give alternatives and write its letter in the answer booklet provided.
  1. One of the following expresses a factual information about the study of literature. Which one is it?
  1. In order to transform the wicked people in the society
  2. In order to understand our past and determine our future
  3. In order to understand our culture
  4. In order to be enlightened about different techniques and styles
  1. Which of the following is one of the unique features of poetry as compared to other forms of literature
  1. Poetry employs the excessive use of figures of speech
  2. Poetry is loud, people speak in tongues
  3. Poetry is a lengthy fictitious narrative
  4. Poetry directly addresses concerns of individuals
  1. The following items are found in a literary theatre except
  1. Costumes and masks
  2. Ropes and marbles
  3. Audience and curtains
  4. Adjudicator and actors
  1. Suppose your friend asks you to write his/her story, according to information he/she gives. What kind of writing are you being asked to present?
  1. Biography
  2. Eulogy
  3. Elegy
  4. Narrative
  1. In case you hear your sister singing some old songs for her child to sleep, what literary aspect has been provoked?
  1. Proverbs
  2. Tongue twister
  3. Riddles
  4. Lullaby
  1. A situation whereby a narrator of a story talks of another person’s account is referred to as;
  1. Point of view
  2. Straight forward narration
  3. Flashback
  4. Dialogue
  1. Agnes write by implying a style whereby the reader is tasked with supplying the words that appear not complete by him/herself. This literary approach is referred to as
  1. Simile
  2. Ellipsis
  3. Metonymy
  4. Fiction
  1. My grandmother often tell me stories of how cunning the hare is. In Literature, what is this termed as?
  1. Traditional stories
  2. Drama
  3. Anecdote
  4. Fable
  1. One of the following sets describe components of form, identify it
  1. Character, conflict and style
  2. Character, language and style
  3. Character, theme and language
  4. Character, language and relevance
  1. _______ is an example of written Literature
  1. Ballad 
  2. Style 
  3. Epitaph 
  4. Onomatopoeia
  1. Match the descriptions in list A with the corresponding type character in list B by writing the letter in answer sheet provide

Column A

Column B

  1. Meow, zzz, whirls
  2. Gun for war, pen for school
  3. Mr, Peter piper picked piece of pickled paper
  4. Is this your back that is bent?
  5. Sun wondered
  1. Alliteration
  2. Personification
  3. Rhetoric
  4. Symbolism
  5. Onomatopoeia

Answers

i

ii

iii

iv

v






SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer all question

  1. Define the following terms as used in Literature
  1. Simile
  2. Irony
  3. Satire
  4. Style
  5. Flashback
  1. Provide an answer for the following literary explanation/s
  1. A type of narration whereby a story is told from the beginning to the end.
  2. A group of people acting in a play
  3. Clothes that are worn by actors on stage
  4. People listening to or reading a literary piece of work
  5. Any form of literary work conveyed by word of mouth
  1. Compare and contrast the following literary terms
  1. Poet and playwright
  2. Stanza and verse
  3. Form and content
  4. Fairy tale and myth
  5. Novel and novella
  1. Fill in the blank space with the most appropriate answer
  1. Aisha endangers her life in a play, this play is __________
  2. Jameson is in conflict with antagonist character, he must be a ________
  3. My father was reading a lengthy fictitious narrative, the book must have been ________
  4. This story has issues that happened in the past and are being presented in the present, this technique is ___________
  5. Hante is a fictitious name that has been used in the story to reflect a bad person in the society. This arrangement in Literature is known as ______________
  1. Explain five characteristics of play that makes it different from novel
  1. _________________________________________________________
  2. _________________________________________________________
  3. _________________________________________________________
  4. _________________________________________________________
  5. __________________________________________________________
  1. Mention five readings that you study under the subject Literature in English
  1. __________________
  2. ___________________
  3. ______________________
  4. _____________________
  5. _____________________

SECTION C (45 MARKS)

Answer 3 questions from this section.

LIST OF READINGS

Plays

  • The Lion and the Jewel - Soyinka, W.
  • Trials of Brother Jero - Soyinka, W.
  • The Dilemma of a Ghost - Aidoo, A.A.
  • The Government Inspector - Gogol,N.

 Novels

  • A Walk in the Night and Other Stories - Guma,A
  • Houseboy - Oyono, F.
  • The Old Man and the Medal - Oyono,F.
  • The Concubine - Amadi, E.

 Poetry

  • Selected poem - Tanzani Institute of Education 
  • Growing up with poetry - David Rubadiri

9. Identify any poem that you have attempted as a class and analyse language use, themes, message and its relevance to the society

10. Pick one character in either of the class readings that you have attempted and explain why their presence in the play is very important

11. With the aid of any novel/short story that you have attempted as a class, discuss five ideas that have been communicated in the novel and how they relate to our societies

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE LITERATURE EXAM SERIES 138

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSESSMENT

ENGLISH LANGUAGE 

FORM THREE 

TERMINAL EXAMINATION - MAY, 2023

TIME 3:00 HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

  • This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of twelve questions
  • Answer All questions in Sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C
  • Mind your Handwriting and Neatness.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of items (i) – (x) choose the most correct answer from among the given - Alternatives
  1. Suppose your classmate asks you to give an example of a correlative conjunction, which one of the following answers will you give as an example
  1. Neither the boy nor the girl was punished
  2. The girl in the movie and the boy in black are good friends
  3. Although Peter was late for school, nobody punished him
  4. He did not commit any crime but was punished
  1. It is always a norm seeing people write “Dear” when addressing someone in a letter, which part of a letter does the term represent?
  1. Body
  2. Address
  3. Salutation
  4. Expression
  1. One of the following statements is an example of type 2 conditional tense, which one is it?
  1. If she made her bed in time, she would be praised
  2. If she makes her bed in time, she will be praised
  3. If she had made her bed in time, she would have been praised
  4. If she had had made her bed in time, she would have been praised
  1. Amina and Papa have a child known as Willy. How does Willy call Amina’s husband
  1. Husband
  2. Father in law
  3. Son in law
  4. Father
  1. Identify the statement which is grammatically correct from the given alternatives
  1. Am not going to the village this holiday
  2. I’m not going to the village this holiday
  3. I am not going to the villege this this holiday
  4. Im not going to the village this holiday
  1. Suppose you come across the statement “You like English, don’t you?” what immediately comes to your mind?
  1. Incomplete question
  2. Question tag
  3. Negative statement
  4. Literal question
  1. Japhet is fond of using inanimate objects to represent human characters when writing his work. How would you describe this act?
  1. Personification
  2. Animation
  3. Repetition
  4. Oral literature
  1. The higher you go, the _______ it becomes
  1. Cooler
  2. Cold
  3. Coldest
  4. Cool
  1. One of the statements explain the correct use of the word “few”, which one is it?
  1. There is a few milk left in the jar
  2. There is few sugar in the container
  3. There are few guests coming for dinner
  4. There are few cooking flour for our guests
  1. How would you respond to a question that demands the use of either of the articles “a”, ”an” and “the”
  1. “a” immediately before a vowel
  2. “an” immediately before a consonant
  3. “the” immediately before “a” and “an”
  4. “a” immediately before a consonant
  1. Match the items in column A with their corresponding answers from column B

Column A

Column B

  1. She has gone to the city
  2. She is going to the city
  3. She goes to the city
  4. She had gone to the city
  5. She went to the city
  1. Present simple tense
  2. Present perfect tense
  3. Simple past tense
  4. Present continuous tense
  5. Past perfect tense
  6. Present participle tense

Answers

i

ii

iii

iv

v






SECTION B (40 Marks)

  1. Change the following statements into Yes/No questions
  1. The bus driver is drunk ______
  2. They are in the field planting rice _____
  3. The thieves broke into the room _________
  4. The rain had stopped when the dogs started barking_____
  5. The English language examination was easy ______
  1. Change the words given in brackets into their correct form for a meaningful sentence
  1. We are _______(complete) shocked by the incident that happened last week
  2. The _____(compete) between the two schools attracted several leaders
  3. We have not been given information on any ____ (arrange) of the planned meeting
  4. The event ______ (organize) did a recommendable work
  5. From the look of his facial ______(express), he showed little hope in life
  1. Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given after each.
  1. She bought a new book (begin; a new book)
  2. This movie is not interesting (supply question tag)
  3. My mother did not cook porridge yesterday (Begin: Porridge _____ )
  4. I am tired, I cannot finish this task today (re write using too, to )
  5. The baby is not making noise, her mother is not making noise (join using neither …nor…)
  1. Re arrange the following expressions for a logical meaning
  1. Nice food is prepared in the evenings of market days
  2. Doors are closed and children go to the field to play
  3. In the evenings of such days, celebrations fill homesteads
  4. Tuesdays and Fridays are market days
  5. In those two days, villages are disserted

1

2

3

4

5






  1. The following sentences are in active voice, change them into passive voice
  1. My father likes pet dogs
  2. The teacher punished the naughty students
  3. Maria is riding a bicycle
  4. Pamela visited Beatrice
  5. Fred wrote a nice letter
  1. Write down occupation/profession of the people
  1. Teaches graduate students
  2. Teaches high school students
  3. Head of all teachers in a primary school
  4. Head of all teachers in a secondary school
  5. Handles books in the library
  1. Write a descriptive essay of argumentative essay on “A teacher is Better than a Farmer”

SECTION C (45 Marks)

READING: PROGRAMME;

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTION 10 – 12. 

 NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES.

Passed Like A Shadow  B. M. Mapalala (2006) DUP

UNANSWERD CRIES  Osman Conteh – Macmillan

Weep Not Child  Ngugi wa Thiong’o 1987 Heinneman

 PLAYS:

Three Suitors One Husband – O. Mbia 1994 – Eya Methuen

The Lion And The Jewel – W. Soyinka 1963 OUP

 POETRY:

Song of Lawino and Ocol – O. P. Bitek

Growing UP With Poetry – O. Rubadiri Ed. 1989. Heinneman

Summons  R. Mabala 1970 TPH

  1. Use a poem that you have studied as a class and make critical analysis considering title, poet, form and content.
  1. Using any one class reader (play) that you have attempted. Identify and explain social evils that are practiced, and could get society into trouble when not handled.
  1. Pick any character from any novel that you have read as a class and explain why you consider him/her as an ideal person whose virtues are worth emulating.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 137

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

PHYSICS FORM THREE

TERMINAL EXAMS MAY – 2023 

TIME: 3:00HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only one question from section c
  3. Whenever necessary the following constants may be applied
  1. Acceleration due to gravity “g” = 10M/S2
  2. Specific latent heat of vaporization of water (LV)=2.3 x 106 J/Kg
  3. Specific latent heat of fusion of water (Lf)=3.35 x 105 J/kg
  4. Density of water = 1000kg/m3
  5. Specific heat capacity of water (Cw) = 4200J/Kg°C

 

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter beside the item number.
  1. Diffusion occurs more quickly in a gas than in liquid because;
  1. The liquid contains a layer on its surface
  2. The gas contains semi-permeable membrane
  3. The gas molecules is small in size compared to the liquid molecules
  4. The adhesion is large than cohesion in gas compared to that in liquid.
  5. The speed of molecules in gas is greater than in liquid
  1. In a loading a lorry a man lifts boxes each of weight 100N through a height of 1.5m, if he lifts 4boxes per minute, the average power the man is working is;


  1. 100
  2. 10
  3. 600
  4. 37.5
  5. 2250


  1. In a process of charging by induction in static electricity
  1. A conductor is rubbed with an insulator
  2. Charge is produced by friction
  3. Negative and positive charges are separated
  4. A positive charge induces a positive charge
  5. Electrons are sprayed into an object
  1. Which of these resources of energy is non-renewable?
  1. Wave energy
  2. Bio fuels
  3. Radiant energy
  4. Fossil fuel
  5. Geothermal energy
  1. The temperature of a certain liquid is measured to be 273k. What will be its temperature in degree centigrade?


  1. 2370C
  2. 100°C
  3. 57°C
  4. 0°C
  5. 37°C


  1. The difference between a scalar and vector quantity is that;
  1. Scalar has a magnitude only
  2. A vector has magnitude and direction while scalar has magnitude only
  3. A scalar has both magnitude and direction while vector has magnitude only
  4. A scalar has both magnitude and direction
  5. All of the above mentioned are the correct answers
  1. Mercury forms spherical drops when split on a glass surface, this is because.........
  1. It has high adhesive force
  2. It has high cohesive force
  3. It has high surface tension
  4. It has high relative density
  5. It has high viscosity
  1. Repulsion is the force that push object against each other. This results when
  1. Magnet of the same poles
  2. Magnet of opposite poles
  3. Dipole of magnetic
  4. Magnet domain
  1. The movement of liquid from low to high concentration through a semi permeable is called
  1. Diffusion
  2. Fusion
  3. Osmosis
  4. Osmotic pressure
  5. Brownian motion
  1. An instrument used to measure length to the accuracy of 0.1mm is..........
  1. Tape measure
  2. Micrometer screw gauge
  3. Meter rule
  4. Venire calipers
  5. Classroom ruler

 

  1. Match the items in List A with responses to List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer sheet provided.

 

LIST A

LIST B

  1. The ability of a body to regain its shape and size after deformation
  2. Is the ability of the surface of a liquid to behave like fully stretched elastic skin
  3. Is the of attraction between the molecules of the same substance
  4. Upthrust
  5. 273K
  1. 0°C
  2. Cohesive force
  3. Capillarity
  4. Elasticity
  5. Surface tension
  6. Apparent weight lose
  7. Adhesive force

 

SECTION B

Answer all questions from this section

  1. (a)A body dipped in a liquid experiences an upthrust. Explain three factors on which the upthrust depends

(b)Two identical free running trolleys are on a smooth horizontal runway. One trolley is at and the other approaches it at constant speed of 20m/s

  1. Use the principle of conservation of momentum find the common speed of two trolleys after the collision
  2. Why the kinetic energies before and after the collision are different?
  1. (a)A uniform half metre rule is balanced at 15cm mark when a load of 0.4N is hanging at the zero mark. Draw a sketched diagram indicating the arrow of weight of the rule acting through the centre of gravity hence determine the weight of the half metre rule.

(b)A screw jack a screw pitch of 5mm and the effort arm of 16cm

  1. State two forms of energy in which the energy supplied to the screw jack is finally converted to
  2. Determine the percentage efficiency of this screw jack, if it needs an effort of 30N to lift a load of 750N
  3. Why mechanical advantage is unitless?
  1.  
  1. Define pressure
  2. Why at the bottom of the dam the wall constructed thicker?
  3. Why water flows more easily than other liquids like honey
  4. A person at high altitude suffer nose bleeding, explain why
  5. From the concept of pressure we explaining that pressure may be affected by several factors, mention at least three factors affecting liquid pressure.
  1. (a)(i)State ways to improve the efficiency of machines

(ii)The figure below shows the system of pulley used to raise a load by applying effort of 500N

 

State the velocity ratio and purpose of pulley 2.

(b)Given that the machine has an efficiency of 80%. Calculate the maximum load that can raised.

  1.  
  1. The specific heat capacity of a certain substance is 800J/Kg°C. What does this statement mean?
  2. Why do we feel colder when wet?
  3. An insulated cup holds 0.3kg of water at 0°C. 0.2kg of boiling water at standard pressure is poured in the cup. What will be the final temperature?
  1. (a)Give reasons for the following;
  1. A gap is left between two successive rails
  2. A glass tumbler breaks when hot liquid is poured into it.

(b)Mention three applications of thermal expansion of a solid.

SECTION C

Answer two (2) questions from this section

  1. (a)(i)Why in case of liquids we distinguish between the coefficients of apparent and real expansion whereas in case of gases not, Explain.

(ii)The absolute expansivity of mercury is 0.0018°C – 1. Find the apparent volume expansivity of mercury in glass given that linear expansivity of glass is 0.00009°C-1.

(b)(i)Define linear expansivity of a substance.

(ii)A copper rod has a length of 40cm on a day when the temperature is 22.3°C. What will its length be on a day when the temperature is 30°C. (liners expansivity of copper is 0.000017°C).

  1.                      (a)Define the following terms;
  1. Heat capacity
  2. Specific heat capacity
  3. Shortly explain the methods of heat transfer

(b)(i)Give three points that the amount of heat supplied or taken away from a substance depends on;

(ii)A 100g piece of metal at 100°C is placed into 120g of water at 16°C in the vessel of negligible heat capacity. If the final temperature is 28°C. Calculate the specific heat capacity of the metal. (Specific heat capacity of water is 4200J/Kg°)

  1.                      (a)The diagram below show a bimetallic thermostat used to regulate a cooler and heater in a class room. It consist a brass of linear expansivity 18.9 x 10-4K-1 and iron of linear expansivity 10.2 x 10-4K-1. To keep the temperature in the room constant, which of the two devices A or B should be the heater? Explain your answer.

 

(b)Three beakers are of identical size and shape; one beaker is painted matt black, one is dull white and one is gloss white. The beakers are filled with boiling water

  1. In which beaker will the water cool most quickly? Give a reason
  2. State a process in addition to conduction, convection and radiation, by which heat energy will be lost from the beaker.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 136

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

MATHEMATICS FORM THREE

TERMINAL EXAMS MAY – 2023 

 

041

TIME: 3HOURS

INSTRUCTION

  1. This paper consists of two sections A and B with total of fourteen (14) questions
  2. Answer all questions
  3. Programmable calculators, phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room
  4. Write your examination on every page of your answer sheet provided
  5. All diagrams must be drawn in pencils
  6. All writings must be in black/blue ink

SECTION A. 60 MARKS

1. (a) Equal squares as large as possible are drawn on a rectangular board measuring 54cm by 78cm. Find the largest size of the squares.

(b) (i) Express 2.7?9? as a fraction in the form a/b where a and b are integers and b0

(ii)Arrange 2/5, 5/8 ,48% and 0.6 in ascending order

(iii) Show on the number line the solution set of the inequality

?2x+1?>3

 

2. (a) i. If x2 +ax +4=0 is a perfect square . Find the value of a

ii. If x2 +bx +c =(x-3)(x+2) determine the values of b and c

iii. Solve the following quadratic equation by complete the square method x2 + 6x +7=0

(b) i. Solve 3 - image of (6x+9) = 5-2x

 

ii. If U*V =UV+V, Find x given that (x*2)*5=60

 

3. (a) Rectangular table top is 2m long. If the area of the rectangular table top is

3.96m2. find its width

(b) i. Solve the following simultaneous equations 

2x+3y=5

4x+23=5y

ii. If Fatuma is 4 years less than Bakari and 3 times Fatuma's age is equal to 2 times Bakari's age. What are their ages ?

 

4. (a) If  find the value of t

(b)Write “L” in terms of M, N and T from the formula 

(c) Determine the value of x if 

 

5. (a)If the 5th term of an arithmetic progression is 23 and the 12th term is 37, find the first tem and the common difference.

(b) In how many years would one double one’s investment if Tshs 2500 is invested at 8% compounded semi –annually.

6. (a) If y varies inversely as  and x is multiplied by n. What is the ratio of the first y to the second y?

(b) The headmaster has enough food to last for his 600 students for 20 days from tomorrow. If 120 students leave the school today for UMISSETA game, how long will the food last?

7. (a) The sum of the first six terms of an A.P is 72 and the second term is seven times the fifth term.

  1. Find the first term and the common difference
  2. Find the sum of the first ten terms

(b) Find the sum of the first four terms of a geometric progression which has a first term of 1 and a common ratio of 

8. (a) The gradient of line L1is -2. Another line L2 is perpendicular to L1 and passes through point (-3, -2). What is the equation of L2?

(b) The distance between (1,5) and (k+5, k+1) is 8. Find K, given that it is positive

9. (a) Find the value of

Without using mathematical tables. 

(b) Calculate the angles of a triangle which has sides of lengths 4m, 5m and 7m

10. (a). Given that x2 y2 = 27 and x + y = 9 find the value of xy

(b). Solve the equation 2x2 – 3x – 5 = 0 by completing the square.

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions

11. (a) The number of workers absent in 52 working days is given in a cumulative frequency table below

No.of absent

0 – 4

5 – 9

10 – 14

15 – 19

20 – 24

25 - 29

Cumulative frequency

5

13

30

45

48

52

Find 

  1. Percentage of workers who are absent at least for 20 days
  2. Median

 

(b) Find the angle x in the figure below

image

12. (a) A ship sails from point A (40) due west along the same latitude to point B for 1000km. Find the latitude and longitude of point B. Use R=6370km and  (give your answer in nearest degree)

(b) VABCD is a pyramid with VA=VB=VC=VD=5cm and ABCD is a square base of sides 4cm each. Assume that the centre of the base is at point N. Find

(i) The angle between VA and the base ABCD

(ii) The volume of the pyramid

13. (a) If tan A =  , where A is an obtuse angle,

Find (i). Cos A + Sin A (ii). – Cos2 A – Sin2 A

(b) A and B are two points on the ground level and both lie west of flagstaff. The angle of elevation of the top of the flagstaff from A is 560 and from B is 430. If B is 28m from the foot of the flagstaff. How far apart are the points A and B?

 

14. (a)The marks in basic Mathematics terminal Examination obtained by 40 students in one of the secondary school in Katavi were as follows;

60, 54,  48,  43, 37 61, 43, 66, 65, 52, 37, 81, 70, 48, 63, 74, 67, 52, 48, 37, 48 42, 43, 52, 52, 22, 27, 37,44 38, 29, 19, 28 36, 42, 47, 36, 52, 50, 28.

  1. Prepare a frequency distribution table with class intervals 10 – 19, 20 – 29, etc.
  2. Find the class which contain the median
  3. Find the mean
  4. Calculate the median.

(b) A field is 10m longer than its width. The area is 7,200m2. What is the width?

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 135

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

CIVICS FORM THREE 

TERMINAL EXAMS MAY – 2023 

  1. Before closing the school, the headmaster called a school assembly and allowed students to address their complaints, which type of Human right was the headmaster fulfilling?
  1. Moral Right
  2. Freedom of expression
  3. Freedom of association
  4. The right to education
  5. Equality before the law
  1. A person with the power to declare a state of emergency in Tanzania is;
  1. The attorney general
  2. Commander in Chief
  3. Speaker
  4. Inspector General of Police
  5. The President
  1. Tanzania is the country which is headed by the president and other elected politicians; therefore Tanzania is;
  1. A republic
  2. Communist state
  3. A monarchy
  4. Military State
  5. Federal Government
  1. Assume you are planning to get married for about a year now; you have been developing friendship with the person of the opposite sex whom you think is the right candidate. How can you describe such kind of relationship?
  1. pre-mature marriage
  2. Wedding
  3. Honey moon
  4. Courtship
  5. Marital Relationship
  1. A woman has to remain at home so as to refresh his man when he gets back from work. She is not allowed to work outside her house by her husband. What kind of negative socio-cultural practice the above situation indicates?
  1. Wife inheritance
  2. Female genital mutilation
  3. Regarding women as sexual object
  4. Gender discrimination
  5. Gender equality.
  6. Gender equality.
  1. Makaptura earns his income through the work of shoeshine. Nowadays he has become very famous because of his good services providing to his customers. Which sector does Makaptura serve?
  1. Informal sector
  2. Private sector
  3. Formal sector
  4. Public sector
  5. Self-employment sector.
  1. The Minister of Social Work in our country addressed various forms of marriages that are found in our country. As Civics expert who attended that gathering, differentiate the one which is not practiced in Africa.
  1. Monogamy
  2. Polygamy
  3. Polyandry
  4. Monogamy and Polyandry
  5. Polygamy and Monogamy.
  1. There is a car crush outside Simuyaga Secondary School and you are only traffic police available at that particular event. Some students come and ask you the causative of the incident. Suppose you give them an answer, what will you not give them?
  1. Reckless driving
  2. Lack of road safety education to users
  3. People do not obey the road sign
  4. Roads are very wide
  5. Driving while drinking alcohol.
  1. Assume you are the Ward Executive at Mchame area where the youth demonstrate many behaviours of alcoholism, robbery and laziness. Which of the following sets of proposals you will not suggest to them?
  1. They should work hard
  2. They should follow religious teaching
  3. They should abandon the parents guidance
  4. They should demonstrate self-discipline
  5. They should seek for guidance and counseling.
  1. Britain use the constitution which based on statutes, customs, precedence and convention practice. This is an example of;
  1. Permanent constitution 
  2. Unwritten constitution
  3. Communist constitution
  4. Socio — cultural constitution 
  5. Tanzanian constitution 

2. Match the explanation in list A with correct response in list B by writing the correct of the corresponding response in the answer booklet(s) provided.

List A

List B

(i) The ability of a person to develop a deep understanding of something

(ii) The ability of an individual to know him/herself, his/her feeling emotions, strength and weakness

(iii) Ability to think and come up with the new idea and new ways of doing something

(iv) The ability of a person to reach agreement through formal discussion between people

(v) The ability to make the best choice out of many available options for the benefit of individual or communication

A. Copying with stress

B. Empathy

C. Negotiation skills

D. Decision Making

E. Assertiveness

F. Critical thinking  

G. Guidance and counseling

H. Creative thinking

I. Self — awareness

J. Peer - resistance

 

Answer all questions in this Section

 

  1. Define the following terms as used in civics;

 

  1. Per capital income.
  2. Entrepreneurship.
  3. Democracy.
  4. Poverty.
  5. Globalization.

 

  1. What are the situation where the president of Tanzania can dissolve the parliament?
  2. Dangerous behaviours may be a threat to our society use five points to prove this statement.
  3. By using the knowledge, you have obtained in civics. use five points to assess the benefits to being identified as a citizen of Tanzania.
  4. Why do you think promoting and preserving our National holidays and festivals is important?
  5. Briefly explain five internal causes of poverty. 

 

SECTION C (30 marks)

Answer only two (2) questions from this Section.

 

  1. As an expert in civics, outline five effects of human rights abuse.
  2.                      To what extent the 2020 general election of the United Republic of Tanzania was free and fair?
  3. Most members in your community are not aware on causes of high incidences of road accidents. By using knowledge, you obtained in civics, explain six causes of road accidents in Tanzania.

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 134

OFISI YA RAIS, TAWALA ZA MIKOA

NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

JAMUHURI YA MUUNGANO YA TANZANIA

MTIHANI WA MWISHO MUHULA

KIDATO CHA TATU

KISWAHILI 2023

Muda 2:30 

MAELEKEZO 

  1. Jibu maswali yote
  2. Mtihani huu una sehemu A. B na C (Jumla ya maswali 9)
  3. Simu za mkononi haziruhusiwi

SEHEMU A (15)

  1. Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi kisha andika herufi ya jibu hilo katika sentensi (i) – (x)
  1. Pauka .............. Pakawa dhana hii hujihusisha katika aina gani ya vipera vya tanzu za fasihi simulizi?
  1. Tarihi
  2. Hadithi
  3. Vigano
  4. Ngano
  5. Masimulizi
  1. Maumbo ya mo, po, ye yanajulikana kama maumbo ya
  1. Mofimu
  2. Mofu
  3. O-rejeshi
  4. Fonimu
  5. Mofu huru
  1. Wataalamu wa simu ya lugha ya kiswahili wamekubaliana kwa dhana ya lugha imetoa fasili za kuzingatia isipokuwa
  1. Lugha ni kwa ajili ya binadamu
  2. Lugha ni sauti za nasibu
  3. Lugha ni mfumo maalumu
  4. Lugha hubadilika
  1. Nadharia gani? Yenye mashiko inayo chagua kunda asili y lugha ya kiswahili ni nini?
  1. Nadharia ya kibantu
  2. Nadharia ya kiarabu
  3. Nadharia ya kiajemi
  4. Nadharia ya kipijini na kikrio
  5. Nadharia ya kikongo
  1. Kipengele gani kinachohusu mjengo wa kazi za fasihi?
  1. Fani
  2. Maudhui
  3. Muundo
  4. Mtindo
  5. Fanani
  1. Mtoto wa muhammed Hussein alidondoka karibu na ukuta wa nyumba yao iliyojengwa kando ya barabara ya kuelekea kisutu. Maneno yaliyopigiwa mistari ni aina gani ya maneno
  1. Kihusishi
  2. Viunganishi
  3. Vielezi
  4. Vivumishi
  5. Vitenzi
  1. Shangazi yangu anapenda sana kurudia nomino katika muundo wa kiarifu anapokuwa akizungumza na wenzake, muundo huu hujulikana kama.
  1. Chagizo
  2. Yambua
  3. Kiyeyusho
  4. Hoponimu
  5. Shamilisho
  1. Neno nchi limeundwa na mfumo gani wa sauti?
  1. K + K + K + I
  2. I + I + I + K
  3. K + I + K + I
  4. K + K + K + K
  5. K + I
  1. Shamilisho katika uchanganuzi wa sentensi hutumia
  1. Kimapokeo
  2. Kimtindo
  3. Kisasa
  4. Kupatanisha
  5. Kisinteksia
  1. Mkazo katika mazungumzo ya kiswahili hutokea upande wa katika herufi ya?
  1. Upande wa kushoto herufi ya pili
  2. Upande wa kulia herufi ya kwanza
  3. Uoande wa juu herufi ya nne
  4. Upande wa chini herufi ya tano
  5. Upande wa kulia herufi ya tatu
  1.  

Kifungu A

Kifungu B

  1. Hadithi za kukejeli na kuchekesha
  2. Hadhithi za kuonya na maadili
  3. Hadithi za asili ya kitu (Umbo)
  4. Hadithi za matukio ya kihistoria
  5. Hadhithi za kuwaasa watoto juu ya maadili
  1. Ngano
  2. Visasili
  3. Soga
  4. Tarihi
  5.  
  6. Mizungu
  7. Vigano
  8. Lekebu
  9. Maghari
  10. Majigambo

 

SEHEMU B (ALAMA 55)

  1. Ni taarifa zipi zinazopatikana katika kiarifu hoja; kwa mfano
  2. Mtumiaji wa lugha ni bendera fuata upepo thibitisha kwa hoja nne (4)
  3. Bainisha mazingira manne ambapo O-rejeshi huweza kujipambania na kwa kila hoja tunga sentensi Moja
  4. Ondoa utata katika sentensi zifuatazo, kwa kutoa hoja mbili kwa kila sentensi
  1. Mtoto amelala na njaa
  2. Ana ametumwa na meshack
  3. Mwanafunzi amenunua mbuzi
  4. Kaka amekufa
  5. Ua limechanua
  1. (a)Wataalamu wa lugha ya kiswahili wanakubaliana kuwa kuna hatua za kuzifuata katika uchanganuzi wa sentensi ainishi hatua hizo hoja tano.

(b)Changanua sentensi zifuatazo kwa njia ya ngoe kwa 

  1. Mwalimu mkorofi amefika darasa
  2. Mama anapika chakula na baba analima shamba

SEHEMU C (30)

  1. Jifanye wewe ni muhitimu wa kidato cha nne mwaka 2022 umeliona na kusoma tangazo katika gazeti la mambo leo andika barua kwa mkurugenzi wa kampuni faidika limited SLP 111 Mwanza ya kuomba nafasi SLP 100 Mtwara.
  2. Kwa mifano kumi anishi tofauti kati ya barua kirafiki na barua ya kikazi.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 133

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

NEW EXAM FORMAT-2023

HISTORY FORM THREE 

TERMINAL EXAMS MAY – 2023 

 

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (xv) choose the correct answer from the alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

  1. Raifa’s grandmother was narrating a very interesting story about what happened during the Ngoni migration; we were listening carefully and sometimes asking questions. What source of historical information was used?
  1.              Museums
  2.               Historical sites
  3.              Linguistics
  4.             Anthropology
  5.               Oral traditions.
  1. Fashai was the daughter of chief in a certain tribe in East Africa; his family was favored by colonialists in social services. His father was also used by colonialists to supervise colonial activities. What was the type of colonial administration in the area?
  1.              Association policy
  2.               Assimilation policy
  3.              Direct rule
  4.             Indirect rule
  5.               Rule and divide technique.
  1. Mr. Kindakindaki is an old man with 85 years, he experienced first and second world wars where he fought on the German side against British, through supporting his colonial master. In history we can term Mr. Kindakindaki as:
  1.              Colonialist
  2.               Colonizer
  3.              German soldier
  4.             Ex-soldier 
  5.               British soldier.
  1. Jabir has large farm of about 100 acres, he allows other landless people to cultivate in his land under agreement of taking 60% of the harvest and the cultivator remain with 40% of the harvest. This kind of system can be referred to as:
  1.              Primitive communalism
  2.               Capitalism
  3.              Feudalism 
  4.             Socialism
  5.               Slavery.
  1. Msema Kweli is a form two student who originates from Sukuma tribe, which inherit based on father’s side. What is the proper term which describes his society?
  1.              Patrilineal society
  2.               Matrilineal society
  3.              Clan head society
  4.             Kinship society
  5.               Age-set society.
  1. The very crucial changes of man during evolution was ability to make tools and Pedalism. Among the following which one is another crucial change of man during the evolution?
  1.              Eating cooked food
  2.               Adoption of the new environment
  3.              Development of brain
  4.             Domestication of plants and animals
  5.               Disappearance of hairs
  1. The agreement signed between Boers, Portuguese and the white settlers from Southern Rhodesia to prolong their domination in the colonies is known as: -
  1.              Nkomati Accord 
  2.               Triamvalent treaty 
  3.              Trivalent treaty
  4.             Nkomati treaty 
  5.               Sao Jorge Accord 
  1. Which of the following is the famous local Museum in Tanzania; _________
  1.              Olduvai gorge 
  2.               Bagamoyo 
  3.              Kilwa 
  4.             Kondoa 
  5.               Kalenga
  1. The social challenges facing people in Africa include; _________
  1.              Political instability and tribalism
  2.               Tribalism and neo colonialism
  3.              Colonialism and illiteracy
  4.             Illiteracy and diseases 
  5.               Corruption and lack of rule of law
  1. Oral tradition is the ancient source of history with many limitations except:
  1.              It is lasts for 500 years
  2.               It is easy to be forgotten
  3.              It provides employment to the people
  4.             It is based on bias and fallacy
  5.               It can be changed according to time and environment.

 

2. Match the items in list A with the correct response in list B by writing the letter of the corresponding responses in the answer sheet provided.

LIST A 

LIST B 

 

(i) The agreement involved Britain, German , the sultan of Zanzibar. 

(ii) The system in which children take and follow the clan names of their father. 

(iii) Nyalubanja, ubugabire ,umwinyi and ntemi system 

(iv) Was the trade where by the people met their needs from one another, people were supposed to walk long distance and exchange their commodities. What kind of this trade.? 

(v) The scientific method used to determine historical dates was known as 

(vi) When did man adopt bipedalism? 

 

 

A. Patrilineal 

B. Barter trade 

C. Were forms of feudalism in East Africa 

D. Carbon - 14 

E. Delimitation treaty of 1886 

F. Business 

G. Anno Domino 

H. Middle Stone Age 

I. Late Stone Age 

 

 

SECTION B: (54 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Briefly explain what you understand on the following historical questions.

i. Explain what do you understand about Pan-Africanism Movement and show on how was become helpful in the struggle of African nationalism.

ii. Every sources of historical information have its own challenges to use. In two points explain the limitation of using archaeology to obtain historical information.

iii. Explain why Versailles peace treaty associated with occurrence of the Second World War of 1939-1945.

iv. In two points explain why in the history of mankind, it is necessary to study the evolution of man.

v. Explain how the competition in sugar production between British and France, was one of the factors for abolition of slave trade world

vi. Explain the two types of stone tools used by man during early Stone Age in different daily activities.

4. Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 6 beside the item number.

i. The Majimaji war was unique in the way it united a number of different tribes in common rebellion, and it was termed as large scale resistance since it was covered large area.

ii. The German authorities were surprised when their headquarters and officials were attacked.

iii. The last and most serious revolt against German rule broke out in July, 1905 up to 1907.

 iv. The immediate cause of discontent was the government’s cotton scheme, which was accompanied with intensive exploitation.

v. A prophet named Kinjekitile Ngwale of Ngarambe declared that magic water which was mixed millet and other local medicine will turn bullets into water.

vi. Due to this wrong belief of turning bullets into harmless water these tribes were defeated by the Germans.

5. Draw the sketch map of Africa and locate by using roman numbers on the following historical countries.

i. A country which sharpened the struggle for independence in Africa.

ii. A country which is new member of East Africa Community.

iii. A country in which Sir Abubakar Tafawa Balewa become prime minister.

iv. A country where Agadir Affair was occurred.

6. Professor Marandu Kidia was conducting the historical research on the people along the coast of East Africa. He needed some of historical facts and information about the coast of East Africa. Give four sources that can use to get those historical facts and information.

7. After the Berlin Conference of 1884-1885 what followed was to occupy the colonies and imposing colonial rule. Explain six ways used by colonialist to impose colonial rule.

8. Examine six contributions of social and welfare association to the rise of Nationalism. 

 

 SECTION C (30 MARKS) 

Attempt only two (2) questions from this section

9. As you a Form Four student explain six sources of historical information to your 

grandparents to show how you have understood the history subject (15 marks) 

10. In six points pinpoint the impacts of Neolithic revolution in human life. (15 marks) 

11. The outbreak of The First World War was inevitable. Discuss in six points. 

(15 marks)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 132

 

WIZARA YA ELIMU SAYASI NA TEKNOLOJIA

SHULE YA SEKONDARI KIZUKA

MTIHANI WA MUHULA WA KWANZA

KISWAHILI - KIDATO CHA TATU

Muda: Saa 2:30                    

 

MAELEKEZO

  1.                   Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B, na C jumla ya maswali kumi na mbili (12).
  2.                   Jibu maswali yote kutoka sehemu A na B na maswali matatu kutoka sehemu C.
  3.                   Sehemu A ina alama kumi na tano (15),  sehemu B ina alama arobaini (40) na sehemu C ina alama arobaini na tano.
  4.                   Zingatia maagizo ya sehemu na ya kila swali.
  5.                   Andika majina yako yote matatu kwa usahihi katika karatasi ya kujibia.
  6.                   Udanganyifu wa aina yoyote hautakiwi kwenye chumba cha mtihani.

 

SEHEMU A (Alama 15) 

Jibu maswali yote kutoka sehemu hii

  1.                   Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika kipengele (i) hadi (x) kisha andika herufi ya jibu hilo katika karatasi yako ya kujibia.
  1. Neno linaloingizwa katika kamusi kwa wino ulio kolezwa, fasili, matamshi na aina ya neno kwa pamoja huitwa?
  1.              Kidalizo
  2.               Kitomeo
  3.              Istilahi
  4.             Kategoria
  5.               Fasili

 

  1. Ni sehemu ya neno isiyobadilika baada ya kuondolewa viambishi awali na tamati.
  1.              Shina
  2.               Kitenzi
  3.              Mzizi
  4.             Kiambishi tamati
  5.               Nomino

 

  1. Jambo gani muhimu huzingatiwa na mtunzi wa insha ya hoja?
  1.              Lugha yenye ukinzani
  2.               Lugha ya kisanaa
  3.              Lugha inayosifia
  4.             Lugha ya kufukirisha
  5.               Lugha isiyo na mvuto

 

 

  1. Zifuatzo ni njia za uundaji wa maneno isipokuwa moja wapo.
  1.              Ufupisho wa maneno
  2.               Ukatizaji
  3.              Kupachika maneno
  4.             Urudufishaji
  5.               Kuambatanisha katika mzizi wa neno

 

  1. Yafuatayo ni matumizi ya simu za maandishi isipokuwa moja wapo.
  1.              Kutoa taarifa juu ya vifo
  2.               Taarifa juu ya ugonjwa
  3.              Kutumia salamu
  4.             Taarifa juu ya kujiunga na shule
  5.               Taarifa ya kufaulu mtihani

 

  1. Ni namna ambavyo msanii hutunga kazi ya fasihi na kuipa sura ambayo kifani na maudhui na kutofautiana na mwandishi mwingine.
  1.              Mtindo
  2.               Muundo
  3.              Mandhari
  4.             Matumizi ya lugha
  5.               Fani

 

  1. Ni aina ya ngeli ambayo huchukuwa upatanisho wa umoja na wingi wa sentesi na kujumuisha viumbe kama wanyama, binadamu, ndege na wadudu.
  1.              Ki-vi
  2.               Yu-A –WA
  3.              Li-YA
  4.             U-I
  5.               I-ZI

 

  1. Ni neno au mapangilio wa maneno ambao hudokeza taarifa fulani ambayo inaweza kuwa kamili au isiyo kamili.
  1.              Kishazi
  2.               Tungo
  3.              Sentensi
  4.             Neno
  5.               Kirai

 

  1. Ni aina ya sentensi inayoundwa na kishanzi tegemezi kimoja au zaidi au kishazi huru kimoja au zaidi
  1.              Sentensi huru
  2.               Sentensi changamano
  3.              Sentensi ambatano
  4.             Sentensi shurutia
  5.               Sentensi sahili

 

  1.             Ni mwana ushahidi wa kihistoria juu ya chimbuko la lugha ya kiswahili na alipata kuandika kuwa Zanzibar ni kivutio chenye ukubwa wa mzunguko wa maili 200 za mraba na wana utawala wao wa kifalme na watu hawalipi kodi.
  1.              Marco-polo
  2.               Al Idris
  3.              Al- Masoud
  4.             Morce
  5.               Historia ya mji wa Kilwa

 

 

  1.               Orodhesha maana za tamathali za semi na maneno mbalimbali katika Orodha A na B kisha andika herufi ya jibu sahihi.

ORODHA  A

ORODHA B

  1. Uhaishwaji wa kitu kisicho binadamu kupewa uwezo wa kutenda kama binadamu.
  2. Nihadithi zinazosimulia matukio ya kihistoria yaliyopita yanaweza kuwa ya kweli au ya kubuni.
  3. Ni aina ya lahaja iliyozungumzwa Tanga.
  4. Ni kipashio kidogo cha sarufi chenye kutoa taarifa kamili au isiyo kamili.
  5. Ushangaaji wa jambo fulani aghalabu huambatana na alama ya mshangao.
  6.  
  1.              Tashihisi
  2.               Kimtang’ata
  3.              Tarihi
  4.             Kingozi
  5.               Tashititi
  6.               Mofimu
  7.              Viambishi
  8.             Nidaa

 

 

 

SEHEMU B (Alama 40)

SARUFI, UTUMIZI WA LUGHA, MAENDELEO YA KISWAHILI

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii

 

  1.               Andika tofauti nne (4) kati ya fasihi simulizi na fasihi andishi.

 

  1.               Tunga sentensi au tungo moja kwa kila kipengele (i) – (iv) ukizingatia viambajengo vya kila kipengele.

 

  1.               Kisha tegemezi + kishazi huru
  2.             Kishazi huru
  3.          Kishazi tegemezi
  4.          Kishazi huru + kishazi huru

 

 

  1.               (a) Toa maana mbili za maneno yafuatayo:-
  1.               Paa             (ii) Mbuzi  (iii) Kanga   (iv)  Tai     (v) Kata

 

 

  1.               Kwa kutumia nomino zifuatazo tunga sentensi zenye upatanisho wa kisarufi na ukionyesha O-rejeshi kwa kupigia mstari chini yake.
  1.               Kalamu   (ii) Kiti     (iii) Ukuta (iv) Sufuria.

 

  1.               Kiswahili ni kibantu “thibitisha kwa kutumia vigezo vya kiisimu na kwa mifano

 

  1.               Soma shairi lifuatalo kisha jibu maswali yafuatayo:-

 

Huwezi kuwazuaia, waliokubaliana

Mimi wananitumia, wapate kuelewana,

Kanuni wazingatia, ili kuwasiliana,

Sauti zangu nasibu, hakuna wa kukanusha

 

Mfumo wangu makini, Sauiti kupangilia,

Maneno kuyatumia, yenye mpangilio sawa,

Sentensi kuzitumia, mawazo kupangilia,

Sauti zangu nasibu, hakuna wa kukanusha

 

 

 

 

MASWALI

  1.               Mwandishi anazungumzia nini katika shairi ulilosoma?
  2.             Ni nini walikubalina kuwasiliana kwa hicho alichokizungumzia mwandishi katika ubeti wa pili?
  3.          Ni mambo gani matatu yaliyojumuishwa na mwandishi katika mfumo wa jambo analolizungumzia?
  4.          Unafikiri kwa nini mstari wa mwisho wa kila beti umerudiwa na mwandishi?

 

 

SEHEMU C (Alama 45)

Jibu maswali matatu (3) tu katika sehemu hii, swali la kumi (10) ni la lazima

  1.               Bi. Hilda alimweleza Bw. Agustino kuwa insha za kisanaa na insha za kiada ni sawa na ndugu wa tumbo moja, Japo kuwa Bw. Agustino hakukubaliana na maoni yake Bi. Hilda. Je wewe kama mwanafunzi mzuri ungetumia hoja gani kumuunga mkono Bw. Agustino? Toa hoja sita (6) zinazothibitisha kama kweli umemuunga mkono Bw. Agustino.

 

  1.          Bw. Lugusi alimweleza Bw. Asheri kuwa waandishi wa kazi za kifasihi hawajafanikiwa kuonesha ufaafu wowote ule wa kimaudhui katika kazi zao, ingawa Bw. Asheri alimkatalia kata kata Bw. Lugusi kutokana na uneni wake alionena. Je wewe kama mwanafunzi uliyefundishwa darasani na ulielewa ungetumia hoja zipi ili umuunge mkono Bw. Asheri. Toa hoja tatu (3) kwa kila diwani.

 

  1.          Bi. Isabela alimweza Bi Theresia Mushi kuwa mapenzi hayana upofu wowote ule miongoni mwa wanajamii. Ingawa Bi. Theresia Mushi hakukubalina na usemi alionena Bi. Isabela. Je wewe kama msomi mzuri wa kazi za fasihi andishi ungetumia hoja zipi ili uweze kumuunga mkono Bi. Theresia Mushi? Toa hoja tatu (3) kwa kila riwaya.

 

  1.          Bw. Mbuya alimfahamisha Bw. Mkway kuwa uwepo wa misigano katika kazi za kifasihi hakuwezi kung’amua malengo makuu ya waandishi asilia. Ingawa Bw. Mkway hakumkubalia Bw. Mbuya kutokana na usemi wake, je wewe kama mwanafunzi uliyemesoma tasnia hii ya fasihi kwa muda mrefu ungetumia hoja zipi ili umuunge mkono Bw. Mkway? Toa hoja tatu (3) kwa kila tamthilia.

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 131

OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

FORM THREE TERMINAL EXAMINATIONS- MAY 2023

024

LITERATURE IN ENGLISH

TIME: 3HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consist of section A, B and C with a total of Eleven (11) questions
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two questions from section C
  3. Cellular phones and any Unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room
  4. Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheets

 

SECTION A (16 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x). Choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its beside the item number in your answer sheets
  1. The writer’s account of another person’s life is referred to
  1. Biography
  2. Bibliography
  3. Autobiography
  4. Ant biography
  5. Accountancy
  1. When composing a poem, one deliberately breaks some aspects of grammar to suit poetic purposes. How is this freedom called?
  1. Meter
  2. Poetic devices
  3. Consonance
  4. Poetic license
  5. Poetic freedom
  1. Fr, Vandamayer is a priest who preaches peace, love and equality to all people, but on his side he exploits and tortures Toundi. He therefore does not live what he preaches. Which theme suits these expressions?
  1. Betrayal
  2. Exploitation
  3. Hypocrisy
  4. Gender discrimination
  5. Racism
  1. ........ Is a class, kind and style of works of art or literature according to their type of subject such as novel, short story, poem or play?
  1. Genres
  2. Act
  3. Scene
  4. Kind
  5. Literature
  1. Specioza, Jasmin, Cosmas, Victor and Hemed were arguing on which element differentiates one literary work from the other. These were their arguments Specioza said, “It is a plot”

Jasmin said, “It is a style”

Cosmas said, “It is themes”

Victor said, “It is setting” and 

Hemed said, “It is language use”. Who, among them was most correct?

  1. Specioza
  2. Jasmin
  3. Cosmas
  4. Victor
  5. Hemed
  1. What is the name of the character that is borrowed from other literary works?
  1. Expository character
  2. Background character
  3. Stock character
  4. Sidekick character
  5. Dramatic character
  1. Study the following sentences and then answer the question.
  1. Oral literature is expensive
  2. Oral literature is the property of all individuals
  3. Oral literature is dynamic
  4. Oral literature is presented in written form.

Which letter among the following suits to list and describe the right features of oral literature according to the above sentences?

  1. Sentence 4 only is correct
  2. Sentence 3 only is correct
  3. Sentence 1 and 2 are correct
  4. Sentence 1 only is correct
  5. Sentence 2 and 3 are correct
  1. Your grandfather has no money today. He loudly asks on himself “where shall I get the money to feed these kids?” this technique is referred to as...............
  1. Aside
  2. Dialogue
  3. Denouement
  4. Soliloquy
  5. Exposition
  1. The use of body movement and facial expressions by actors convey a message without speaking is called
  1. Aside
  2. Ambiguity
  3. Mime
  4. Creation
  5. Acting
  1. A complete house should have a roof, a door as well as windows. In this sense, what make the definition of literature complete
  1. Art, language, audience and conflict.
  2. Art, language, creativity and society
  3. Art, themes, massage and language
  4. Art, society and philosophy.
  1. Match the descriptions in List A with the corresponding type of item in List B by writing the letter of correct response beside the item number in the answer sheet provided.

 

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A performing area or a place where performance takes place
  2. Is the term used to refer to what to dress on a stage by actors, or actress
  3. Refers to material elements which are used on stage by actor
  4. One of the parts into which a play film may be divided
  5. Practice of a performance either music/dance on a play before a real performance
  6. The guide used by the actor
  1. Costume
  2. Stage direction
  3. Stage
  4. Epilogues
  5. Act
  6. Opera
  7. Props
  8. Rehearsal
  9. Foreshowing

 

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

  1. With example where necessary, write short notes on the following literary terms
  1. Allusion
  2. Antagonistic character
  3. Oral literature
  4. Exposition
  5. Fiction
  6. Props
  1. Differentiate the following
  1. Polsndeton from asyndledoche
  2. Tautology from anaphora
  3. Simile from metaphor
  1. (a)Which poverb is being described by the expression in each item below?
  1. Kalalura and John are friends because are both thieves.............
  2. He used only 30 minutes to sit for the exam that was supposed to be done in 3 hours, but he scored zero................
  3. The police man killed all the thieves except Alex, because Alex was his young brother.........

(b)Give the meaning of the following idioms 

  1. Kick the bucket
  2. Bite your tongue
  3. Under the weather
  1. Which literary term has been described by the expression in each item below
  1. John is complaining that he is so hungry that he can eat the whole cow......
  2. She sells the seashells in the seashore.........
  3. Open secret........
  4. Do not say “I am going to urinate” instead you can say “I am going for a short call”.....
  5. I always laugh at my grandmother because she is as black as charcoal......
  6. There are only five heads those can accurately solve this question in this class
  7. “I will come by tomorrow” the stone replied...........
  8. Anold is the best student in our class as he scored 1% in Physics.........
  9. What has Uhuru brought to us? ..............
  1. Read the following poem and answer the questions that follow

You are lost (Isaac Mruma)

To you dada

It’s the days that matter 

For we are unable to chat 

In the language we had

 

When I look at you 

And see my pay-slip

In your eyes

I feel empty

And sapped 

 

Your glance, sister

Is to me the measure

Of the heat of the dough

In my pocket

 

Never are passions cool,

To you I am now a tool

And all my wage is now the fare 

I ride on your throbbing kisses 

 

It is you I accuse 

Because your love is lost 

And you only touch me

With the tenderness that asks

Where my wallet is 

 

It is to you dada

That my pen tears the pad

For I only see your love 

Focused on my purse 

With your passions 

Chasing my bank account 

 

QUESTIONS

  1. Who is a persona and how do you know?
  2. With example, explain any three poetic devices that have been used in the poem
  3. Do you think the persona in the poem is happy? Give the reasons to support your views with examples
  4. Explain any three possible themes those can be found in this poem. Support your views with examples.
  5. Discuss the success and failure of the poet in this poem
  1. Briefly answer the following questions
  1. Literature and language are two sides of the same coin, justify in one paragraph with only three strong reasons
  2. Why is literature called an art? Use three reasons to explain this truth in only one paragraph.

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer any two questions from this section

LIST OF READING FOR QUESTION 9-11

NOVELS

Houseboy By Ferdinand Oyono

A Walk In The Night By Alex La Guma

The Concubine By Elechi Amadi

The Oldman And The Medal By Ferdinand Oyono

PLAYS

The Lion And The Jewel By Wole Soyinka

The Government Inspector By Nikolai Gogol

The Trials Of Brother Jero By Wole Soyinka

The Dilemma Of A Ghost By Nikolai Gogol

POETRY

Growing Up With Poetry By D.Rubadiri 

Poem From East Africa By Tanzania Institute Of Education 

  1. Poetry like other works of art, brings society’s issues to surface. Support this view using two poems. (Give six points)
  2.                      Every Misunderstanding in the society has its origin. How can you prove the truth of this statement by referring to two plays you have read under this programme? Give three (3) points from each play
  3.                      You cannot discuss the underdevelopment of Africans without relating the presence of whites. How did Europeans contribute to the underdevelopment of Africans? Use two novels to support your answer. (3) points from each novel

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE LITERATURE EXAM SERIES 130

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

CIVICS FORM THREE 

TERMINAL EXAMS MAY – 2023 

  1. Before closing the school, the headmaster called a school assembly and allowed students to address their complaints, which type of Human right was the headmaster fulfilling?
  1. Moral Right
  2. Freedom of expression
  3. Freedom of association
  4. The right to education
  5. Equality before the law
  1. A person with the power to declare a state of emergency in Tanzania is;
  1. The attorney general
  2. Commander in Chief
  3. Speaker
  4. Inspector General of Police
  5. The President
  1. Tanzania is the country which is headed by the president and other elected politicians, therefore Tanzania is;
  1. A republic
  2. Communist state
  3. A monarchy
  4. Military State
  5. Federal Government
  1. Assume you are planning to get married for about a year now; you have been developing friendship with the person of the opposite sex whom you think is the right candidate. How can you describe such kind of relationship?
  1. pre-mature marriage
  2. Wedding
  3. Honey moon
  4. Courtship
  5. Marital Relationship
  1. A woman has to remain at home so as to refresh his man when he gets back from work. She is not allowed to work outside her house by her husband. What kind of negative socio-cultural practice the above situation indicates?
  1. Wife inheritance
  2. Female genital mutilation
  3. Regarding women as sexual object
  4. Gender discrimination
  5. Gender equality.
  6. Gender equality.
  1. Makaptura earns his income through the work of shoeshine. Nowadays he has become very famous because of his good services providing to his customers. Which sector does Makaptura serve?
  1. Informal sector
  2. Private sector
  3. Formal sector
  4. Public sector
  5. Self-employment sector.
  1. The Minister of Social Work in our country addressed various forms of marriages that are found in our country. As Civics expert who attended that gathering, differentiate the one which is not practiced in Africa.
  1. Monogamy
  2. Polygamy
  3. Polyandry
  4. Monogamy and Polyandry
  5. Polygamy and Monogamy.
  1. There is a car crush outside Simuyaga Secondary School and you are only traffic police available at that particular event. Some students come and ask you the causative of the incident. Suppose you give them an answer, what will you not give them?
  1. Reckless driving
  2. Lack of road safety education to users
  3. People do not obey the road sign
  4. Roads are very wide
  5. Driving while drinking alcohol.
  1. Assume you are the Ward Executive at Mchame area where the youth demonstrate many behaviours of alcoholism, robbery and laziness. Which of the following sets of proposals you will not suggest to them?
  1. They should work hard
  2. They should follow religious teaching
  3. They should abandon the parents guidance
  4. They should demonstrate self-discipline
  5. They should seek for guidance and counseling.
  1. Britain use the constitution which based on statutes, customs, precedence and convention practice. This is an example of;
  1. Permanent constitution 
  2. Unwritten constitution
  3. Communist constitution
  4. Socio — cultural constitution 
  5. Tanzanian constitution 

2. Match the explanation in list A with correct response in list B by writing the correct of the corresponding response in the answer booklet(s) provided.

List A

List B

(i) The ability of a person to develop a deep understanding of something

(ii) The ability of an individual to know him/herself, his/her feeling emotions, strength and weakness

(iii) Ability to think and come up with the new idea and new ways of doing something

(iv) The ability of a person to reach agreement through formal discussion between people

(v) The ability to make the best choice out of many available options for the benefit of individual or communication

A. Copying with stress

B. Empathy

C. Negotiation skills

D. Decision Making

E. Assertiveness

F. Critical thinking  

G. Guidance and counseling

H. Creative thinking

I. Self — awareness

J. Peer - resistance

 

Answer all questions in this Section

 

  1. Define the following terms as used in civics;

 

  1. Per capital income.
  2. Entrepreneurship.
  3. Democracy.
  4. Poverty.
  5. Globalization.

 

  1. What are the situation where the president of Tanzania can dissolve the parliament?
  2. Dangerous behaviours may threat our society use five points to prove this statement.
  3. By using the knowledge you have obtained in civics .use five points to assess the benefits to being identified as a citizen of Tanzania.
  4. Why do you think promoting and preserving our worthy cultural values is important in our society?
  5. Briefly explain five internal causes of poverty. 
  6. As an expert in civics ,outline five effects of human rights abuse.
  7.                      To what extent the 2020 general election of the United Republic of Tanzania was free and fair?

 

SECTION C (45 marks)

Answer only three (3) questions from this Section.

  1. Most members in your community are not aware on causes of high incidences of road accidents. By using knowledge, you obtained in civics, explain six causes of road accidents in Tanzania.
  2. High standard of life and work are inseparable in the light of this statement examine the importance of work to human development by giving six points.
  3. Briefly explain six strategies which can be employed to speed up industrial development in Tanzania.
  4. Maintenance teacher of Mbuyuni school  has s tendency of maintaining and repairing school furniture. By using six points explain the consequences of neglecting timely repair and maintenance personal and public properties?

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 129

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

CHEMISTRY FORM THREE 

TERMINAL EXAMS MAY – 2023 

032/1

Time: 3 Hours 

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of thirteen (13) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in this paper
  3. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)
  5. The following constants may be used

Atomic masses: 

H=1,  C=12,  O=16,  N=14,  Pb=108

Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4 dm3

1 Faraday = 96,500 coulombs 

Standard pressure = 760 mm Hg

Standard temperature = 273 K

1 litre = 1dm3 = 1000cm3

SECTION A

  1. Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given below

(i) The best chemical warning signs that should be put on bottles containing kerosene is ……….

  1. Corrosive
  2. Toxic
  3. Flammable
  4. Explosive
  5. Harmful

(vii) What volume of hydrogen gas will be produced when 1.3g of zinc granules react completely with excess dilute sulphuric acid at s.t.p?

  1. 223cm3
  2. 130cm3
  3. 220cm3
  4. 440cm3
  5. 448cm3

(x) The following reaction 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) → 4NO(g) + 6H2O (l) is an example of a

  1. Redox reaction
  2. Combination reaction
  3. Esterification
  4. Neutralization reaction
  5. Decomposition reaction.

(iv) 10cm3 of 0.4M Sodium Hydroxide are added to 40cm3of 0.2M hydrochloric acid. The resulting mixture will be

  1. Neutral 
  2. Alkaline 
  3. Dilute
  4.  Acidic
  5. Amphoteric

(viii) A metal nitrate which will not give a metal oxide on heating is:

  1. Calcium nitrate 
  2. Silver nitrate 
  3. Lead nitrate
  4. Copper nitrate
  5. Zinc nitrate

(ix) When nitrogen gas is formed covalently how many electrons are shared between nitrogen atoms.

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 6
  4. 5
  5. 4
  1. Which of the following substances represent a group of acid oxides?
  1. Carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide and Sulphur dioxide.
  2. Sulphur trioxide, Nitrogen dioxide and Nitrogen monoxide
  3. Carbon dioxide, Sulphur dioxide and dinitrogen oxide
  4. Sulphur trioxide, carbon dioxide and Nitrogen dioxide
  5. Carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxide and sulphur dioxide.
  1. The reason why white anhydrous copper (II) Sulphate turns blue when exposed in Atmosphere is that it
  1. Absorbs water vapour
  2. Reacts with oxygen
  3. Reacts with carbon dioxide
  4. Become dry
  5. Release water to the Atmosphere
  1. Which action should be taken immediately after concentrated sulphuric acid is spilled on the skin?
  1. It should be rinsed off with large quantities of running water.
  2. It should be neutralized with concentrated NaOH
  3. The affected area should be wrapped tightly and shown to a medical health provider
  4. It should be Neutralize with solid CaCO3
  5. It should be neutralized with concentrated KOH

(x) The following is an example of organic acid

  1. Hydrochloric acid
  2. Phosphoric acid citric acid
  3. Citric acid
  4. Nitric acid
  5. Carbonic acid
  1.  Match the item in LIST” A” with the correct response in LIST” B”

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Methyl orange indicator 

(ii) Calcium hydroxide 

(iii) pH 2

(iv) Neutralization reaction

(v) Sodium hydrogen sulphate

  1. Normal salt
  2. Concentrated base
  3. image
  4. Composition reaction
  5. Strong acid + weak base
  6. Slaked lime
  7. Strong base + weak acid
  8. Acidic salt
  9. Concentrated acid
  10. Neutral salt

 

SECTION B. (70 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS FROM THIS SECTION

  1. (a) If 0.5g of hydrogen gas are exploded in air, What is the mass of water formed?

(b) 2FeCl3(aq) + H2S(g) → 2FeCl2(aq) + 2HCl + S(s)

From above equation, calculate the mass of iron (II) Chloride formed by the excess of hydrogen sulphide gas on a solution containing 54.0g of iron (III) chloride.

  1. (a)Find the molarity of a sample of sulphuric acid containing 98% by weight H2SO4 and having a density of 1.63gcm-3.

(b)Find the concentration in molarity of 2.70g of Sodium carbonate dissolved in 250cm3

  1. 70.0cm3 of X2CO3 solution required 50.0cm3 of 0.2M HCI for complete neutralization.
  1. Write the balanced chemical equation of the reaction.
  2. Calculate the concentration of X2CO3 in
  1. Molarity
  2. g/dm3
  1. If compound X2CO3 has molar mass equal to 106g, calculate the relative atomic mass of X.
  2. What is the name and symbol of elements X.
  3. Identify the period and group of element X.

 

  1. An electric current was passed in series through solutions of calcium chloride and copper (II) sulphate. Carbon electrodes were used in both electrolytes.

If 1.5 litres of chlorine measured at S.T.P were produced, what volume of oxygen would also be produced? What mass of copper was produced?

 

  1. Describe the industrial application of electrolysis.

 

  1. State whether the reaction:

will proceed forward or backward under these conditions:

  1. Pressure is increased,
  2. Temperature is lowered,
  3. More ammonia gas is removed,
  4. Hydrogen gas is reduced if other factors are maintained.

 

  1. (a)What is the source of the following in Haber process:
  1. Hydrogen
  2. Nitrogen

(b)What is the role of Silica gel in Haber process?

(c)Vanadium pentoxide is generally used as a catalyst in the contact process

Comment

(d) A catalyst can shift the position of a chemical equilibrium. Comment.

 

  1. The alternative energy sources for the future could be biogas, geothermal, nuclear, wave, tide, wind and hydroelectric comment.

 

SECTION C. 15 MARKS

ANSWER QUESTION 11.

  1.  
  1. Enumerate four chief ores of iron.
  2. How is iron extracted from its ore?
  3. What is the role of the limestone in the extraction of iron?

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 128

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

BIOLOGY FORM THREE 

TERMINAL EXAMS MAY – 2023 

033/1

Time: 3Hours

Instruction

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of thirteen (13) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one (1) question from section C
  3. Except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil, all writing should be in blue or black ink.
  4. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

SECTION A

  1. Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given below;
  1. Our muscles are attached to the bones at the joint by a strong tissue referred to as:
  1. Ligament
  2. Tendon
  3. Cartilage
  4. Connective tissue
  5. Skeleton.
  1. If a plant cell is placed in hypotonic solution, it experiences a biological condition called:
  1. Haemolysis
  2. Turgidity
  3. Crenation
  4. Plasmolysis
  5. Turgor pressure.
  1. Yeast is economically important because it is used in the baking process. This member of fungi is found in phylum:
  1. Ascomycota
  2. Zygomycota 
  3. Basidiomycota
  4. Eumycota  
  5. Bryophyta.
  1. In an experiment using a compound microscope, objects under observation were not seen properly due to poor light reflection. Which part of microscope will be affected?
  1. Diaphragm
  2. Mirror
  3. Objective lens
  4. Clips
  5. Course adjustment knob.
  1. When a fish is taken out of water can die because;
  1. It has no legs
  2. Its mouth is small to get the food on land
  3. Its gills are not able to exchange dry respiratory gases
  4. On land there are many enemies than in water
  5. The water on land flows faster than in rivers
  1. When a bird builds a nest on a tree, the bird benefits but the tree neither benefits nor loses. What type of relationship is shown by bird and the tree? 
  1. Amensalism
  2. Parasitism
  3. Mutualism
  4. neutralism
  5. Commensalism
  1. A patient who has the following symptoms mild fever , slight abdominal pain , diarrhoea and vomiting is likely to be suffering from; 
  1. Malaria
  2. Cholera
  3. Measles
  4. Tuberculosis
  5. Typhoid
  1. Disease which is common infection of the respiratory system is: -
  1. Tuberculosis
  2. Aids
  3. Malaria
  4. Cholera
  5. Typhoid
  1. One of the following is the principle of good manner 
  1. Eating fast
  2. Speaking respectively
  3. Throwing food
  4. Wearing tight clothes
  5. Washing the body everyday
  1. Which food substance can be tested by using Iodinesolution? 
  1. Protein
  2.  Starch 
  3. Carbohydrate 
  4. Non reducing sugar
  5. Reducing sugar

 

  1. Match the description of the parts of skeleton in List A with corresponding Phrase/Terminology in List B by writing the letter of correct response beside item number in answer booklet.

 

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Bi concave in shape, lack a nucleus

(ii) Have irregular shape which respond to infections

(iii) Fragments of cells produced in the bone marrow

(iv) A fluid tissue consisting of white cells, red cells, platelets and plasma.

(v) The fluid part of the blood.

  1. Leucocytes
  2. Erythrocytes
  3. Thrombocytes
  4. Thrombin
  5. Phagocytes
  6. Plasma
  7. Capillaries
  8. Blood

 

       SECTION B. (70 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

3.(a) (i) What are the raw materials for photosynthesis

(ii) List one product of photosynthesis

(b)State how the ileum is adapted for absorption function.

4. (a) Explain the term Osmoregulation

(b) Briefly explain the mechanisms of regulating sugar level in the blood.

5. (a)In a human urine Sample, Some Sugar was detected during a laboratory test

  1. What is the likely name of the detected sugar?
  2. Name the hormone that was likely to be deficient in the body of the person whose urine was tested and the gland that produce it.
  3. Name the disease, that the person was likely to be suffering from
  4. What food would you recommend such a person to avoid.

(b)Explain why there is a great concentration of Urea in urine than in glomerular filtrate.

6. a) The acronyms AIDS, ARVs and HIV they are being used in hospitals and schools while most of people in the community they do not know the clear meaning of these acronyms. Assume you are the biology expert in your community make a clean meaning of these acronyms so that everybody can understand.

b) Our bodies are being protected against diseases and infections by different types of white blood cells. Explain the functions of the following types of white blood cells found in our bodies.

i. Neutrophils and monocytes

ii. Eosinophil’s and basophils

iii. B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes

7. a) Explain the following phenomena as used in biology.

i. Insulin and glucagon hormones work antagonistically

ii. In cold and humidity weather, human usually produce large quantity of urine that is colorless.

b) Nowadays people in world are suffering many diseases caused by poor waste disposal. By using knowledge that you have, explain three basic principle that will you use to minimize this problem in the world.

 

8. (a) With examples state the meaning of "Abiotic" and 'biotic" factors of the environment.

(b) (i)Differentiate the terms "food chain"from a Trophic level"

(ii) Construct the food web by using the following organism. Grass, gazelle, wildebeest, lion, decomposer, hyena, zebra and shrunk.

 

10. In an investigation, students set up the apparatus below in the laboratory and made observations after 72 hours.

 Explain how inclusion of the following components would affect the mouse in the experiment:

  1. light (2 marks)
  2. Sodium hydroxide

10.

 A person accidentally touches a hot pan and responds as illustrated in the diagram below.

https://www.advance-africa.com/images/reflex.png

  1. Explain how the response illustrated above occurs.
  2. Explain how auxins are utilised as selective weed killers in agriculture. (2 marks)

 

11. (a) Define the term analogous structures.

(b) Give two illustrations of analogous structures in mammals.

(c) Give two illustrations of analogous structures in mammals.

SECTION B. 15 MARKS

ANSWER QUESTION 12

12. Describe what happens to a meal rich in proteins along the alimentary canal from ingestion to egestion.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 127

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

FORM THREE TERMINAL EXAMINATION 

GEOGRAPHY

TIME:3 HRS                                                                                                    MAY, 2023

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B, and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A  and B and two questions from section C
  3. Map extract of HANANG (84/4) is provided
  4. Programmable calculators, cellular phones and other unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet

SECTION A (15 marks)

  1.               For each of the items (i-x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
  1. Why does the sun appears larger than other stars that are seen at night?
  1.             Star light bends as it passes planets
  2.             The sun is closer to the earth than other stars
  3.             The earth’s atmosphere filters out light from other stars
  4.             Day light brightens the sun making it appear large
  5.              The capacity of our eyes does not view far during the night
  1. Mike and Jose went for swimming at Ruaha River, while swimming, Jose reached a point at the center of the river where there was a round depression which is deeper than the rest parts of the river. What was this
  1.             Plunge pole
  2.             River capture
  3.             Pot hole
  4.             Meander
  5.              Knick point
  1. One of the condition for the formation of delta is that, there must be …..
  1.             Enough load deposited in the middle course
  2.             Active erosion in the upper and middle course
  3.             A coast characterized by heavy tides especially where the river enters the sea
  4.             Enough load deposited in the upper and lower course
  5.               Active erosion in the upper course
  1. Erosion by wind takes place through the process of  …..
  1.             Abrasion, attrition and deflation
  2.             Abrasion, collision and blowing
  3.             Collision, abrasion and attrition
  4.             Deflation, blowing and dust
  5.              Deflection and blowing wind
  1. The Amazon and Congo Basins are regions characterized with the same geographical background to human activities, climate , vegetation and relief. What could be the general term for those regions?
  1.             Natural regions
  2.             Natural resources
  3.             Natural vegetation
  4.             Natural landscapes
  5.              Natural climate
  1. During dry seasons most plants shade their leaves as a way to reduce the amount of water release. The correct term for this process is …..
  1.             Evaporation
  2.             Precipitation
  3.             Transpiration
  4.             Condensation
  5.              Infiltration
  1. Amina wants to carry out a field study on the atmospheric conditions suitable for growth of maize on a farm village. What are the best weather components to be considered
  1.             Rainfall and wind
  2.             Rainfall and cloud cover
  3.             Moisture and sunshine
  4.             Rainfall and temperature
  5.              Pressure and humidity
  1. The Maasai around Oldonyo Lengai mountain were wondering the way the mountain was ejecting fire and smoke. They believed that the mountain was possessed by bad evils. Tell them what geological process that was taking place
  1.             Volcanic eruption
  2.             Tectonic movements
  3.             Mass wasting
  4.             Fire from God
  5.              Faulting
  1. For a person who is storing, supplying and distributing plastic bags in Tanzania, the fine is between.
  1.             TZs5,000,000 up to TZs 2,000,000 or up to 2 years of imprisonment or both.
  2.             TZs 5,000,000  up to TZs 50,000,000 or up to 2 years of imprisonment or both
  3.             TZs 20,000,000 up to TZs 1billion or up to 2 years of imprisonment or both
  4.              TZs 100,000 up to TZs 500,000 or up to 3 months  of imprisonment or both
  5.              TZs 30,000 up to TZs 200,000 or up to 7 days of imprisonment or both
  1. Mr. ILIMRADI SHIBE is a peasant at Chita village in Mlimba District who applies proper methods of farming. Identify some proper methods of farming MR. ILIMRADI SHIBE uses which suit them
  1.             Terracing, overgrazing and contour ploughing
  2.             Contour ploughing, crop rotation and mulching
  3.             Recycling, bush fallowing and  terracing
  4.             Terracing, overgrazing and crop rotation
  5.              Shifting cultivation, terracing and overstocking
  1.               Match the item in list A with the response in list B by writing the letter of the correct response in the answer sheet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Have particles of intermediate size between sand and clay
  2. Size of individual particles composing a soil
  3. Vertical cross section of a soil from the surface to the underlying rock
  4. A measure of alkalinity  or acidity of a soil
  5. Inorganic matter, organic matter water and air.
  1.             Soil texture
  2.             Clay soil
  3.             Soil structure
  4.             Soil PH
  5.              Soil porosity
  6.               Components of soil
  7.             Soil profile
  8.             Silty soil
  9.                 Soil density

 

 

SECTION B (55 marks)

            Answer all questions

  1.               Carefully study the map extract of HANANG sheet provided (84/4) and then answer the questions that follows
  1. Name any four indicators that shows the presence of the following economic activities on the map.
  1.                Tourism
  2.               Agriculture
  3.                Mining
  1. Calculate area of lake Barangida in km2
  2. A farmer was at grid reference 680160. He saw a fire in the North East 5kms.
  1.                Find/write the grid reference position of the fire
  2.               Find the direction from the fire to the origin point
  3.                Name the physical obstacles which the farmer will face if he walks in strait line to the position of the fire.
  1. a)  Name and explain how is formed the features found at grid reference 680160….,

b)  What are the economic importance of the features you have mentioned in 3(iv) above at least two (02)

  1. With evidence from the map name two physical features as depicted on the mapped area.

4.  Cash crops production in Tanzania 2013-2019.

 

Years

sisal

cotton

coffee

Tea

2013

113

42

53

14

2014

105

67

45

17

2015

92

50

53

17

2016

81

56

49

18

2017

86

60

48

17

2018

74

59

67

16

2019

10

12

11

13

 

(a)Name the two simplest way of presenting the data.

(b)Explain the three advantages and two disadvantages of presenting the data by simple methods mentioned in (a).

(c)Present the given data by using the compound bar graph.

5. a) Explain the meaning of chain surveying.

b) Describes five (5) principles of conducting chain surveying.

 

6. (a) (i) By using diagram show the three main parts of ground photographs.

(ii) Describe main distinctive features of oblique photographs.

(b) Mr. Msemakweli is a professional photographer at your school, he wanted to produce form four photo-entry form and identification cards for all form four students at your school.

 (i) Identify the type of photograph that Mr. Msemakweli was likely to take.

(ii) Describe three advantages and disadvantages of the photograph named in (b) (i) above.

 

 

  1. Carefully study the following photograph and answer the questions that follows.

 

cactus-793841_1280.jpg

 

  1. What is the name of dominant trees?
  2. Suggest three possible regions in Tanzania what the photograph have been taken.
  3. Suggest climatic condition that favor such type of dominant trees.
  4. Name three relief features shown on the photograph
  5. Name two land uses that might be taking place in the area.

 

 

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer any two questions from this section.

 

  1. Identify any six setbacks of large-scale agriculture in Tanzania.

 

  1. Kichachani was talking with her child who believes that the temperature was affected worldwide. By using six evidences, describe how Kichachani will prove to her child that temperature can be affected by several factors

 

  1. Most of the East African Rivers are not suitable for navigation purpose. Justify this statement by six points.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 126

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

MATHEMATICS FORM THREE 

MID-TERM EXAMS MARCH – 2023 

041

Time: 3Hours 

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B
  3. Each question in section A carries six (06) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.
  4. All necessary working and answer for each question must be shown clearly
  5. NECTA mathematical tables and non-programmable calculator may be used
  6. All communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  7. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s) 

 

SECTION A: (60 Marks)

Answer all questions from this section

1. (a)The traffic lights at three different road crossing changes after every 48 seconds, 72 seconds and 108 seconds respectively. If they change simultaneously at 7am at what time do they change simultaneously again? 

(b) If x = 0.567567567 and Y = 0.83 by Converting these decimal to fractions, find the exact value of image

2. (a) If image Find the value of t

(b)Write ‘L’ in terms of M1 N and T from the formula image

(c)Determine the value of x if image

3. (a)If the 5th term of A.P is 23 and 12th term is 37 find the first term and common difference

(b)How many years would one double one’s investment if Tsh 2500 is invested at 8% compounded semi-annually

4. (a)Find value of x and y if image

(b)Let U be universal set and A and B be the subsets of U where 

U = {a, b, c, d, e, f, g, h}                    A={c, g, f} and           B= {b, d, h}

(i) Find the number of sub sets of set A'

(ii) Find n (A'n B')

(iii) If an element is picked at random from universal set (U), find the probability that it is an element of set B

5. (a)The coordinate of P, Q and R are (2, m), (-3, 1) and (6, n) respectively. If the length of PQ is image units and midpoint of QR is image find possible value of m and n

(b)The gradient of line L, is – 2, another line L2 is perpendicular to L1 and passes through (-3, -2) what is the equation of L2

6.  

image

(a)If image = 17cm, image=8cm, image = 12cm, and angle ABD = 90°. Calculate the length image 

(b)(i) Given image where image and image are the sides of Triangle ABT and image are sides of triangle KLC. What does this information imply?

(ii)A regular Hexagon is inscribed in a circle, if the perimeter of the hexagon is 42cm, find the radius of circle and its area.

7. (a)Rationalize the denominator of image

(b)Without using mathematical tables find value of 3 log5 + 5log2 – 2log2

8. (a)Solve for x in the inequality 3x – 4 ≥  x + 16

(b)Solve the following pairs of simultaneous equation by elimination method

image 

9. (a)The sum of first six terms of an AP is 72 and the second term is seven times the fifth term

(i) Find the first term and the common difference 

(ii) Find the sum of first ten terms

(b)Find the sum of the first four terms of a geometric progression which has a first term of 1 and common ration of image

10. (a)The gradient of line L1 is -2, another line L2 is perpendicular to L1 and Passes through point (-3, -2) what is the equation of L2?

(b)The area of the triangle ABC is 140cm2, AB=20, AC=14cm find the angle BAC

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions

11. (a)The number of workers absent in 52 working days is given in a cumulative frequency table below

No. of Absent

0 – 4 

5 – 9 

10 – 14 

15 – 19 

20 – 24 

25 – 29 

Cumulative frequency

5

13

30

45

48

52

Find.

(i) Percentage of Workers who are at least for 20 days 

(ii) Median 

(b)Find the angle x in figure below

 

12. (a)The function f is defined as follows

image 

 

  1. Sketch graph of f(x)
  2. Determine Domain of f(x)
  3. Determine the range of the function

(b)In a triangle ABC the ratio of angle is A: B: C = 2:3:7 the length of shortest side = 5cm. Find the length of longest side.

13. (a)Find the first term and common difference of an AP whose 5th term is 21 and 8th term is 30 

(b)Find the 10th term of a sequence whose first three consecutive terms are 5, 15 and 45. Leave your answer in exponents

14. (a)Mr.Ogango from Kenya visited Tanzania. He had 5,000 Kshs and wanted to change the money into LIS dollar. If 1 Us dollar was equivalent to 2500 Tanzania shillings (Tshs) AND Ksh 1 was equivalent to Tshs 20 how much Us dollars did he get.

 

(b)A gardene has found that the time cut grass on a square field varies directly on the square of its length (L) and inversely as the number of men (m) doing that job. If 5 men cut grass on field of size 50m in 3 hours, how many more men are required to cut grass on a field of side 100m in 5 hours. Assume 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 125

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE MID TERM EXAMINATION 

 MARCH, 2023

 LITERATURE IN ENGLISH 

TIME: 3:00 HRS  

INSTRUCTION:

  • This paper consists of 10 questions
  • Answer all questions in section A , B and C
  • Section A carry (15) marks section B (40) marks and section C ( 45) marks

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the give alternatives and write its letter in the answer booklet provided.

  1. If you read a play and become sad, what type of drama would you have read?
  1. Comedy
  2. Melodrama
  3. Tragedy
  4. Play
  1. Which of the following elements of literature belong to form
  1. Theme
  2. Plot
  3. Message
  4. Conflict
  1. A technique that is used to plot the event in a story where the last event may be at the beginning is called
  1. Mixed order
  2. Foreshadowing style
  3. Narrator style
  4. Flash back
  1. Which of the following describes a legend?
  1. A story with an unknown author passed from one generation to another.
  2. A story told to teach moral lesson where characters are animals
  3. A story about memorable events and heroic deeds of people in a community
  4. A story that explains the origin of cultural groups or phenomena of the Universe
  1. Those are short expression which do not exactly mean what they seen
  1. Idiom
  2. Novel
  3. Proverbs
  4. Riddles
  1. The narrator is the participant in the story
  1. Point of view
  2. First person point of view
  3. second person point of view
  4. Third person point of view
  1. Is a narrative fiction whose length is shorter than that most Novels, but longer than most short stories
  1. Novella
  2. Novel
  3. Short stories
  4. Fiction
  1. The following are the characteristics of drama EXCEPT
  1. It is divided into acts and scenes
  2. Drama is shorter than Novel
  3. It is divided into chapter and paragraph
  4. Drama uses stage direction
  1. Is the piece of information which express deep feelings and emotion in stanza and verse from
  1. Poetry
  2. Stanza
  3. Paet
  4. Prose
  1. It is the kind of poem which describes something else. It can describe people objects or a country
  1. Descriptive poem
  2. Epic poem
  3. Reflective
  4. Lyric poem
  1. Match the descriptions in list A with the corresponding type character in list B by writing the letter in answer sheet provide

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A figure of speech which compares two different things using conjunctions
  2. A figure of speech which compares two different things without using conjunction
  3. A figure of speech which foolish ideas of a person are shown to improve his/her humanity
  4. A figure of speech which exaggerates facts for comic or serious effects
  5. A situation in which the expression of truth is directly opposite from reality
  1. Proverb
  2. Metaphor
  3. Simile
  4. Irony
  5. Hyperbole
  6. Satire
  7. Metonymy
  8. Personification

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer all question

3. Which literary terms is being described by each of the following characteristics

  1. Gory is the shortest student in the class but our headmaster call her the tallest
  2. Last Night, my mother told me a short story about a rabbit and hyena, she told me the story teaches that I should not be greedy.
  3. Our literature teacher narrated a story to us about a person who first got married in 2000 died in 2015 and was born 1970 
  4. Assume you are writing a story inform of a dialogue what name people give people you once you complete writing the story?
  5. You and your friends were watching a performance. At the end of the performance you ended up laughing and become very happy.
  1. With example differentiate the following kinds of poems as used in literature
  1. Lyric poem and sonnet poem
  2. Ballad poem and descriptive poem
  3. Narrative poem and epic poem
  4. Reflective poem and elegy poem
  5. Modern poem and tradition poem
  1. Write the short notes on the following literary terms
  1. Refrain
  2. Poetic diction
  3. Rhythm
  4. Style
  5. Flash back
  1. Explain the types of characters as used in literature
  1. Tragic hero
  2. Foil character
  3. Flat character
  4. Developing character
  5. Dramatic character
  1. Mention five characteristic of a play
  1. __________________
  2. ___________________
  3. ______________________
  4. _____________________
  5. _____________________

SECTION C (45 MARKS)

Answer 3 questions from this section.

LIST OF READINGS

Plays

  • The Lion and the Jewel - Soyinka, W.
  • Trials of Brother Jero - Soyinka, W.
  • The Dilemma of a Ghost - Aidoo, A.A.
  • The Government Inspector - Gogol,N.

Novels

  • A Walk in the Night and Other Stories - Guma,A
  • Houseboy - Oyono, F.
  • The Old Man and the Medal - Oyono,F.
  • The Concubine - Amadi, E.

Poetry

  • Selected poem - Tanzani Institute of Education 
  • Growing up with poetry - David Rubadiri

8. By referring to the two plays ‘The Lion and the Jewel’ by Wole Soyinka and ‘The Trials of Brother Jero’ by Wole Soyinka. Make an analysis of main ideas that are expressed in them and explain how relevant these main ideas are to our society.

9. Use two poems to support the statement that poetry is rich in figures of speech. Give and explain three points for each poetry

10. Use different themes from two different poems and show their relevance to the present day Tanzania. Give three points for each

11. It is true to say that “not all characters are accepted by the members of their society” justify this statement using two novels that you have attempted under this genre

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE LITERATURE EXAM SERIES 124

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE MID TERM EXAMINATION

MARCH, 2023

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

TIME 3:00 HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

  • This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of twelve questions
  • Answer All questions in Sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C
  • Mind your Handwriting and Neatness.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of items (i) – (x) choose the most correct answer from among the given - Alternatives
  1. Do you know that I am travelling to Moshi next Tuesday?
  1. The question uses present continuous tense
  2. The question is in Present Simple tense
  3. The question is in future simple Tense
  4. The question is in simple present continuous tense
  1. Bread is sold from this shop. Supply the correct question tag
  1. Isn’t bread sold from this shop?
  2. Doesn’t bread is sold from this shop?
  3. Isn’t it?
  4. Is it?
  1. Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?
  1. People enjoy swimming in the sea
  2. People enjoys to swim in the sea
  3. People enjoying to swim in the sea
  4. People enjoys swimming in the sea
  1. Which of the following sentences is conditional Type I?
  1. If we could read more quickly we could read many books
  2. Unless they work hard, they will fail
  3. If you allowed the wound to get dirty, it would become infected
  4. If you wanted my help, let me know.
  1. The sentence, “it was done” is the same as writing
  1. They did it
  2. They had done it
  3. You are done
  4. They were did it
  1. Identify the correct question Tag in the following
  1. I am not as good at Physics as he is, aren’t I”
  2. I am not as good at Physics as he is ,am I?
  3. I am not as good at Physics as he is, isn’t he?
  4. I am not as good at Physics as he is, is he?”
  1. “ You are seen” means
  1. I saw you
  2. I used to see you
  3. I am seing you
  4. I see you.
  1. All what Safina _____________ to do now is to get back to school
  1. Is wanting
  2. Wanted
  3. Wants
  4. Want
  1. I bought __________ potatoes and ___________ sugar
  1. a few, a little
  2. a little, a few
  3. a few, a few
  4. a little, a little
  1. If tomorrow is Saturday, when was yesterday?
  1. Wednesday
  2. Thursday
  3. Friday
  4. Saturday
  1. Match the items in column A with their corresponding answers from column B

Column A

Column B

  1. Amina is the ______ lady in our class
  2. She is ______ than Anna in height
  3. Our school is _______, it has flowers everywhere
  4. East ___ far from West
  5. Our parents ____ very hard
  1. Walk
  2. Work
  3. Taller
  4. Tallest
  5. Tall
  6. Was
  7. Is
  8. Beautiful
  9. Most beautiful

Answers

i

ii

iii

iv

v






SECTION B (40 Marks)

  1. Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given after each.
  1. Although we rang several times there was no reply

(Rewrite using . . . . . ... but . . . . . . .. )

  1. The noise is preventing me from working

(Rewrite beginning with: I . . . . . .. )

  1. The shopkeeper did not sell any sugar yesterday
    (Begin: Sugar . . . . . ..)
  2. Mary said that she was going to town then

(Rewrite into direct speech begin: I . . . . . . . . . .) 

  1. They are too young to get married

(Rewrite using: so . . . . .. that . . . . ...)

  1. From WH – word questions basing on the underline word

I.She works at the hospital

II. Juliana failed the examination because she was poor in English

III. He didn’t pay his niece any money

IV. The play has thrilled the audience

  1. Find the Opposite of the following words
  1. Unity
  2. Brave
  3. Original
  4. Top
  1. Rewrite the following sentences into Negative; Form
  1. It helps to have a clear idea
  2. Remember to cross out your rough work
  3. He is always complaining that he has few clothes
  4. Mr. Mushi told you about the story of the robber
  1. In the blank spaces provided write down the missing word in each of the following sentences. The required word (only one word) must be formed from the words given in brackets
  1. The teacher did not accept my work, because he was . . . . . .. with it.(Satisfy)
  2. No . . . . . ... except on business.(admit)
  3. You must not . . . . . . . your parents. (obey)
  4. The house was destroyed . . . . .by the fire accident. (complete)
  1. Read the passage below carefully then answer the questions that follow

TRADE WITH EAST AND CENTRAL AFRICA

Trade between the coast of East Africa and other areas around the Indian Ocean has been going on for at least two thousand years. The trade is first mentioned in an account written in Greek in the second century A.D.

From the end of the seventh Century, Muslim traders began to settle on the cost, as one link in the chain that went on between Central Africa and the rest of the world. The Arab writer Masudi wrote in the year 950A.D about the important gold trade with Central Africa. The two most important exports from Central Africa were gold and Ivory, which were exchanged for such items as cloth and beads.

 Questions

  1. How long has trade between East Africa and the rest of the world been going on?
  2. When was the first written account of it?
  3. When did Muslim traders begin to settle on the coast?
  4. When did the Arab writer Masudi write about the Central Africa gold trade?

SECTION C (45 Marks)

9. Write a short composition about “STREET CHILDREN” Not more than 250 words

READING: PROGRAMME;

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTION 10 – 12. 

 NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES.

  • Passed Like A Shadow  B. M. Mapalala (2006) DUP
  • UNANSWERD CRIES  Osman Conteh – Macmillan
  • Weep Not Child  Ngugi wa Thiong’o 1987 Heinneman

 PLAYS:

  • Three Suitors One Husband – O. Mbia 1994 – Eya Methuen
  • The Lion And The Jewel – W. Soyimba 1963 OUP

 POETRY:

  • Song of Lawino and Ocol – O. P. Bitek
  • Growing UP With Poetry – O. Rubadiri Ed. 1989. Heinneman
  • Summons – R. Mabala 1970 TPH

10. Use two Poems: “Freedom Song by Majorie O. Macgoye and Building the Nation by Henry Barlow, and show how irresponsibility has been shown in those poems.

11. Refer to the reading you have done and identify characters in any of the two plays you have attempted, who used their formal education effectively in their societies and what was achieved finally

12. Choose two characters from the two novels you have read under this section and explain their roles in educating African society. Give three points from each novel.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 123

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM TREE MID TERM TEST MARCH-2023

033/1 BOOK-KEEPING

Time: 3 Hours        MARCH, 2023

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with a total of 9 questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries twenty (20) marks, section B forty (40) marks and section C forty (40) marks.
  4. Non programmable calculators may be used.
  5. Cellular phones, and other authorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your examination number on every page of your Answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

1. for each of the items (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given

Alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided

  1. If sales is 20,000 and profit make up is 25%, determine the amount of cost price
  1. 13,600
  2. 12,000 
  3. 16,000 
  4. 12,900 
  5. 20,600
  1. Which book of prime entry records the sale or purchase of non-current Assets?
  1. General journal 
  2. Sales journal 
  3.  Purchases journal 
  4. Cash book 
  5. Sales return day book
  1. If cash sale amount to Tshs 100,000/= paid direct into the bank account, the correct double entry will be to
  1.  Debit sales account and credit cash account by sh.100, 000
  2. Debit cash account and credit bank account by sh.100, 000 
  3. Debit bank account and credit sales account by sh.100, 000
  4. Debit bank account and credit cash account by sh.100, 000
  5. Debit sales account and credit bank account by sh.100, 000
  1. How much is to be reimbursed if a petty cashier has spent Tsh.189,00/=while his cash float is Tsh.200,000/=
  1. Tsh,11,000/= 
  2. Tsh 389,000/= 
  3. Tsh,189,000/= 
  4. Tsh,200,000/= 
  5. Tsh,21,000/=
  1. Working capital is a term meaning.
  1. The excess of current liabilities over current liabilities
  2. The excess of the current assets over the current liabilities
  3. the excess of the current assets over non-current liabilities
  4. The excess of current assets over non-current assets.
  5. The excess of non-current Assets over current liabilities
  1. Natasha and Ndengwe share profits and losses in the ratio 3:2. Their partnership recorded net profits of shs. 1,400, interest on capital shs. 420, partners’ salaries shs. 100 and drawings shs. 280, Determine Ndengwe’s share of the profits.
  1. TZS 840 
  2. TZS 560 
  3. TZS 464 
  4. TZS 696 
  5. TZS 506
  1. From the following categories of errors, identify the category of errors which affect only one account
  1. Casting errors
  2. Errors of principle
  3.  Errors of omission. 
  4. Errors of original entry.
  5.  Errors of commission.
  1. In the business of C. Sangster, who owns a clothing store, which of the following is the capital expenditure?
  1. Fixtures and New Van bought
  2. Shop fixtures bought and wages of assistants
  3. Wages of assistants and new van bought 
  4. Wages of assistants and Petrol for Van
  5.  Fixtures and salaries.
  1. Manufacturing account is used to calculate:
  1. Production cost paid in the year
  2. Total cost of goods produced
  3. Production cost of goods completed
  4. Gross profit on goods sold
  5. Prime cost of goods manufactured
  1. Depreciation can be described as the : _______
  1. Amount spent to buy a non –current asset
  2. Salvage value of a non-current asset consumed during its period
  3. Cost of the non-current asset consumed during its period
  4. Amount of money spent replacing non-current asset
  5. Cost of old asset plus new assets purchased
  1. A bank reconciliation statement is a statement:
  1. Sent by bank when the account are overdrawn
  2. Drawn to verify cash book balance with the bank statement balance
  3. Drawn up by the bank to verify the cash book
  4. Sent by the bank to the customers when errors are made
  5. Sent by the bank customers to the friends.
  1. If two totals of trial balance do not agree, the difference must be entered in:
  1. A real account
  2. The trading accounts
  3.  A nominal account
  4. The capital account 
  5. A suspense account
  1. The accounting equation is expressed in the financial statement called:
  1. statement of financial position
  2. income statement
  3. expenditure statement
  4.  reconciliation statement
  5. statement of change in equity
  1. If we take goods for own use, we should
  1. Debit drawings Account: Credit Purchase Account
  2. Debit Purchases Account: Credit Drawings Account
  3. Debit Drawings Account: Credit Inventory Account
  4. Debit Sales Account: Credit Inventory account
  5. debit inventory Account: Credit Drawing Account
  1. if a partnership maintains a fixed capital account, then the partner’s share

of profits is:

  1. Credited to the partner’s drawings account
  2. debited to the partner’s capital account
  3.  credited to the partner’s capital account
  4. credited to the partner’s current account 
  5. debited to the partner’s current account

2. For each of the items (i)-( v) match the narrations of bank reconciliation Items in column A with their corresponding names in column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer sheet provided

COLUMN A

COLUMN B

  1. these are payments made by a firm or person through cheque but they are not yet sent by customers to the bank to effect those payments.
  2. These are payments received by a firm or person by cheque but they are not yet passed through the banking system.
  3. These are fees deducted by the bank for different services made on the current account.
  4. These are payments made by the customer firm direct to the bank account of supplier firm.
  5. These are payments directed by the account holder to be made by the bank on his behalf.
  1. Standing order
  2. Dishonored cheques
  3. Unpresentedcheques
  4. Errors
  5. Unaccredited cheques
  6. Dividents
  7. Direct transfers
  8. Bank charges

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. In 1991 Mr. Chipepeto bought a motor car for the cost value of sh.8, 000,000/= with the aim of assisting him in business. But three years later he decided to dispose it for a book value of sh.6,700,000/=

  1. What is the term used to mean the difference between cost value and book value.
  2. Outline four reasons that could be the causes for him to dispose the car for less than the cost value.

4. The DSM Rotary club, has provided you with the following information:-

As at 31st December

2000

2001

Subscription in arrears

6400

8800

Subscription in advance

1200

3400

Subscription during the year

-

20,200

Insurance expenses owing (in arrears)

3700

2700

Insurance expenses prepaid (in advance)

4400

5200

Insurance paid during the year

-

16,800

Required: Prepare A Subscription account and Insurance account, clearly showing amounts to be transferred to income and expenditure accounts for year 2001.

5. Define the following terms

  1. Discount received
  2. Invoice
  3. Discount allowed
  4. Carriage inwards
  5. Carriage outwards

6. (a) Mr. Kyamba wants to start a business, but before commencement he needs to learn book keeping. Outline five objectives for him to study book keeping.

(b) Briefly explain three types of a cash book.

SECTION C (40 MARKS)

Answer two questions only from this section.

7. Panguso& company limited own a manufacturing industry which had the following records for the year ended at 31st December 2007.

  • Inventory at 1st January 2007: 
  • raw materials sh.760, 000
  • Finished goods sh 360,000
  • Purchases of raw material sh.420, 000
  • Sales of finished goods sh.2, 490,000
  • Factory Fuel & power sh.320, 000
  • Royalty sh.500, 000
  • Depreciation of works machine sh.88, 000
  • Market value sh.1,800,670
  • General office expense sh.10, 740
  • Manufacturing wages sh.170, 000
  • Inventory at 31 stDec 2007: raw material sh.900, 000
  • Finished goods sh.580, 000
  • Works in progress sh.734, 000

You are required to prepare

  1. Statement of manufacturing costs for the year ended at 31 stDec 2007
  2. Income statement for the year ended at 31.12.2007

8. XY Ltd provides for depreciation of its machinery at 20% per annum on cost; it charges for a full year in the year of purchase but no provision is made in year of sale/disposal.

Financial statements are prepared annually to 31th December. 2015

  • January 1 Bought machine ‘A’ 10,000
  • July 1 Bought machine ‘B’ 6,000

2016

  • March 31 Bought machine ‘B’ 8,000

2017

  • October 7 Sold machine ‘A’ – proceeds 5,500
  • November 5 Bought machine ‘D’ 12,000

2018

  • February 4 Sold machine ‘B’ – proceeds 3,000
  • February 6 Bought machine ‘B’ 9,000
  • October 11 Exchanged machine ‘D’ for machine valued at 7,000

Prepare;

  1. The machinery account for the period 1st January 2015 to 31st December 2018
  1. The accumulated provision for depreciation on machinery account, for the period 1st January 2015 to 31st December 2018.

9. The financial of the GGM trading company ended on 30th November 2014. You have been asked to prepare a total amount receivable and total amount payable for the draft final amounts. You are able to obtain the following information for the financial year the book of original entry.

Sales

– Cash 344,890

– Credit 268,187


Purchase

– Cash 14,440

– Credit 496,600


  • Total receipts from customers 600,570
  • Total payment to suppliers 503,970
  • Discount allowed to credit customer 5,520
  • Discount received from credit suppliers 3,510
  • Refund given to cash customers 5,070
  • Balance in sales ledger setoff against balance in the purchase ledger 700
  • Bad debt written off 780
  • Increase in the allowance for doubtful debts 900
  • Credit note issued to credit customers 4,140
  • Credit note received from credit suppliers 1,480

According to the audited financial statement for the previous year account receivable and account payable as to 1st December 2013 were 26,550 and 43,450 respectively

  • Required;

Draw up the relevant total accounts entering end of year total for account receivable and account payable.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 122

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE MID TERM TEST MARCH 2023

061 COMMERCE

TIME: 3 Hours

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C.
  2. Answer all questions in section A, B, and two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Calculators and cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the following items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in your answer booklet provided.

  1. Teachers, doctors and lawyers are said to be involved in production. Their contributions may be grouped under.
  1. Commercial occupations
  2. Distributive occupations
  3. Direct services
  4. Indirect services
  1. Businessmen who do not have permanent business premises are called;
  1. Itinerant traders
  2. Brokers
  3. Gamblers
  4. retailers
  1. I bought 100 units of a certain commodity from Suhail. The gross price is shs. 10 per item and trade discount is allowed at 20%. If I settle the debt within 30 days I will be allowed a cash discount of 4%. I intend to pay immediately. How much should I pay?
  1. 500/=
  2. 450/=
  3. 894/=
  4. 768/=
  1. . . . . .Is a means used by producers to identify their products from other manufacturers.
  1. Brand name
  2. Sorting
  3. colors
  4. price fixing
  1. The principal document in an insurance contract is:
  1. Policy
  2. Cover note
  3. Proposal form
  4. Certificate
  5. Premium
  1. One of the following is a method used by the government to collect money from most people whether foreigners or citizens whenever they buy goods for use
  1. Fees
  2. Direct tax
  3. Cooperation tax
  4. Indirect tax
  1. The decrease in price for motor vehicle will probably increase the demand for petrol. The relation between these two products is:-
  1. Derived demand
  2. Joint demand
  3. Competitive demand
  4. Composite demand
  1. One among the following is NOT a function of bank of Tanzania (B.O.T.)
  1. It acts as a banker to commercial banks
  2. It lends money to the discount house if there is no other source
  3. It is the sole currency issuing authority
  4. It advises the government on financial matters
  1. When a current account show a large amount of withdrawal than deposit:
  1. Bank draft
  2. Bank overdraft
  3. Bank profit
  4. Bank chargers
  1. The following is not advantage of mail order shop
  1. The buyer gets trouble and discomfort in buying in shops
  2. There are no bad debts because sales are through cash
  3. It is not necessary to maintain expensive show rooms
  4. The price is cheaper because middlemen are eliminated
  1. A contract of carriage of goods by water are generally called:-
  1. Bill of lading
  2. Charter party
  3. Marine contract
  4. Voyage charter
  1. Advertising is important because it mainly;
  1. Creates employment for a large number of people
  2. Creates demand for the goods and services
  3. Reduces the price of goods and services
  4. Creates market for quality goods
  1. The most essential characteristics of money is:
  1. Acceptability
  2. Portability
  3. Durability
  4. Scarcity
  1. Which one is not an importance of motivation?
  1. Good human relationship
  2. Higher level of performance
  3. Desire to work freely and independently
  4. Low level of performance
  1. Supermarkets are different from the other large-scale business because they use
  1. After-sales services
  2. Self-service system
  3. Transport system
  4. Consumer protection system.

2. Match the item is column A with the responses in column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in your answer booklet.

COLUMN A

COLUMN B

  1. General line wholesalers
  2. Peddlers
  3. Hawkers
  4. Credit control
  5. Intermediate goods
  1. Goods which are in progress i.e. not ready for final consumption e.g. Timber
  2. All activities of the central bank in regulating the lending capacity of commercial banks and other financial institution
  3. traders who carry goods along their body parts like shoulders or hands
  4. specialize in only one type of good in a given line of products e.g. cement only
  5. Wholesalers in which retailers buy goods and pays them through the counter
  6. Those goods which human being cannot live without them e.g. Food
  7. Deals with wide variety of goods within one line of products e.g. hardware
  8. Trader who use simple means of transport like carts, bicycles or animals.

SECTION B (50 marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Write short notes on the following

  1. Dumping
  2. Postal remittance
  3. Quasi partner
  4. Marketing research
  5. Promissory note

4. (a) Outline five (5) advantages of specialization.

(b) Give five (5) ways in which land is useful as a factor of production.

5. The following balances were extracted from the books of Malaya’s clock business for the year 2020.

  • Opening stock sh. 23,000/=
  • Purchases sh. 115,000/=
  • Carriage inwards sh. 3,000/=
  • Purchases return sh. 18,000/=
  • Sales sh. 200,000/=
  • Sales return sh. 15,000/=
  • Closing stock sh. 30,000/=
  • Current assets sh. 45,000/=
  • Current liabilities sh. 90,000/=
  • Fixed assets sh. 180,000/=
  • General expenses are 10% of the gross profit.

From the above information calculate:

  1. Cost of goods sold
  2. Gross profit
  3. Net profit
  4. Rate of stock turnover
  5. Mark up
  6. Margin
  7. Working capital

6. (a) Define partnership deed

(b) Mention five (5) contents of partnership deed.

7. Briefly explain four (4) factors that a bank manager should put into consideration before providing loan to customer.

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

8. (a) Briefly explain four (4) methods used by a country to control the volume of imports.

  1. Critically analyze (4) four disadvantage associated with sole proprietorship.
  1. (a) What is cooperative society?
  1. “Despite of having shortcoming of marketing boards but played an important roles in our country.” Justify this statement by giving five (5) points

10. Musuta is a trader who exports fresh fish and flowers from Tanzania to Japan and he did not know the best means of transport to be used. As a commercial student:

  1. Identify and suggest the suitable means of transport to be used.
  2. Describe five (5) advantages and three (3) disadvantages of the means transport chosen in (a) above.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 121

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSESSMENT

031/1 PHYSICS FORM THREE 

MID-TERM EXAMS MARCH – 2023 

Time: 3 Hours 

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries fifteen (16) marks, section B sixty (54) marks and section C carries twenty five (30) marks
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Non-Programmable calculators may be used
  6. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s)
  7. Where necessary the following constants may be used:
  1. Acceleration due to gravity, g=10m/s2
  2. Density of water = 1.0g/cm3
  3. Pie, π = 3.14
  4. Speed of light waves = 3.0 x 108m/s

SECTION A (16 marks)

1. For each items in (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter in box provided

  1. In a process of charging by induction in static electricity
  1. A conductor is rubbed with an insulator
  2. A charge in procedure by friction
  3. Negative and positive charges are separated
  4. A positive charge includes a positive charge
  5. Elections are sprayed into an object.
  1. The acceleration of a moving body may be found from
  1. The area under its velocity-time graph
  2. The slope of the velocity-time graph
  3. The distance under its distance-time graph
  4. The slope of the distance-time graph
  5. The slope of peak of its distance time-graph
  1. Which of these energy is non-renewable?
  1. Ware energy
  2. Bio fuels
  3. Radiant energy
  4. Fossil fuel
  5. Geothermal energy
  1. _____ is the area around a magnet current carrying conductor where magnetic strength can be detected by compass
  1. Magnetic domain
  2. Magnetic field
  3. Magnetic poles
  4. Induced filch
  5. Neutral point
  1. Which of the following apparatus is used to measure volume of irregular solid?
  1. Pipette
  2. Beaker
  3. Measuring tape
  4. Measuring cylinder
  5. burette
  1. A car moving with a velocity of 40km/h can be stopped by applying braces in2m. If the same car is moving with speed of 80km/h, what is the minimum stopping distance?
  1. 16m
  2. 12m
  3. 8m
  4. 4m
  5. 2m
  1. What are two factors that determine Buoyancy?
  1. Volume of fluid displaced and mass of the object
  2. Weight and mass of object
  3. Density of fluid and weight of object
  4. Volume of fluid displaced and density of fluid
  5. Mass of object and density of object.
  1. Which physical phenomenon is observed when tea bag is dipped into a cup of hot water?
  1. Steaming
  2. Diffusion
  3. Osmosis
  4. Evaporation
  5. Boiling
  1. Which process is involved in producing reverberation?
  1. Refraction
  2. Multiple reflection
  3. Interference
  4. Diffraction
  5. Reflection
  1. Which of the following is a scalar quantity
  1. Electric current
  2. Force
  3. Veracity
  4. Displacement
  5. Acceleration

2. Match each item in List A with a correct response in LIST B by writing a letter of correct response below the number of corresponding item in LIST A in table provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. State of balance of a body
  2. Sum of forces on opposite direction
  3. The point where force of gravity can be considered to act
  4. Object with high center of gravity
  5. Turning effect
  6. Remains in current form unless a state is changed.
  1. Center of gravity
  2. Unstable equilibrium
  3. Center of gravity
  4. Unstable equilibrium
  5. Point of application
  6. Equilibrium
  7. Stable equilibrium
  8. Inertia.

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. (a)Vectors are direction. What do you think are two conditions to be satisfied for two vectors to be equal?

(b) State and explain practical meaning of Triangle law of vector addition

(c) Two vectors, one of 8N and another 16N are acting on a body. Give that the two forces are acting perpendicularly to each other. Find the magnitude of the third force which would just counter balance the two forces.

4. (a)how are the principle focus of a convex mirror explained as far light in concerned

(b)A concave mirror is used to form an image of an object pin where the object must be placed to obtain,

  1. Upright enlarged Image
  2. Image same size an object

(c)A diagram below shows the path of a ray of light through one corner of a cube ice. Finds,

  1. Angle of incidence as the AB
  2. The angle of refraction of this face

5. (a)A uniform half meter rule in balanced at 15cm marks when a load of 0.4N is hanging at the zero marks. Draw a sketched diagram indicating the arrow of weight of the rule acting through the centre of gravity hence determine the weight of the half meter rule.

(b)Screw Jack has a screw pitch of 5mm and effort arm of 16cm

  1. State two forms of energy in which the energy supplied to screw jack is finally converted to
  2. Determine the percentage efficiency of Screw jack if it need an effort of 30N to left a load of 750N

6. (a)State one use of convex mirror and indicate why it is preferred to a plane mirror

(b)An object in set 20cm in front of a lens and the real, inverted, magnifies and at greater distance image was formed. State the type of lens used and determine the value of focal length.

7. (a) state Newton’s laws of motion

b) (i). Give reason why a person doing high jump bend a little his legs on landing 

(ii). Why it’s necessary to use seat belt in a car?

c) A tennis ball whose mass is 150 g is moving at a speed of 20 m/s. it is then brought to rest by one player in 0.05 s. find average force applied

8. (a) (i) When the pulling force is applied to the handle of the door, the hinge acts as the axis of rotation, and the door turns about. What do you understand by the term turning effect?

(ii) When forces are in equilibrium, it means that there is no net force to cause any movement. Describe conditions for parallel forces to be in equilibrium.

(b) A heavy uniform metal beam AB weighting 500kg is supported at its ends. The beam carries a weight of 3000kg at a distance of 1.5m from end A. If the beam is 4m long, determine the thrusts on the supports A and B.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer any two questions from this section

9. (a) A form two student is in the physics laboratory. He is provided with density bottle, sand, digital balance and water. He is required to determine the density of sand using the instruments provided above, show how will he determine the density of the sand?

(b) In an experiment to determine the density of sand, Sophia obtained and recorded the following results.

Mass of the density bottle, M1 = 200g

Mass of density bottle and sand, M2 = 490g

Mass of density bottle, sand and water, M3 = 550g

Mass of density bottle and water, M4 = 300g

(i) What was the density of sand?

(ii) Determine the relative density of sand.

10. (a) You are provided with two types of mirrors, concave mirror and convex mirror. What type of the mirror among the two will you prefer or driving a car to see the traffic at your back? Explain your choice.

(b) A far-sighted woman has a near point of 1.5m. Calculate the focal length of the lens for her ` eyeglasses so that she can read a book held at 25cm. Also find power of the lens.  

11. (a) A pressure cooker will cook beans faster than an open saucepan. Give explanation on these observations.

(b) An insulated cup holds 0.3kg of water at 0oC. 0.2kg of boiling water at standard pressure is poured into the cup. What will be the final temperature?

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 120

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSESSMENT

NEW EXAM FORMAT-2023

HISTORY FORM THREE 

MID-TERM EXAMS MARCH – 2023 

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of items (i) – (xv), choose the correct answer from among given alternatives and write it letter beside the item number on answer booklet

  1. Who studies society’s cultural, system behavior, believes and ideologies?
  1. Archaeologists
  2. Linguistics
  3. Anthropologists
  4. Humanitarian
  5. Philanthropists
  1. Whose theory explains the Origin of man by describing the changes that ancestors undergone until they were like modern man?
  1. Louis Leakey
  2. Mary Leakey
  3. David Livingstone
  4. Australopithecus
  5. Charles Darwin
  1. Which nation purchased the cape from the Netherlands for six million pounds sterling?
  1. Britain
  2. Belgium
  3. France
  4. Germany
  5. Portugal
  1. Who named Southern tip of Africa ‘Cape of Good Hope”
  1. Vasco da Gama,
  2. Prince Henry
  3. Cecil Rhodes
  4. John Moffat
  5. Bartholomew Diaz
  1. The range of productive activities that man perform in determinate by
  1. Nature of environment and productive forces
  2. Strong standing army and modern weapons
  3. Major means of production and cheap labour
  4. Availability of raw material and markets
  5. Presence of offensive and defensive force
  1. Which of the following was used to colonize Africa?
  1. Finance capital
  2. Primitive Accumulation of capital
  3. Bank capital
  4. Mercantile capital
  5. Industrial capital
  1. What was the aim establishing colonial state?
  1. To exploit a colony effectively
  2. To develop a free colony for Africans
  3. To establish African oversea province in Europe
  4. Supervise African Traditional institution
  5. To prepare Africans for self – Ruler.
  1. Rainfa’s mother was narrating a very interesting story about what happened during Ngoni Migration, we were listening careful and answer questions. What source of historical information was used?
  1. Museum
  2. Historical site
  3. Linguistics
  4. Anthropology
  5. Oral tradition
  1. Mr.Ottoman is an investor in Tanzania from German, he opened a large farm which is owned and supervised by him. This kind of Agriculture established by Mr. Ottoman can be related to which kind of Agriculture during Colonial era?
  1. Mixed farming
  2. Peasant Agriculture
  3. Seltzer Agriculture
  4. Plantation Agriculture
  5. Crop cultivation
  1. Lekinanga is a form one student who believes that all human’s were originated from Monkey, Gorilla and apes, through theory of evolution proposed by chanes Darwin, this theory can be termed as
  1. Theory of Creation
  2. Theory of evolution
  3. Theory of Natural selection
  4. Theory of Darwinism
  5. Theory of revolution

2. Match the items in List A with correct response in List B by writing the letter of correct response beside items number on answer booklet

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Islands of Zanzibar, Pemba, Mafia, Lamu, Kismayu, Bravo,Merca,Mogadishu and Warsheikh were defined as the dominions of the sultan of Zanzibar

(ii) German got the island of Heligoland

(iii) It was ruled that treaties made with African rulers were to be considered as valid titles to sovereignty

(iv) It was a system in which an African were taught how to think and act as the French people

(v) It was a system in which French had to respect the culture of her colonial people and allow them to develop independently rather than forcing them to adopt French civilization and culture

(vi) Africans agreed to work with colonists

  1. Association policy
  2. Assimilation policy
  3. Resolution of Berlin conference
  4. Anglo-German agreement of 1890
  5. Anglo-German agreement of 1886
  6. Slave trade centers
  7. Versailles peace treaty
  8. Human right policy
  9. Cultural system policy
  10. Causes of the second world war
  11. Collaborations.

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Answer the following questions briefly

  1. Why did British prefer indirect rule in most African colonies
  2. Why was iron Technology kept secret in Pre-colonial African societies
  3. How was assimilation policy implemented in Africa
  4. Explain two merits of feudalism
  5. Differentiate mixed farming from shifting cultivation

4. Arrange the following statement in chronological order by writing number 1 to 6 beside item number

  1. Majimaji was unique in a way it united a number of different tribes in Common rebellion
  2. The German Authorities were surprised when their headwater and official were attacked
  3. The least and most senor revolt against German rule broke out in July 1905
  4. The immediate cause of discontent was government cotton scheme
  5. A prophet named Kinjekitile of Ngarambe declared that magic water will turn bullets into water
  6. Due to this wrong belief of turning bullets into harmless water, these tribe were defeated by Germans

5. Draw a sketch map of Africa and locate the following by using roman numbers

  1. A country whose military force took part in the military campaign against forces of Idi Amin in 1978
  2. An East Africa country that had the only institution offering higher education until the 1960s.
  3. A country which was connected by a new railway from Tanzania through the assistance of the Chinese government
  4. A British colony that attained her political independence in 1957
  5. A Portuguese colony that adopted a socialist economic strategy.

6. Discuss the advantages of written sources of History

7. Discuss impact of Dutch settlement at the cape from 1652 – 1796

8. Pre-Colonial African societies development both local and regional trade. Evaluate six points on effects of regional trade in East Africa

 SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer any two (2) questions from this section

9. Outline six reasons for collapse of former East Africa community.

10. Elaborate six factors that contributed to the occurrence of Mfecane during the 19th century.

11. “East Africa was affected by the coming of Oman rulers in Zanzibar form 1840s”. Discuss this statement by giving six points.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 119

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSESSMENT

NEW EXAM FORMAT -2023

CIVICS FORM THREE 

MID-TERM EXAMS MARCH – 2023

SECTION A (16 marks)

1. For each of the following questions (i) – (x) choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number.

  1. Before closing the school, the headmaster called a school assembly and allowed students to address their complains, which type of human right was the headmaster fulfilling?
  1. Moral Right
  2. Freedom of expression
  3. Freedom of Association
  4. The right to education
  5. Equality before the law
  1. A person with the power to declare a state of emergency in Tanzania is
  1. The attorney General
  2. Commander in chief
  3. Speaker
  4. Inspector General of police
  5. The President
  1. Tanzania is the country which is headed by the president and other elected politicians therefore Tanzania is
  1. A republic
  2. Communist stable
  3. A monarchy
  4. Military state
  5. Federal government
  1. The academic master/mistress of your school is not satisfied with the academic performance of the school in the form four national examinations, which of the following type of life skills will be recommended to improve the academic of the school.
  1. Negotiations
  2. Team work
  3. Effective communication
  4. Forming friendship
  5. Peer pressure
  1. A personal Ability to feel and share another person’s emotion is known as
  1. Self esteem
  2. Negotiation
  3. Empathy
  4. Love
  5. Creative thinking
  1. Makaptura earns his income through the work of shoe shine. Nowadays he has become very famous because of his good services providing to his custors. Which sector does Makaptura serve?
  1. Informal sector
  2. Private sector
  3. Formal sector
  4. Public sector
  5. Self-employment sector
  1. Britain use constitution which is based on statues, customs, precedence and convention practise. This is an example of
  1. Permanent constitution
  2. Unwritten constitution
  3. Communist constitution
  4. Socio – cultural constitution
  5. Tanzania constitution
  1. Mabaga is a drug user to the extent that he cannot face daily life without drugs. What is the state does Mabaga reached?
  1. Dependence
  2. Regular use
  3. Experimental use
  4. Daily pre-occupation
  5. Independence drug user
  1. The freedom to decide and execute domestic and foreign policies without interference from other country.
  1. Liberation
  2. Nationalism
  3. Sovereignty
  4. Democracy
  5. Expression
  1. According to the constitution of the United Republic of Tanzania, the parliament consists of two pasts which are the __________ and __________
  1. Cabinet and shadow cabinet
  2. Provident and the National assembly
  3. Union parliament and House of representatives in Zanzibar
  4. Members of parliament from opposition parties and those from ruling party.

2. Match the description in Column A with the correct responses in Column B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside item number

COLUMN A

COLUMN B

  1. A form of courtship in which a young girl disappears at home late at night and goes to her lover
  2. A form of courtship where by a young man spies a girl he like
  3. A form of courtship where a man takes the woman he wishes to many
  4. A form of courtship that involves social Network such as twitter, face book instagram
  5. A form of courtship in which men dress nicely, decorate their face and dance to attract women.
  6. Strolling in nature with your partner
  1. Online courtship
  2. Dating
  3. Self-initiated
  4. Annual courtship festival
  5. Winged flight
  6. Traditional courtship
  7. Bride abduction
  8. Love walks
  9. Modern courtship

SECTION B (54 Marks)

3. (a)Briefly explain 5 challenges facing partners in courtship

(b)Analyze 5 causes of early marriage in our society by providing relevant

4. (a)Mention and explain 5 components of court of arm

(b)Outline 5 importance’s of courtship

5. Discus the importance of studying civics by giving examples

6. Outline 5 traditions and customs of Tanzanians which must be eradicated

7. What are the 5 roles/ functions of National Election commitment (NEC) during election

8. Discus 5 importance of team work.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two questions only

9. (a)Why are national festivals important to a country like Tanzania

(b)What are the challenges facing poverty eradication problems in Tanzania

10. Both formal and informal rector are highly in need for the economic development of the nation like Tanzania. In 5 points discuss problems facing informal sector

11. Explain the importance of reproductive health education in economic and social development six points only.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 118

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSESSMENT

032/1 CHEMISTRY FORM THREE 

NEW NECTA FORMAT-2023

MID-TERM EXAMS MARCH – 2023 

Time: 3:00 Hours 

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of thirteen (13) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in this paper
  3. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)
  5. The following constants may be used
  • Atomic masses: H=1, C=12, O=16, N=14, Pb=108
  • Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023
  • GMV at s.t.p = 22.4 dm3
  • 1 Faraday = 96,500 coulombs
  • Standard pressure = 760 mm Hg
  • Standard temperature = 273 K
  • 1 litre = 1dm3 = 1000cm3

SECTION A (16 Marks)

1. For each of items (i) – (x), Choose the correct answer from among the given alternative beside item number in answer booklet provided

  1. The technician prefer to use blue flame in welding because
  1. It is bright and non-sooty
  2. It is light and Non-sooty
  3. It is very hot and large
  4. It is very hot and non-sooty
  1. One of the following is not correct about coke being a better fuel than coal as it is
  1. Does not produce carbon dioxide
  2. Does not produce poisonous gas
  3. Has higher heat content
  4. It is clean and smokeless
  1. An important property of Oxygen that differentiate it from other gases is
  1. Bum and support combustion
  2. Burn but does not Support combustion
  3. Neither bums nor Support Combustion
  4. Supports combustion but does not bum
  1. Hard water which can be softened by boiling method contains dissolved
  1. Calcium carbonate
  2. Calcium sulphate
  3. Magnesium Chloride
  4. Magnesium hydrogen carbonate
  1. The source of energy which when used can be made to be put into use again is known as
  1. Fuel
  2. Non-renewable energy
  3. Renewable energy
  4. Solar energy
  1. One Isotope of an element has atomic number A and a mass number M. how many neutrons are contained in nucleus of atom?
  1. M
  2. A
  3. A-M
  4. M-A
  1. The arrangement of electrons in the atomic number 15 may be represented as follows
  1. 2:5:8
  2. 2:8:5
  3. 2:5:2
  4. 8:2:5
  1. Which of these methods can remove both temporary and permanent Gardness of water?
  1. Using ion exchange chamber
  2. Boiling
  3. Using Calcium hydroxide
  4. Evaporation
  1. A weak acid is best described on
  1. An acid that does not ionize completely
  2. A dilute Acid
  3. An acid that is harmless
  4. An acid
  1. Which is not an advantage of biogas
  1. It is cheaper source of Energy
  2. Pollutes the environment
  3. It is renewable source of energy
  4. Creates employment to the youth

2. (a)Match the terms in List A with explanation on List B and write the answer on spaces provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Efflorescent
  2. Delinquent
  3. Hydroscopic
  4. Drying agent
  5. Basicity of Acid
  6. Nitrogen Dioxide
  1. Salt used is soften
  2. Looses water into atmosphere
  3. Number of replaceable hydrogen ions
  4. Absorbs water to form solution
  5. Absorbs water but does not form solution
  6. Removes water from another substance
  7. A grown gas

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3.

  1. How can the society minimize the section encountered in use of charcoal and fire wood?
  2. Briefly explain the concept of scientific procedure
  3. What is the importance of scientific procedure in daily life?

4. (a)Give the meaning of the following

  1. Basicity of an acid
  2. The pH scale

(b)Categorize the following salts

  1. PbSO4
  2. MgHSO4
  3. Zn(OH)Cl
  4. MgHCO3
  5. NH4HSO4
  6. Ba(NO3)2

5.

  1. State Avogadro’s hypothesis
  2. 0.6g of gaseous fluoride is found is occupy 112cm3 at STP. Calculate the relative molecular mass of the fluoride
  3. 3.5g of hydrated salt, MSO4 x H2O was heated to a constant mass of 3.21g of hydrous salt of anhydrous salt. Calculate the value of (M=63.5, S=32, O= 16, H=1)

6. Soap solution of different amount of water are tested from four different sources and produces lather observed for 30 seconds. The three groups of water were untreated, Boiled and Treated by ion exchange. The results were as follows.

Sample

Untreated

Boiled

Passed though


12

1.8

1.8


17

17

1.7


26

20

1.8


1.6

1.6

1.6

Use above results to answer question that follow

  1. Which is hardest water sample? Why
  2. Which sample is like distilled water. Explain
  3. Which chemical substance might cause hardness is (i)Simple A sample B?
  4. Write an equation for reaction of removing hardness in sample C

7. (a) Define chemical equation and give two importance’s

(b) Write product and balance the following chemical equations

  1. AgNO3(aq) + NaCl(aq) 
  2. Zn(s) + H2SO4 (aq) 
  3. MgCl2(aq) + AgNO3(aq) 
  4. ZnCO3(s) + HCl(aq)
  5. Na(s) + H2O(i)

8. (a)List down three(3) sources of Natural water

(b)Explain why water is Not used to extinguish classic E fires

(c)Give reason to Support the fact

  1. Water is Universal Solvent
  2. Oxygen is collected over water
  3. Oxy-hydrogen used in welding

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer Any two Questions

9. (a)Define molecular and Empirical formula

(b)A compound oxygen M is composed of 52.2% carbon, 13% hydrogen and the rest Oxygen. If molecular mars of M is 4

  1. Find empirical formula of the compound
  2. Find its molecular formula

10. With aid of diagram illustrate/Describe sit methods of separating mixtures

11. Most areas in Dar es Salaams have problem of water hardness which affect much of their life. As an expert explain how you can help them solve the problem

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 117

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSESSMENT

033/1 BIOLOGY FORM THREE 

NEW EXAM FORMAT-2023

MID-TERM EXAMS MARCH – 2023 

Time: 3:00 Hours

Instruction

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one (1) question from section C
  3. Except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil, all writing should be in blue or black ink.
  4. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

SECTION A 16 Marks

Answer All Questions

1. For each of items (i) – (x), Choose the correct answer from among the given alternative beside item number in answer booklet provided

  1. The body of a Fungus is Organized into thread like structures called
  1. Chitin
  2. Hyphae
  3. Mycellum
  4. Thallus
  5. sori
  1. the leaves of a fem plant are called
  1. Pinnae
  2. Rachis
  3. Fronds
  4. Prothallus
  5. Hyphae
  1. The three parts responsible for the basic structure and Function of any cell are
  1. Nucleus, cell membrane, cytoplasm
  2. Nucleus, nucleolus and cytoplasm
  3. Nucleus, cell membrane, and cell wall
  4. Cell membrane, cell wall and cytoplasm
  5. Cell vacuole, chloroplast, mitochondrion
  1. The neuron found in human being is an example of
  1. Tissue
  2. Cell
  3. Organ
  4. Organelle
  5. system
  1. a structure that allows air to enter the trachea and prevent food from entering the wind pipe is known as
  1. glottis
  2. Tongue
  3. Soft plate
  4. Mouth
  5. Epiglottis
  1. Which food substance can be tested by using iodine solution?
  1. Protein
  2. Starch
  3. Carbohydrate
  4. Non-reducing sugar
  5. Reducing sugar
  1. The reason why rabbits are Primary consumers is because
  1. Feed on animals
  2. Feed on plants
  3. Feed on bacteria
  4. Feed on Fungi
  5. Make their own food
  1. Identify the wrong statement about monocots
  1. Have taproots
  2. Have parallel venation
  3. Floral parts are in three or multiples of three
  4. Lack pith
  5. Have monocot roots
  1. Joints are held together by
  1. Ligaments
  2. Cartilage
  3. Tendon
  4. Muscles
  5. Bones
  1. Plants are said to be vascular if
  1. They contain Phloem
  2. They Contain Xylem
  3. Contain Xylem and Phloem
  4. Contain Xylem only
  5. They contain Xylem and Cambium only

2. Match the description of the parts of skeleton in List A with corresponding Phrase/Terminology in List B by writing the letter of correct response beside item number in answer booklet.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Triceps
  2. Biceps
  3. Endoskeleton
  4. Thigmotropism
  5. Nastic movement
  6. Antagonistic movement
  1. Directional movement
  2. Muscles are attached to it externally
  3. Maintain shape of Earth worms
  4. Flex or muscles
  5. Response toward touch
  6. Response towards light
  7. Extensor
  8. Working version of biceps and triceps

SECTION B (54 marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. (a) It is necessary for Organisms to move from one point to another. Justify this statement by giving four points.

(b) Proper food preservation can prevent hunger. Justify this statement by explain four modern method of food preservation

4. (a) James has Just reached Fourteen Years. Identify five changes that might be observed on the body of James

(b) Explain the needs of adolescents

5. (a)What is a skeleton?

(b)Describe the function of human skeleton

(c) Artificial classification is no longer popular; Justify this statement by giving five points

6. (a) During a group discussion; Halima Suggested that Bryophytes and coniferophytes are similar in every aspect. Do you agree with her? Given reasons for your answer.

(b) How does Osmosis help plants to maintain their shape?

(c) Plasmodium in a protoctista. Describe the main features of kingdom protoctista.

7. (a)What would have to organism if mitochondrion are removed from body?

(b)Differentiate Photosynthesis and respiration

8. (a)What do you understand by the terms

  1. Plasmalemma
  2. Protoplasm
  3. Protoplast

(b)Which organelles are you likely to find on

  1. Aging cells
  2. Actively dividing cells
  3. Enzyme secreting cells

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer any two questions from this section.

9. Describe the significance of Transport of materials in Living Organism.

10. What is the economic importance of Anaerobic respiration?

11. Describe the economic importance of angiosperms

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 116

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSESSMENT

GEOGRAPHY FORM THREE 

MID-TERM EXAMS MARCH – 2023 

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions

1. For each of items (i) – (x), Choose the correct answer from among the given alternative beside item number in answer booklet provided

  1. Which set of elements of weather are mainly used to classify climate of an area?
  1. Humidity and precipitation
  2. Temperature and rainfall
  3. Temperature and sun shin
  4. Temperature and humidity
  5. Wind and temperature
  1. Which one is a major environmental problem facing most of African cities
  1. Loss of Biodiversity
  2. Soil erosion
  3. Deforestation
  4. Air pollution
  5. Overgrazing
  1. Suppose you ware walking along river Rufiji and you had a chance to observe the drainage with uniform rock structure and ruck resistance, suggest the name of that dranage Pattern
  1. Dendritic
  2. Trellis
  3. Redial
  4. Parallel
  5. Centripetal
  1. Suppose you are living in an urban center and you are interested in keeping livestock which type of livestock keeping would be suitable for you?
  1. Sedentary
  2. Transhumana
  3. Ranching
  4. Pastoralism
  5. Nomadism
  1. Which ears crust procession caused the formation of Ulugum Mountains
  1. Prolonged denudation
  2. Wrinkling of the earth crust
  3. Sinking of Earth crust
  4. Faceting of earth’s crust
  1. Earthquake and volcanoes have clearly identifiable pattern over the Earth’s surface which area is not phone to earth quires and volcanoes?
  1. Coast of Alaska
  2. East Africa Rift valley
  3. Andes mountain
  4. Himalayan belf
  5. Sahara desert
  1. Rambo used to see a group of herdmers moning periodically with their cattle between Lowland and highland in search of water and pocture. Which term refers to such movement?
  1. Pastoralism
  2. Zero grazing
  3. Transhumance
  4. Nomadism
  5. Destocking
  1. It was a wonderful event after several years when a river becomes yours again in its valley. Identify the process that took place
  1. Regina
  2. Delta
  3. Capture
  4. Abrasion
  5. Rejuvenation
  1. What is the social economic importance of reserved forests to the society?
  1. Tourism
  2. Mining
  3. Lumbering
  4. Forestry
  5. Agro forestry
  1. When the moon’s shadow casts over the earth’s surface the phenomenon is known as
  1. Lunar Eclipse
  2. Solar Eclipse
  3. Equinoxes
  4. Summer solstice
  5. Winter solstice

2. Match the items in LIST A with responses in List B by writing the letter of correct response beside item number in answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Fineness and coarseness of soil particles
  2. Removal of Material from the surface of the land
  3. Vertical section of the soil to underlying rocks
  4. Status of soil with respect to amount of elements necessary for plants
  5. Residues that have decomposed and mixed with soil mass
  1. Soil types
  2. Soil profile
  3. Loamy soil
  4. Soil texture
  5. Soil structure
  6. Soil fertility
  7. Soil organic matter
  8. Soil chemistry
  9. Soil erosion
  10. Soil water
  11. Soil air
SECTION B (55 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Study carefully the map extract of Ilonga (Sheet 265/2) and then answer the following questions

  1. Citing evidence from the map, saddest three possible economic activities carried out in the mapped area?
  2. Describe the vegetation distribution in the area
  3. Describe Drainage Patten found in the map.
  4. Give the name of the main made Linear physical feature found in the map
  5. Calculate the area of the whole map in km2

4. Study carefully the data below that show the environment of form six students at Bagamoyo secondary school from 1980 – 1985 then answer questions that follow.

Year

No. of Students

1980

1981

1982

1983

1984

1985

100

150

175

200

225

300

  1. Present the data above by pie chart
  2. Comment on the trend of the pie chart (a) above
  3. What are the merits of using this method a part from method used in (a) above give (3) points.
  4. What are alternative methods that can be used to present the data above? Give two (2) points

5. (a)Mary is a good cartographer. She intends to produces a contoured map of Morogoro. What type of survey method would You advise her to apply

(b)a part from producing contoured map, what is the other significance of the survey you mentioned in (a) above

(c)Mention and Explain uses of any three instrument which are used in method mentioned above.

6. Suppose you want to conduct research about millet production in your district 2008 is 2018 and your interest is to know whether the production has increased or decreased. You plan is to consult famer who were directly involved in the mane production for the said period and visit the District Agriculture office for more information.

  1. What will be best research approach for your study
  2. Name the main source of data for your study
  3. Identify two (2) individual who will be respondents for your study
  4. Mention other six (6) possible sources of research problem for the smiler study

7. Carefully study the photograph below and answer questions that follows

  1. Name the activity taxing place in photograph
  2. Give three (3) importance of the activity you have
  3. With two (2) reason suggest the type of photograph showed above
  4. What are the three (3) negative impacts of the activity to the environment?
  5. What is the scale of the activity you have named in (a) above

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two questions from this section

8. a)A group of students were sitting at a high steep face of a ruck a long the sea coast of the Indians ocean. They observed the breaking movement of ocean waves in which ocean water is through up the beach and returned under gravity down the shore

  1. What are two wave processes the student observed
  2. Mention four erosion processes involved in that ocean wave

(b)Identify three factors that affect wave erosion

(c)Draw a well labeled diagram to show the following features resulting from wave erosion

(i) Blow hole (ii) Cave

9. Mr Saguti wants to establish a plastic processing industry in Visitu Town. Analyse six factors he should consider before locating the industry

10. “Tanzania has realized that improving transport is inheritable for sustainable socio-economic development”. Justify this quotation by giving seven points.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 115

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

MATHS ANNUAL EXAMINATIONS

FORM THREE-2022

 

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in both sections
  3. Each question in section A carries six (6) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks
  4. All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly.
  5. NECTA mathematical tables or non-programmable scientific calculator and graph papers may be used unless otherwise stated
  6. You are advised to spend no more than two (20 hours on section A
  7. All communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  8. Write your Examination Number on every page of your booklet(s)

 

SECTION A (60 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1. (a) At exactly 7:00a.m, two buses leave the bus terminal. Thereafter, every 40 and 70 minutes, a bus leaves the terminal. Find the time busses will leave the terminal together.

(b)(i) Estimate the value of 

(ii)Simplify the ratio of a tob, given that  and b= to its lowest form.

  1. (a) Solve for x in the equation

(b) If 3x – y=4, What is the value of 

  1. A bag contains 6 red balls and 8 blue balls. A random selection of balls from the bag is performed. If one ball is selected from the bag and then replaced before selecting the second ball:
  1. Draw a tree diagram showing all the possible outcomes and their corresponding probabilities
  2. Find the probability of selecting
  1. Balls of different colours
  2. Balls of the same colour
  1. (a)Three consecutive vertices of parallelogram are at A(-1, 2), B(5, 1), C(6, 5), and

D(x, y), Find the coordinate of vertex D.

(b) Two towns P and Q are 30km apart, Q being due East of P. Town R is situated at a bearing of 150° from P and 240° from Q. calculate the distance RQ

  1. (a)P and Q are markers on the banks of a canal which has parallel sides. R and S are telegraph poles which are directly opposite each other. PQ=30m and QR=100m. When Mr. Ates walked 20m from P directly away from the bank, he reached a point T such that T, Q and S lined up. How wide is the canal?

 

 

 

 

 

 

(b)In a triangle ABC, angle ABC=50° and point X lies on  such that  with the aid of a diagram, calculate 

  1. (a)An English family on holiday in France exchanged 450 for euros when the exchange rate was 1.41 euros to the pound. They spent 500 euros and then exchanged the rest back into pounds, by which time the exchange rate had become 1.46 euros to the pound. How much did the holiday cost? (Give your answer in pounds.
  2. The following balance sheet relates to Mr. Max Malipo, a trader, as at 31st December 2020

 

MR. MAX MALIPO

PARTICULARS 

AMOUNT

PARTICULARS

AMAUNT

CAPITAL

Add: Net Profit

 

Less: Drawings

 

LIABILITIES 

Creditors 

Salaries Accrued

Tel. Outstanding 

179,000

30,280

 

 

 

191,280

 

7,000

5,000

220

ASSETS

Furniture 

Machinery 

Debtors 

Cash at Bank

Rates Prepaid 

Closing Stock 

 

 

40,000

30,000

10,000

  3,000

     500

120,000

 

209,280

18,000

 

203,500

203,500

 

Use the information given in the balance sheet above to find:

  1. Total Fixed Assets
  2. Total Current Assets
  3. Total Current Liabilities
  4. Working Capital
  1. (a)Mr. Cathbert starts an employment with a monthly salary of 340,000/= Tshs and receives an increment of 12,000/= Tsh every year.
  1. What will be his salary in the fourteenth year of employment?
  2. After how long would he be earning 592,000 Tsh per month?

(b)The sum of the first two terms of a geometric progression is 27 whereas the sum of the 2nd and 3rd term of the same progression is 54. Find the first term and the common ratio.

  1. (a)At a point 200m from the foot of a tower on a level road, the angle of elevation of the top of the tower is 58°.
  1. Represent this information diagrammatically,
  2. Find the height of the tower.

(b)A rectangular frame ABCD, 48cm by 55cm, is made from wire. The diagonals of the frame are also made from wire.

 

 

 

 

 

 

Calculate the total length of wire needed to make the frame and the diagonals.

  1. (a)Find the values of m and n in system of linear equations

(b)Find the values of a andb if (ax + 5) (bx + 4) = 21x2 + 43x + 20.

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. (a)The table below shows the distribution of marks scored by 45 students in Physics examination

Marks (in %)

99 – 89 

88 – 78 

77 – 67 

66 – 56 

55 – 45 

Number of students 

2

5

20

11

7

 

  1. Determine the median class of marks
  2. Compute the mean mark
  3. Draw the histogram and hence use it to estimate the mark scored by many students

 

(b) are secants that intersect at A in the figure below. Given that chords  Find the angles x and y.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. (a)A circular tank has a base of 53-metre radius and height of 12 metres. If the tank is a half full of water, what is the volume of water in a tank? Give your answer in litres (1 cubic metre = 1000 litres)

(b)Mr. Paul went to buy a car. He wanted to buy a car that has not covered more than 2,500 kilometres (not much used). If he found only one car in the market which travelled from Nairobi (56°N, 40°E) to Dar-es-Salaam (26°N, 40°E). What can you advice Mr.Paul according to his need? (Use radius of the Earth, RE= 6370km)

 

  1. (a)Find value of K if the matrix

(b)Use inverse matrix method to solve for x and y in the following pair of equations of straight lines: 

(c) A linear transformation T maps .

Find 

  1. The transformation matrix T
  1. (a)Find the role of the following is solving linear programming problems:
  1. Non-negativity constraints
  2. Feasible region
  3. Objective function

(b) MzeeMalengo has 240 acres of land which he wants to plant maize and oats. For each acre of maize planted he will profit 400,000/= Tsh, and for each acre of oats planted he will profit 300,000/= Tsh. However, maize takes 2 hours to harvest, while oats require 1 hour harvesting, and he has only 320 hours available for harvesting. How many acres of each crop should he plant in order to maximize profits?

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 113



THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES


PHYSICS                                                                        FORM             THREE

TIME: 3 HOURS                                                                             NOVEMBER 2022


Instruction

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of eleven [11] marks
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two [2] questions from section C
  3. Mathematical table and non – programmable calculator may be used
  4. Cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room
  5. Write your Examination number on every page of your answer sheet provided
  6. Where necessary the following constants may be used
  • Acceleration due to gravity g = 10mls2
  • Density of water, p= 1000 kg /m3or 1g/cm3

SECTION A [15 MARKS]

  1. For each of the items [i] – [x] choose the correct among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheets provided.
  1. Which one among of the following is a factor on which up thrust exerted on a body by fluid depends:
  1. Volume of the fluid B. Mass of the fluid C. Viscosity of the fluid D. Density of the fluid E. Temperature of the fluid
  1. A layer of colour less water is carefully floated in a cylinder on top of blue copper sulphate solution after a time, the water becomes blue, because of?
  1. Liquid friction B. Density changes C. Diffusion
  1. Viscosity E. Pressure changes
  1. If the mass of copper over the volume of copper is 8.9g/cm3. Find the volume 89g of copper
  1. 10 -5 cm C. 10-5m3
  2. 0.1 cm3D. 100CM3E. 10cm3
  1. Aluminum is used in making motor engines, pistons and cylinders due to
  1. Its low density and high conductivity
  2. Low density and maximum pressure
  3. High density and varying mass
  4. Its high conductivity and high density
  5. Its heavy weight and low conductivity
  1. The acceleration of a moving body may be found from;
  1. The area under its velocity-time graph.
  2. The slope of the velocity-time graph.
  3. The area under its distance-time graph.
  4. The slope of the distance-time graph.
  5. The slope of the peak of its distance-time graph
  1. Oil is used as a lubricant in a machine because it has
  1. Low density
  2. High viscosity
  3. Low pressure
  4. High pressure
  5. Low viscosity
  1. When light is totally internally reflected from the boundary of a certain transparent material and air the critical angle is found to be 500 the speed of light in the material is
  1. 2.1 x 108m/s
  2. 2.2 x 108m/s
  3. 1.94 x 108m/s

D.2.3 x 108m/s

E. 3.0 x 108m/s

  1. Why buildings are constructed with wide foundation?
  1. Because of power
  2. In order to reduce pressure exerted by the building on the ground
  3. So as to build large house
  4. To increase pressure of the ground so as to maintain holding the house.
  5. To avoid earth quake


  1. The energy from the hot rocks within the earth is called.
  1. Tidal energy
  2. Water energy
  3. Cool- burning energy
  4. Biomass energy
  5. Geothermal energy
  1. A reference was a certain device to judge football game in 90 minutes at MKAPA arena, that device was:-
  1. Football C. Stop watch
  2. Tape measure D. 90 Minutes E. Line man


Section B [60 marks]

Answer all questions


  1. [a]. By using well labeled diagram, explain in short why the stem of the hydrometer is made thin and weighted with mercury or lead shorts? [06 marks]

[b]. A ship is made of steel and it is expected that it should sink in water. However it does not sink. At the same time a coin once dropped in water it will sink. How can you solve this contradiction so as to help a form one student who is totally confused? [04 marks]

  1. [a]. It has been found the efficiency of a pulley system is always less than 100%. Giving two reasons explain the secret behind. [04 marks]

[b]. A meter rule is pivoted at its mid-point. If two objects of weigh 1.0N and 2.0N are suspended at 30cm and 90cm respectively from one end, calculate the position

  1. [a]. State the laws of refraction of light

[b]. The diagram below shows a ray of light incident on a glass prism at an angle.





Complete the diagram to show as it emerges from the other side [05marks]

[c]. Sketch a ray diagram to show the formation of a solar ellipse [03marks]

  1. [a]. Give one difference and one similarity between a fuse and a circuit – breaker [04 marks]

[b]. A cell supplies a current of 0.6A through a 2? coil and a current of 0.2Athrough a752? coil. Calculate the e.m.f and internal resistance of the cell [06marks]

  1. [a]. Explain on the basic of conservation of linear momentum, how a fish propels itself forward by swishing its tail back and forth [04 marks]

[b]. A block and tackle system of 5 pulley is used to raise of 490N steadily through a is then 1800 J. calculate the efficiency of the system and efforts applied[06 marks]

  1. (a) Explain four (4) factors affecting resistance of a conductor. (6 marks)

     (b) Describe two (2) defects of simple cell(4 marks)


Section C [25 marks]

Answer two [2] question form this section

  1. When a simple pendulum displaced at a small angle swings to and fro, in this motion potential energy and kinetic energy changes by alternating each other. With the aid of diagram verify the alternation of these energies.(8.5 marks)

(b) A 50kg girl runs up a staircase of 50 steps each step is 15cm in height in 5s. Find Work doneagainst gravity by the girl and Power she use to run(4 marks)

10. (a) A drum at station A is connected to a wire string at station B. A man at A beats the drum while another person at B places his ear at the wire and hears two sounds separated by the time interval of 0.5 seconds. If the velocity of sound in the wire string is 5280m/s. How far apart are the two men. (5 marks)

(b) How long will it take a 240V, 3000W electric immersion heater to raise the temperature of 150 litres of water in a well lagged copper tank of mass 20kg from 15? to 70?. Also find the cost at 5 shillings per kwh. (5 marks)

11. (a).A plane mirror and concave mirror both they produce an image from the given object. Draw the diagram to represent the formation of image in each case (for the concave mirror consider an object to be at the center of curvature, (C). Hence show two similarities and two differences of images formed. ( 6 marks)

(b) Explain the formation of mirage (4 marks)



LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 112

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

ENGLISHFORM THREE

TIME: 3 HOURS NOVEMBER 2022

INSTRUCTIONS:

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C
  2. Answer ALL questions in section A and B and three (03) questions from section C
  3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B carries forty (40) marks and section C forty- five (45) marks.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  5. Write your examination number of every page of your sheet/booklet(s)

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the following items (i-x), choose the must correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet(s)
  1. She is the_________ in form four class
  1. Tall
  2. Tallest
  3. Taller
  4. More tall
  5. Most tall
  1. We have _______ rice
  1. Eat
  2. Eaten
  3. Eating
  4. Had eat
  5. Eats
  1. Her mother suffered ______ malaria
  1. From
  2. Of
  3. With
  4. At
  5. off
  1. He ______ to do it now
  1. Is wanting
  2. Wanted
  3. Has wanted
  4. Wants
  5. want
  1. The earth_______ round the sun
  1. Moves
  2. Move
  3. Is moving
  4. Moved
  5. was move
  1. Aneth _________ the school compound
  1. Clean
  2. Cleans
  3. Cleaning
  4. Cleaned
  5. Is cleaning
  1. Salome ________ working in the garden when you came:
  1. Are
  2. Is
  3. Was
  4. were
  5. Has
  1. If were you, I __________ this examination
  1. won’t fail
  2. Don’t fail
  3. I am not going to fail
  4. would not fail
  5. will not fail
  1. Her performance is ________ than it was a year ago
  1. Good
  2. Best
  3. very better
  4. More better
  5. Better
  1. When the light went off, I ___________ my super
  1. Has eaten
  2. Have eating
  3. Was eating
  4. I am eating
  5. Had eaten

2. Match each expression in List A with the correct word in List B by writing, its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided:

LIST A

LIST B

(i) The teacher with his pupils

(ii) Virus

(iii) A place where books are kept in school

(iv) A box like in which the dead is put

(v) Many people will die of hunger

  1. Grave
  2. Were playing tennis
  3. Library
  4. A very small living thing that causes disease
  5. Were cheap in price
  6. Coffin
  7. But he is careless
  8. Unless the government stakes quick measures
  9. Is playing football
  10. Class

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

3. Add the question tags to the following sentences:

  1. You posted my letter
  2. Juma drinks too much
  3. The bus left early
  4. He was tired of waiting
  1. Write sounds of the following creatures
  1. The sound of a dog__________
  2. The sound of a lion__________
  3. The sound of a cow___________
  4. The sound of a snake __________
  1. Assign the nouns with the correct explanations below:
  1. A piece of furniture on which people sleep________
  2. A piece of furniture with back and four legs which one person sits___
  3. A piece of furniture that consists of a flat top supported by legs_____
  4. A backless seat with legs consists of small flat top _____________
  1. Change the following direct speed sentences into indirect speech
  1. “They will sing tomorrow”, Mr. Jabu said
  2. “Have you ever see these men”? I asked Mama Aisha.
  3. We said “We ate all the meat”
  4. My mother ordered, “sweep the floor at once”
  1. The following is the timetable showing daily activities done by Alex. Complete the sentence A – During the information given in the time table.

5:00am- Wake up

5:00am – 5:15- praying

5:15am – 5:45- do general cleaning and take breakfast

6:00am- go to school

4:00pm- go back home

Example:Alex wake up 5:00am every day

a._________________________________

b._________________________________

c._________________________________

d._________________________________

  1. With example list down four (4) uses of article `THE`

SECTION C (45 MARKS)

Answer any three (03) questions from this section

  1. Imagine that you are the English speaking campaign manager in your school, prepare a speech of not less than 250 words and not more than 300 words. Address the usefulness of this campaign at secondary schools. Give six points.

LIST OF READINGS

NOVEL AND SHORT STORIES

A Wreath for Fr. Mayor-S.N. Ndunguru (1977) MkukinaNyota

Unanswered Cries- Osman Conteh, Macmillian

Passed Like a Shadow- B.M. Mapalala (2006) DUP

Spared- S. N. Ndunguru

Weep Not child- NgugiwaThiong’o (1977) Heinmann

The Interview- NgugiwaThiong’o (2002) Macmillian

PLAYS:

Three suitors One Husband- O. Mbia (19940 Eyre Methuren

The Lion and The Jewel- Ole Soyinka (1963) DUP

The Black Hermit- NgugiwaThiong’o(1968) Heinmann

This Time Tomorrow- NgugiwaThiong’o (1972) Macmillian

POETRY

Song of Lawino and Ocol- O.p`Nitek (1979) EAPH

Growing Up with Petry- D. Rubadiri (ed)(1972) Heinmann

Summons- R.S. Mabala (1960) T.P.H

10. Use two poems to show poets use poetic devices to deliver their message to the society. Give three poetic devices from each poem.

11. Referring to two plays you have done. Discuss the functions of literature in the society. Give three points from each play.

12. Points out the causes of conflicts from two (2) novels you have done. Give three (03) points from each novel.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 111


THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

032/1 HISTORYFORM THREE

TIME: 3 HOURS NOVEMBER 2022

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of nine (09) questions
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and three (03) questions from section C.
  3. All drawings should be in pencil
  4. Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheet provided.

SECTION A (20 MARKS)

Answer All questions in this section

  1. For each of the items (i-xv) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided:
  1. Human activities against nature and production relations are fully understood through the study of:
  1. Archaeology
  2. Literature
  3. History
  4. Museums
  5. Archives

  1. Man started to be skillful and tool maker at the stage of:
  1. Homo sapiens
  2. Homo erectus
  3. Homo habilis
  4. Modern apes
  5. Zinjanthropus

  1. Dr. Robert Moffatworked as a missionary in one of the following stations:
  1. Salisbury
  2. Kuruman
  3. Blantyre
  4. Maposeni
  5. Rabai

  1. The Portuguese conquest of East Africa Coast was led by:
  1. King Emmanuel
  2. Ahmed Ibin Majid
  3. Henry the Navigator
  4. Vasco Salgado
  5. Francesco D’ Almeida
  1. The leader of Chimulenga Uprising of 1896-1897 in Rhodesia were
  1. Mkwati and Kinjikitile
  2. Singinyamatish and Lobengula
  3. Mkwati and Singinyamatish
  4. Mkwati and Lobengula
  5. Lobengula and Rumunguru

  1. Tanzania adopted new economic strategy in 1967 known as:
  1. Operation feed yourself
  2. Ujamaa and self reliance
  3. Humanism
  4. Common man’s charter
  5. Independence now

  1. The core ideas of French Revolution were:
  1. Slave trade, colonialism and Neo-colonialism
  2. Market, raw materials and Cheap labour
  3. Communalism, slavery and feudalism
  4. Fratenity Liberty and Equality
  5. Scramble, Partition and Bogus treaties

  1. Asante was one of the forest states which resisted against the:
  1. French
  2. Germans
  3. Belgians
  4. Dutch
  5. British

  1. Ghana empire broke apart due to the following reasons;
  1. Attack from almoravids
  2. Role of trans-saharan trade
  3. Role of Simanguru
  4. Attack from Bunyoro
  5. Coming of europeans

  1. African countries have tried to bring about real independence through:
  1. Setting new factories and political instabilities in Africa
  2. Improving communication systems and military coups
  3. Expanding Education and Agricultural practices
  4. Establishing heavy industries and free market economy
  5. Expanding agricultural production and administering trust territories

  1. Which of the following societies in West Africa were famous in using copper alloys for making various ornaments?
  1. Ibo and Yoruba
  2. Venda and Mashona
  3. Maganja and Fulani
  4. Yoruba and Mandika
  5. Mandika and Ibo

  1. What is the most supreme organs of United Nations Organization?
  1. Trusteeship council
  2. Secretariat
  3. Security Council
  4. General Assembly
  5. International court of Justice

  1. The period which man was able to make chopping and pebble tools s known as:
  1. Late Stone Age
  2. Old Stone Age
  3. Middle Stone Age
  4. Iron Age
  5. Industrial Age

  1. Which among the following places did people extract salt from salt bearing rocks?
  1. Uvinza and Taghaza
  2. Taghaza and Bilma
  3. Axum and Taghaza
  4. Meroe and Egypt
  5. Uvinza and Bilma

  1. The British colonial rule in East Africa constructed the Uganda railway in order to:
  1. Attract more Europeans settlers to Kenya
  2. Compete with the Imperial German East African rule
  3. Provide cheap means of Transport for the East Africa People
  4. Gain Easy access to resources surrounding the interlacustrine area
  5. Facilitate Transportation of suppressive soldiers against the rebel Buganda

  1. Match the items in List a with those in B by writing the letter of the correct answer in the able provided:

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Khoi khoi
  2. 1806
  3. SamoriToure
  4. Mashoeshoe
  5. Vasco da Gama
  1. Mandika empire
  2. Founded Oyo Empire
  3. Introduced new method of fighting in Sotho kingdom
  4. The British and control of the cape
  5. Earliest inhabitants of southern Africa.
  6. Founded so the kingdom
  7. Linked Africa to Portuguese merchantalism
  8. Introduced barter system in south Africa
  9. Facilitated indirect rule in Uganda

SECTION B

  1. Briefly explain the following historical information

(i)Association

(ii)Mfecane ware

(iii)The Boer trek

(iv)Trans-Saharan trade

(v)Common wealth

(vi)Why Indirect rule was direct rule

  1. Arrange the following statements into chronological order by writing number 1 to 6 beside the item number:
  1. In 1964, Nelson Mandela was arrested and sent to jail.

  1. In 1949 the youth league launched its “programme of action” which aimed at attainment of freedom white domination.

  1. 3 National congress (SANNC) in 1912.

  1. African National Congress (ANC) led by Nelson Mandela established its armed wing known as “Umkonto we Swize” (spear of the nation) which immediately embarked upon military operations within south Africa.

  1. The imposition of capitalist relations of production in south Africa unlike other parts of the continent is underlined by racism. This made nationalist struggles in South Africa to be more complicated and long.

  1. The leaders who were not imprisoned such as Oliver Thambo fled into exile and tried to set up an ANC wing in friendly countries like Tanzania and Zambia.

  1. Draw a sketch of Africa on it locate the sites of African resistance.

(i)A resistance fought between the African and German in South West Africa

(ii)A resistance that African managed to fight for a long time with French in West Africa

(iii)A resistance that took place in in un colonized African nation in North East of Africa.

(iv)Resistance between African and German with took place in 1891

(v)Shona and Ndebele fought against British on 1896 – 1897.

SECTION C

  1. Explain six techniques used by colonialist to obtain labour during colonial period.
  2. Analyse six methods that were used by the imperialists in imposing their rule in Africa.
  3. “Islamic religion is termed as an important agent for the rise and development of strong political organization in pre-colonial Africa”. By using west Africa as the case study, validate the statement. Give six points
  4. It is argued that “ Neolithic age changed man’ ways of life completely” as Historian justify this statement by using six points.
  5. “It is historically understood that, the last country to attain her political independence was South Africa” With six (6) points explain the methods that were employed by black society in South Africa in the struggle for their liberation

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 110

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGYFORM THREE

TIME: 3 HOURSNOVEMBER 2022

INSTRUCTIONS:

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C.
  2. Answer All questions in section A, B and two (2) question from section C, question (13) is compulsory.
  3. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

  1. Choose the correct answer
  1. Disease which spread quickly and affect the large number of people for a short time is:
  1. Pandemic disease
  2. Endemic disease
  3. Epidermic disease
  4. AIDS
  5. Typhoid

  1. On the microscope the STAGE is a part which:
  1. Direct the light to the object under observation
  2. Hold the object to be observed
  3. Move fine adjustment knob so as to obtain a clear mage of the object
  4. Magnify the object under observation
  5. Support the objective lens

  1. Which of the following are hormone concerned with regulation of sugar in the blood
  1. Adrenaline hormone, thyroxine hormone
  2. Auxins hormone and insulin hormone
  3. Prolaction, oxytocin
  4. Insulin, glucagon
  5. Oestrogen, progesterone

  1. Oxygenated blood is found in arteries except:
  1. Aorta
  2. Subclaria artery
  3. Pulmonary artery
  4. Pulmonary vein
  5. Vein
  1. When a bird builds a nest on a tree, the bird benefits but the tree neither benefits nor loses. What type of relationship is shown by bird and the tree?
  1. Amensalism
  2. Parasitism
  3. Mutualism
  4. neutralism
  5. Commensalism

  1. The word cell is derived from the Latic word “cellula” which means a:
  1. Unit of life
  2. Little room
  3. Cork from the bark of the tree
  4. Living thing
  5. Robert Hook

  1. Organisms can either be:
  1. Unicellular or Prokaryote
  2. Living thing or Eukaryote
  3. Living thing or Non-living thing
  4. Multicellular or Unicellular
  5. Multicellulalr or Unicellular

  1. Pick up the wrong statement
  1. All organisms respire
  2. Some fungi are edible
  3. Protoctista have photosynthetic and heterotrophic mode of nutrition
  4. Cell wall is absent in Animalia
  5. Nuclear membrane is absent in Animalia

  1. One of the major component of the cell was of most fungi is:
  1. Chitin
  2. Cellulose
  3. Starch
  4. Lipids
  5. Phospholipid bilayer

  1. Group of sporangia borne on the underside of fern leaves are called:
  1. Tholus
  2. Protholus
  3. Fronds
  4. Fiddle head
  5. Sori

2.

SECTION B:

  1. (a)Define the following terms as used in Biology

(i)An accident

(ii)Burning

(iii)Safety

(iv)First aid kit

(b)Explain shortly why is important to dispose waste properly

  1. It has been observed that some people dispose waste around the lake which supply water to the surrounding community. Briefly explain three problems which are likely to happen to the area.

  1. Study carefully the following food chain then answer the questions that follow:

Maize seedsHensHumansBacteria

(a)Which of the above organisms are:

(i)Herbivores(ii)Consumers

(b)(i)Name other organisms that can replace the bacteria from the food chain in5 above

(ii)Outline two advantages of food chain

  1. Alex complain of having burning sensation around the chest region

(a)What digestive order is the facing?

(b)Give three measures he should take to treat the disorder

  1. (a)What is the difference between first aid and first aid kit?

(b)Outline five (5) importance of first aid to a victim

  1. (a)Differentiate between responsible behaviour and risky behavior

(b)State two behaviors which may lead to the following risks

(i)STD’s

(ii)HIV infections

(iii)Drug abuse

(iv)Unplanned pregnancies

(c) Suggest two (2) ways on how to care and support a victim of HIV/AIDS.

  1. Explain how a plant cell prevent bursting when placed in hypotonic solution

(b) What will be the effect in recipient's blood when he/she has been transfused an incompatible blood from the donor.

(c) State any three precautions to be taken during blood transfusion

  1. Consider that you are medical doctor and you have received a patient whose investigation a diagnosed kidney stone. Suggest to the patient three possible causes and three control measures for kidney stones.

  1. Reptiles are organisms whose body temperature is affected by environmental temperature. Briefly explain two ways that help reptiles to survive in different weather condition.
  2. Briefly explain four reasons why plants lack specialized excretory organs

  1. Explain the biological significance of the following ;

(i) Stomata are placed in the lower part of the leaf

(ii) Plants shed off leaves during dry seasons

(iii) It is advised to irrigate your plants in early morning or late evening.

(iv) Alveoli is supplied with a network of blood capillaries

SECTION C

Answer two questions from this section, question number 13 is compulsory

  1. Briefly explain the HIV/AIDS basing on the following guidelines
  • Meaning
  • Mode of transmission
  • Symptoms
  • Preventive measures
  • Effects
  • Treatment/cure

  1. Which classification system do taxonomists mostly prefer? Explain any four reasons as to why they prefer that system.

  1. Discuss the economic importance of bacteria. Give examples where necessary

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 109

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICSFORM THREE

TIME: 3 HOURSNOVEMBER 2022

INSTRUCTIONS:

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B & C.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only three questions in section C.
  3. Section A carry 15 marks, section B carry 40 marks and section C carry 45 marks
  4. Cellular phones are not allowed in the Examination Room
  5. Write your Examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A: (15 MARKS)

  1. For each of the items (i)-(x). choose the correct among the given alternatives and write it letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided:
  1. The ability of a person to feel and share another person’s emotion is known as:
  1. Self-esteem
  2. Self-worth
  3. Empathy
  4. Self-assertive
  5. Love

  1. Which among the following institutions is a social security scheme?
  1. NMB
  2. CRDB
  3. NBC
  4. PSPF
  5. TPB

  1. After Nyaburuma researching democratic practices in his country established that citizens, stands for election, vote to select leader, attend, political meeting join private voluntary organization and protest against the government to which principle of democracy does this evidence point?
  1. Respect of human rights
  2. Citizen, participation
  3. Separation of power
  4. Rule of law
  5. Free and fair election
  1. The following are the responsibilities of the president of Tanzania as prescribed by the constitution except:
  1. Head of ruling political party
  2. Head of the public services
  3. Head of the state
  4. Head of the government affairs
  5. Commander in chief of the Armed forces

  1. Many Tanzanians to get loans from the banks due to:
  1. Lack of entrepreneur skills and security
  2. Lack of proper identification
  3. Lack of enough financial institution
  4. Ignorance
  5. Most Tanzanians to do not need loans

  1. Many Tanzanians societies believe that boys are supervisor than girls. By using this statement which concept of Gender is this?
  1. Gender discrimination
  2. Gender mainstreaming
  3. Gender blindness
  4. Gender analysis
  5. Gender stereotyping

  1. The member of Parliament for Mkwajuni constituency passed away seven months after the general election. What can be done to get another representative?
  1. Call for general election
  2. Wait for the next general election
  3. Calls for by election
  4. The president nominates another person
  5. The National Electoral Commission nominate another person

  1. Soon after being registered every political party formulate its own:
  1. Cabinet
  2. Vision, mission and policies
  3. Couples
  4. National constitution
  5. The government within the country

  1. Selecting the best option after learning the consequences of each option is called:
  1. Problem solving skills
  2. Self awareness
  3. Creative thinking
  4. Rational Decision making
  5. Self esteem

  1. Which of the following are the major pillars of the stated?
  1. Executive, armed forces and legislature
  2. The President the speaker and the Prime Minister
  3. The President, the Prime Minister and the Chief Justice
  4. Executive, armed forces and Judiciary
  5. Executive, Legislature and Judiciary

  1. Match the items in List A with the correct response in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer sheet provided:

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A set of rules which set standards for the accepted behaviors in a society.

  1. Pattern of conduct shared by the people in a given community but always change with time.

  1. Practices that persisted in a society for a long time and do not change.

  1. Ability of using imagination to express ideas through writing and sculpturing.

  1. Simple technology or skill of producing things such as pottery and basketry.

  1. Crafts
  2. Customs
  3. Traditions
  4. Material culture
  5. Norms
  6. Antiquities
  7. Arts

SECTION B: (40 MRKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions which follow:

Suicide is one of the critical problems of adolescents today. This disastrous act is committed for different reasons. Some adolescents often feel that death is the only way out of intolerable situations. Those terminally ill and those in capacities by serious illness or injuries commit suicide to avoid further pain. Yet others commit suicide to draw attention, to teach those who hurt them a lesson and to punish themselves for the shame they might have caused to others.

Most adolescents who commit suicide do so as a reaction to previous distressing events. Such common events include conflicts within the adolescent’s families, their failure to live up to the parents’ or guardians’ expectations and the adolescent’s failure to develop adequate interpersonal relationships within their families. These events often lead to suicide signals such as threatening to commit suicide or displaying actual tendencies to suicide and serious suicide attempts whereby the adolescent survives or lead to actual suicide.

The signals of suicide among adolescent includes previous attempts, threat to commit suicide, feeling of alienation and loneliness and the presence of mental illness especially depression. Other signals are lack of adequate impulse control, unexpected severe and prolonged stress and negative emotions.

QUESTIONS:

  1. Provide a suitable title for the passage
  2. What is the altitude of some adolescents toward death?
  3. Mention any two factors from the passage that compel some of the youth to commit suicide.
  4. List down any two suicide signals the adolescents
  5. What is the altitude of the author towards suicide tendencies among the adolescents?

  1. In five points signify the effect of poverty in any society.

  1. Suppose you are the community development officer, explain to the community the role of the government in the provision of social services to Tanzanians. (Five points)

  1. Provide five points, showing the non-union matters of the Unite Republic of Tanzania to Tanzanians.

  1. In five points, mention the institutes responsible for promoting and preserving the national culture.

  1. In five points, identify the problems that face women in Tanzania.

  1. If you are to deliver a talk to your community of responsible decision making, which five merits of making responsible decision will you consider?

  1. Suppose you have graduated O’ level studies at Mchapakazi secondary school. You have now employed as a Permanent Development Office. What advice would you give to the students on the importance of work to self-development.

SECTION C: (45 MARKS)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries 15 marks.

  1. Discuss five (5) strategies that can be used to alleviate poverty to the third world countries like Tanzania.

  1. Tanzania is a signatory of the 1984 United Nations Declaration of Human Rights. To what extent are human rights protected in Tanzania? Provide five points.
  2. “Failure to obtain and use life skills caused many problems.” This statement was said by the psychologist who addressed the group of youth and parents. Being among the youth who attended there propose five problems that are associated with his statement.
  3. In five points explain the challenges facing the government of Tanzania in the provision of social services

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 108

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

GEOGRAPHY FORM THREE

TIME: 2 HOURS NOVEMBER 2022

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of section A, B, and C
  2. Answer all questions in Section A and B and two (02) questions from section C
  3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, Section B carries fifty five (55) marks and Section C carries thirty (30) marks
  4. Map extract of Babati (Sheet 85/1) is provided
  5. Programmable Calculator and Cellular phones are not allowed in Examination room.
  6. Write your Examination number on every page of your answer sheet.


SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answerallquestionsinthissection

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided below.
    1. Ally put an iron nail in the soil, a year later he came to find his iron nail nearly to be like the soil itself, what process had taken place over the iron nail?
      1. Hydrolysis C. Carbonation
      2. Solution D. Oxidation E. Hydration
    2. The greenhouse gases can deplete the Ozone layer among other effects of Ozone layer depletion can also cause.
      1. Good visibility C. Skin cancer
      2. Clouds formation D. Environmental lapse rate E. Glaciations
    3. The maximum and minimum bulb thermometers are likely to give the same readings, when the air
      1. Is saturated C. Is wet
      2. Is not saturated D. is dry E. Is very hot
    4. Patrick noticed the pressure of 760mb at sea level. At the same time, what will be the pressure of Dodoma 1500m above sea level?

A. 150mb B. 910mb C. 610mb D. 15mb E. 760mb.

  1. You are asked to select the type of soil that is both, permeable and impermeable depending on the extent of saturation. What will be your selection among the following?
    1. Loamy B. Silty C. Sandy D. Sedimentary E. Clay
  2. Dowasa manager wants to construct a well that will serve water supply permanently to the society of Dodoma city. Which layer would you advice to be reached by the pipes to tape the underground water?
    1. The intermitted zone C. The zone of non-saturation
    2. The aquifer D. The acquiclude E. The water table.
  3. Akilimali grows flowers, vegetable and other plants that cause aesthetic environment what kind of agriculture is that?
    1. Aquaculture B. Horticulture C. Garden D. Port culture E. Botanism
  4. What would be the name of the sand bar that might join the Dar Es salaam and the Zanzibar shores, being constructed by wave action?
    1. Mudflat B. Spit C. Beach D. Tombolo E. Cuspate foreland
  5. Your Geography teacher has planned to take you as his Geography students to visit European countries during summer season which month would you advise him to go?
    1. January B. September C. December D. March E. June
  1. A feature you do not to see in Tanga, Tanzania in the Amboni cavern.
    1. Stalagmites B. Stalactites C. Levees D. Natural pillars E. Underground rivers


  1. Match the description of desert landforms in listA with the corresponding names in listBby writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet (s)

LISTA

LISTB

  1. Rock formed when magma solidifies deep in the crust and can be exposed on the Earth’s surface by agents of soil erosion
  2. Rock formed when molten magma cools and solidifies inside the rocks of the Earth or the surface of the Earth
  3. Rocks formed as a result of deposition and compaction of remains of dead plants and animals
  4. Rock formed when different types of rocks are subjected to great heat and pressure.
  5. Rocks formed when sediments are deposited either by wind, water or ice.
  1. Crystalline rocks
  2. Igneous rocks
  3. Organic sedimentary rocks
  4. Intrusive volcano rocks
  5. Extrusive volcanic rocks
  6. Metamorphic rocks
  7. Sedimentary rocks

SECTION B (55 MARKS)

Answerallquestionsinthissection

  1. Study the map extract of Babati (Sheet 85/1) and answer the following questions;
  1. With an evidence suggest two drainage patterns found in the mapped area
  2. Suggest the hemisphere from which mapped area is found. (give one evidence)
  3. Describe the vegetation distribution in the mapped area.
  4. Find the area of Lake Babati (Answer in km²)
  5. Identify any two (2) economic activities which might take place in the mapped area. And give two importance for each activity
  1. Mjuni is selling school bags. He always records data of his retailing in a note book. His friend John is working in a super market as a shopkeeper and he told him about the simplest way of presenting data for single variable against time. John showed his friend the following table showing data of school bags received from 2011 to2017.

Year

2011

2012

2013

2014

2015

2016

2017

School/Bagsreceived

90

100

40

50

20

70

120

  1. Name the two (2) simplest methods to present the data above.
  2. Explain three (3) cons and pros of presenting the data by the simple methods listed in (a) above.
  3. Present the given statistical information by using simple bar graph

5. There was a serious conflict between farmers whose plots was nearby each other. They tried to resettle the conflict but they failed and later on they decided to consult the Village Executive Officer to seek the resolution. The Village Executive Officer decided to send the village land resolution team to the field. The team decided to use the method of linear measurement.

  1. Identify the method of taking measurement used
  2. List down any four instruments that were used
  3. If the team consisted of three personnel’s in taking linear measurement. Who are those?
  4. Describe any four significances of using the method identified in ( a) above


  1. The villagers at Matombo village in Morogoro District were told to measure the distance of Msalabani secondary school compound. But they come up with wrong linear measurement. By using the knowledge of simple land survey describe;
  1. The method used by the villagers and why?
  2. The five (5) instruments that were supposed to be used during the surveying process.
  3. Three (3) sources of the wrong linear measurement.
  1. Carefully study the photography provided and answer the questions that follow;

  1. What is the name of feature seen on the photograph?
  2. Suggest the type of climate of the area where this photograph was taken.
  3. List three (3) characteristics of climate suggested in (b) above.
  4. Suggest two areas in Tanzania where this photography might have been taken.
  5. With evidences comment on the type of the photograph shown.
  6. Comment on two (2) uses of feature shown in this photo.

SECTION C (30marks)

Answertwo(02)questions fromthissection

8. a) An announcement from the ministry concerning with industries directed that, government police may play a great role in determining the location of industries, hence the minister argued that, ‘we discourage the concentration of industries in one place” what are the reasons led a minister to argue so? Four points

b) East Africa is struggling to establish several industries so as to fasten the growth of economy. Thus different types of manufacturing industries have been introduced, as an expert in manufacturing, industries identify groups of manufacturing industries in the region concern. Give six groups with vivid examples

9. Mdilidili is a village whereby villagers are walking over long distance to fetch water, how distance to water source from household affect a girl child? Briefly Explain (five points)

10. A Geography teacher at Maji Marefu Secondary school taught his students that “Soil has physical, chemical and biological properties”. With facts and vivid example, you as an expert in Geography clarify six (6) properties of soil which were taught by Geography teacher at Maji Marefu Secondary School to his students.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 107

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BOOK KEEPING FORM THREE

Time: 2:30 Hours November, 2022

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total ofnine (9) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries twenty (20) marks, section B forty (40) marks and section C carries forty (40) marks.
  4. All writings should be in blue or black ink pen and all drawings should be in pencil.
  5. Non programmable calculators may be used.
  6. Cellular phones, programmable calculators and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the items (i) – (xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided:
  1. How could a purchases of a non- current assets by cheques affect the statement of financial postion?
  1. By decreasing non-current assets account and decreasing bank account
  2. By increasing bank account and decreasing asset account
  3. By increasing non-current asset account and decreasing cash account
  4. By increasing cash account and decreasing asset account
  5. By increasing non-current asset account and decreasing bank account
  1. Which of the following errors would be disclosed by the Trial Balance?
  1. Credit sales of TZS 20,000/= entered in the books as TZS 2,000/=
  2. Cheque for TZS 65,000/= from R.James entered in R.James as TZS 59,000/=
  3. Cash sales TZS 100,000 were completely omitted in the books
  4. Selling expenses TZS 5,000 had been debited to sales Account.
  5. A purchase of goods worth TZS 2,500/= omitted from the books
  1. Which of the following depreciation methods uses the reduced value to compute the depreciation of non-current assets?


  1. Straight line method
  2. Sum of the years’ digit methods
  3. Diminishing balance method
  4. Unit of output method
  5. Revaluation method


  1. At the beginning of Accounting year, a club had TZS 14,000/= as non-current Assets, TZS 5,000/= as current Assets and TZS 5,000/= as liabilities. What would be its opening Accumulated fund?


  1. TZS 4,000/=
  2. TZS 14,000/=
  3. TZS 12,000/=
  4. TZS 24,000/=
  5. TZS 10,000/=


  1. Form three students were arguing on which primary and basic objective of preparing a trial balance is. Which of the following uses is the basic purpose of preparing a trial balance?
  1. A trial balance is used for internal control as back up document
  2. A trial balance is used as a tool for preparing financial statements
  3. A trial balance is used to check arithmetical accuracy of double entry
  4. A trial balance is used to present a list of balances at one place
  5. A trial balance is used to determine profit or loss of a business
  1. Which of the following are the examples of revenue expenditure?
  1. Purchases of goods and payment for electricity bill in cash
  2. Repair of van and petrol costs for van
  3. Buying machinery and paying for installation costs
  4. Electricity costs of using machinery and buying van
  5. Wages paid to the worker who operates a machinery
  1. Money contributed by individuals under non-profit marking organization is known as:


  1. Capital introduced
  2. Capital owed
  3. Capital employed
  4. Working capital
  5. Accumulated fund


  1. A firm bought a machine for TZS 16,000/=. It is expected to be used for 5 years then sold for TZS 1,000/=. What is the annual amount of depreciation if the straight-line method is used?


  1. TZS 3,200/=
  2. TZS 3,100/=
  3. TZS 3,750/=
  4. TZS 3,000/=
  5. TZS 6,000/=


  1. When business entity paid rent of TZS 800,000/=. The payment was recorded in the books as follows. Debit: “Bank” TZS 800,000/= and Credit: Rent TZS 800,000/=. What entries will be posted to rectify this error?
  1. Debit “Bank” TZS 800,000/= and credit “Rent” TZS 800,000/=
  2. Credit “Rent” TZS 800,000/= and credit “Bank” TZS 800,00/=
  3. Debit “Bank” TZS 800,000/= and Credit “Rent” TZS 1,600,000/=
  4. Debit “Rent” TZS 1,600,000/= and credit “Bank” TZS 1,600,000/=
  5. Debit “Bank” TZS 1,600,000/= and credit “Rent” TZS 1,600,000/=
  1. Baraka wants to start up a business dealing with Clothing Wholesale Store, but he does not have enough capital to commence his business. The following can be used as the sources of capital for his business EXCEPT:
  1. Money borrowed from bank
  2. Money saved for business start up
  3. Money saved for building a private house
  4. Cash received from the sales of shares
  5. Cash received from the sale of his private car
  1. Government expenditures on items from which the government attains no value are called.


  1. Development expenditure.
  2. Recurrent expenditure.
  3. Capital expenditure.
  4. Revenue expenditure
  5. Nugatory expenditure.


  1. A business owned by Esther had an opening and closing capital balances of TZS 57,000/= and TZS 64,300/= respectively. The drawings during the same year amounted to TZS 11,800/=. What was the amount of profit made by her business during that year?


  1. TZS 19,100/=
  2. TZS 16,600/=
  3. TZS 5,000/=
  4. TZS 19,600/=
  5. TZS 18,600/=


  1. Mtumzima Art Creators is a registered company dealing with production and supply of the artistic works. During October 2022, it Purchased machinery for cash costing TZS 35,000,000/=. What will be a double entry for this transaction?
  1. Debit Cash account, Credit Machinery account
  2. Debit Purchases account, Credit Machinery
  3. Debit machinery account, Credit Cash account
  4. Debit Purchases account , Credit cash account
  5. Debit purchases account, Credit machinery account
  1. What is the effect of TZS 500,000/= being added to Purchases instead of being added to a non-current asset?
  1. Net profit would be understated
  2. Net profit would be overstated
  3. Both Gross profit and Net profit would be understated
  4. Net profit would not be affected
  5. Gross profit would be affected
  1. Depreciation can be described as the
  1. Amount spent to buy a non-current asset.
  2. Salvage value of a non-current asset.
  3. Cost of the non-current asset consumed during its period.
  4. Amount of money spent replacing non-current asset.
  5. Cost of old assets plus new purchased.
  1. If the Assets of the business amounted to TZS 85,000/= and Owner’s Capital is TZS 60,000/= How much is the Liabilities of the business?


  1. TZS. 45,000/=
  2. TZS. 145,000/=
  3. TZS.25,000/=
  4. TZS.85,000/=
  5. TZS 60,000/=


  1. For each of the items (i) – (v), match the descriptions of correction of errors terms in Column A with their corresponding names in Column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer sheet:

COLUMN A

COLUMN B

  1. Where a transaction is entered in the wrong personal account
  2. Where an item is entered in the wrong class of account
  3. Where an entry is made in the wrong side of account
  4. Where a transaction is completely not recorded in the books
  5. Where the transaction is entered with the incorrect figure

A. Error of complete reversal entries

B. Error of compensating

C. Error of commission

D. Error of principle

E. Error of original entry

F. Error of omission

G. Transposition error

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. Briefly describe the meaning of the following terms as used in book keeping:


  1. Accrued expenses
  2. Book keeping
  3. Credit transaction
  4. Carriage outwards
  5. Net profit
  1. Upendo is a business woman who owns a Jewels shop in Arusha. She is also a customer of CRDB bank. Upendo prefers to settle her debts using cheques. In the last month, she wrote a cheque to Onesmo, her creditor, for which the bank refused to settle it. In five points outline the reasons for this to happen.
  2. On 31st December 2017, the cash book balance of ShedrackTraders was TZS 25,370/= where the bank statement showed a credit balance of TZS 25, 670/=. In comparing these two balances, the following were discovered;
  1. Cheques not yet presented for payment TZS 12,340/=
  2. Cheques paid into the bank but not yet credited by the bank account TZS 12,160/=
  3. Items shown in the bank statement but not yet entered in the cash book were as follows:
  1. Bank charges TZS 240/=
  2. Standing order TZS 460/=
  3. Dividends collected by the bank TZS 820/=

Required:

  1. Bring the cash book to date to show the correct cash book balance.
  2. Prepare a bank reconciliation statement starting with the adjusted cash book balance.
  1. Rule a petty cash book under the following headings: - Postage, stationery, Petrol, entertainment and ledger.

2020 TZS

March 12 Petty cashier received cash from main cashier…………………. 15,000

14. Paid postage………………………………………….. 500

16. Paid entertainment…………………………………… 3,000

18. Paid petrol…………………………………………….. 1,200

20. Paid B. Robert, a creditor……………………………… 4,000

25. Paid for stationery…………………………………… 1,700

29. The cashier reimbursed the petty cashier the amount spent in the period.

SECTION C (40 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

  1. Mtumzima Transport Company with the financial year ending on 31st December, bought two motor vans on 1st January 2011, No 1 for TZS 18,000,000 and No 2 for TZS 15,000,000. It also buys another van, No. 3 on 1st July 2012, for TZS 19,000,000 and another No 4 on 1st October, 2013 for TZS 17,200,000 the van No 1 was sold for TZS 6,290,000 on 30th September 2014. It is a company’s policy to charge depreciation at 15% per annum using a straight line method for each month of ownership basis.

Required: Prepare for the year ended 31st December, 2011, 2012, 2013 and 2014.

  1. Motor van account
  2. Accumulated Provision for depreciation account
  3. Motor van disposal account


  1. The following trial balance has been extracted from the ledger of Julius, a sole trader.

Trial balance as at 31st May, 2022

S/N

Name of account

DR

CR

1

Purchases and sales

82,350

138,078

2

Carriage

5,144


3

Drawings

7,800


4

Rent, rates and insurance

6,622


5

Postage and stationery

3,001


6

Advertising

1,330


7

Salaries and wages

26,420


8

Bad debts

877


9

Allowance for doubtful debts


130

10

Accounts receivables and payables

12,120

6,471

11

Cash in hand

177


12

Cash at bank

1,002


13

Inventory as at 1.6.2021

11,927


14

Equipment (at cost)

58,000


15

Accumulated depreciation on equipment


19,000

16

Capital


53,091

The following additional information as at 31st May, 2022 is available:

  1. Rent is accrued by TZS 210/=
  2. Rates have been prepaid by TZS 880/=
  3. TZS 2,211 of carriage represent carriage on purchases
  4. Equipment is to be depreciated at 15% p.aon cost.
  5. The allowance for doubtful debts to be increased by TZS 40/=
  6. Inventory at the close of business has been valued at TZS 13,551/=

Required:

Prepare Julius’s Income statement for the year ending 31st May, 2022 and a Statement of financial position as at that date.

  1. The following information is available from the books for Abigail Wholesale Store on 1st September, 2021:

Balances in purchases ledger TZS 120,000 (CR)

Balances in sales ledger TZS 7,100 (CR)

Balances in purchases ledger TZS 4,800 (DR)

Balances in sales ledger TZS 163,100 (DR)

During September 2021:

Sales 140,000

Purchases 88,000

Returns inwards from debtors 55,000

Returns outwards from creditors 7,300

Receipts from debtors 91,300

Payments to creditors 76,700

Discount allowed 4,000

Discount received 2,200

Bad debts written off 3,800

Provision for bad debts increased by 600

Debtorscheque dishonored 7,500

Interest charged to debtors on overdue accounts 500

Sales ledger debit transferred to purchases Ledger 9,600

Notes:

  1. 10% sales and discount allowed relate cash transactions
  2. 5% of the goods bought during the month were destroyed by fire, the insurance company had agreed to pay adequate claim.

You are required to prepare:

  1. A sales ledger control account
  2. A purchases ledger control account


LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 106

 

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

 

                                                             COMMERCE   FORM THREE

TIME: 3 HOURS                                                                                 NOVEMBER 2022

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with total of  ten (10) questions
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only two questions from section C
  3. Section carries twenty (20) marks, section B carries fifty (50) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks 
  4. Programmable calculators, cellular phone and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  5. Write your NAME on every page of your answer sheet(s)

Section A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. Careful read the following questions, then choose the correct answer from the alternative given and write its letter on the space provided.
  1. John and Johnson has been partners for several years, but John has been dealing with all business affairs alone, how can you group Johnson in such partnership business                                                                                                            
  1. As sleeping partner
  2. As an active partner
  3. As Quasi partner  
  4. As general partner
  5. As Unlimited partner
  1. The reduction of prices which results from large purchases is known as;          
  1. Price support
  2. Re-sale price maintenance
  3. Trade discount 
  4. Cash discount
  5. Discount allowed 
  1.                     Mamalishe has been selling fresh juice by using water bottle in her restaurant, so the process of placing fresh juice in water bottle is called? 
  1. Brading
  2. Packing
  3. Packaging
  4. Putting
  5. Grading   
  1.                      Mr. Pweza prefers buying carbonated soft drinks (Mango) from Azam Co.ltd, after the rise in prices for Mango Juice, he decided to shift and consume fresh juices from Mamalishe. The demand for two commodities is classified as:  
  1. Joint demand
  2. Complementary demand
  3. Independent demand 
  4. Competitive demand
  5. Derived demand
  1. When drawing supply curve, automatically supply curve slope upward from left to right. Why does this supply curve slope upward from left to right? 
  1. The lower the price, the higher the quantity demanded and vice versa
  2. When the price is held constant, the quantity supplied increases
  3. When the factors other than price held constant, Quantity supplied increases
  4. The higher the price, the higher the quantity of commoditied supplied and vice versa
  5. The lower the price, the higher the supplied
  1.                      Given that, a daily sale is 20kg of NIDO milk, delivery time 5 days, Minimum stock 100kg, and Maximum stock 70kg. What will be the order point?  
  1. 200kg B. 100kg  C. 150kg  D. 180kg  E. 120kg  E. 70kg
  1.                   A kind of home trade which deals with buying of goods in large quantity from the wholesaler and selling them to the final consumers is called? 
  1. Home trade
  2. Wholesale trade
  3. Retail trade
  4. Foreign trade
  5. Import trade
  1.                 Mr. Mwasambabha as household has prepared a fresh fruit juice for his child Consumption. In which kind of production activities done by Mwasambabha be grouped? 
  1. Primary Production
  2. Tertiary production
  3. Direct production 
  4. Indirect Production
  5. Personal services
  1.                      Which of the following qualities of a good money signifies that, good money should have a long life span 
  1. Portability
  2. Malleability
  3. Durability 
  4. Divisibility
  5. Difficult to make a fake copy
  1. Mr. Matata own a supermarket at Singida Bus terminal. Which one of the following stock computation will help him to identify fast and slow moving items in the business 
  1. Average stock
  2. Stock turn rate
  3. Minimum stock 
  4. Stock order point
  5. Stock levels 
  1.                      Self service is a common features of a .............
  1. Chain store
  2. Single shop
  3. Supermarket 
  4. Tied shop
  5. Multiple shop
  1.                   Continuing rise in general level of prices and consequent fall in purchasing power of money is called?    
  1. Deflation
  2. Inflation
  3. Disinflation 
  4. Equilibrium price
  5. Rein - Inflation
  1.                 Are warehouses which are owned by the government and individual and its free to any one wishing to hire them for a certain charge; 
  1. Bonded warehouse
  2. Private warehouse
  3. Public warehouse
  4. Wholesaler warehouse
  5. Retailer warehouse
  1.                 Mr Kimbo wishes to start his drinking water industry at Kigoma, then how can he differentiate his product from other company’s products like Uhai, Afya ect.
  1. Through packaging
  2. Through branding
  3. Through price
  4. Through packing
  5. Through standardizing  
  1.                    Which method would Tanzania adopt if she wants to complete restrict importation of sugar from Malawi 
  1. Imposing heavy import duty
  2. Total ban
  3. Fixing Import quota 
  4. Using government agencies
  5. Using VAT

2.      For each of item (i-v) match the description of item in list A with their corresponding names in list B by writing the letter of the correct response on the space provided

List A

List B

  1. Means change in the quantity of commodity demanded as a result of change in price while other factors remain constant
  2. This occurs when Tanzania - Petroleum Company’s buy Petrol and Diesel from Libya for selling them within the country
  3.                      It’s concerned with the arrangement of the organizational resources like machines, people and materials in such a way they can accomplish organizational goals
  4.                      The process of monitoring and measuring subordinates work performance so as to ensure that work performance conform to plans or stand set 
  5. Process of setting objectives and deciding how to achieve them

A.      Export trade 

B.       Change in quantity demanded

C.       Import trade

D.      Organizing

E.       Controlling

F.        Planning

G.      Change in Demand

H.      Coordinating

I.          Plan

 

SECTION B (50 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3.      Differentiate between the following terms

a)      Packing and packaging 

b)      Composite demand and competitive demand

c)      Commerce and economics

d)      Air transport and land transport

e)      Specialization and division of labour

4.      a) (a) Mr. Kiombo has been producing Beans for years and selling them at his private warehouse, but he has been running his business at loss, what do you think could be the reasons for running his business at loss? Identify any five reasons

(b)   Mr. Kiombo who has been producing Beans for years and selling them within a local market, but now he wishes to sell them to Kenya, he has been thinking either to use road transport or air transport.

Required: Since you have business knowledge briefly explain to him any five factors to be taken into consideration before choosing any model of transport system

5.      Careful study the following demand and supply schedule for Cooking oil in Tanzania and then answer the questions below

Price (Tshs)

Qd (Litre)

Qs(Litre)

2,000

8

2

3,000

6

4

4,000

4

6

5,000

2

8

6,000

1

10

a)      Draw a demand and supply curve in the same pair of axes

b)      Indicate the equilibrium point, equilibrium quantity and equilibrium price

c)      Calculate price elasticity of demand when cooking oil price changed from Tshs.

2,000 to 5,000

d)      Give Comment on the results you obtained in question (c) above

e)      Name any five factors affecting demand of Cooking Oil in Tanzania

6.      a) Miss Janeth has been employee as an Accountant at Singida Regional Hospital for 10 years, this year she has decided to quit the job and become an entrepreneur. Highlight any six reasons why Janeth decided to be entrepreneur.

(b)   Since Miss Janeth has decided to be an entrepreneur, provide your profesion advice by naming any four factors that should be taken into consideration when locating her business. 

7.      a) Define cheque and identify any three circumstances under which a cheque may be dishonoured

(b)   Mr. Keko a Sole trader, who own a departmental store at Dodoma City wishes to apply for a loan from NMB Bank for his business expansion, but he is not aware of any factors that are taken into consideration by Bank before giving loans to their customers. As business expert help Mr. Keko by briefly explaining to him any five factors that Banks take into consideration before granting loan to their customers

Section C (30 Marks)

Answer only two questions from this section

8.      (a) Differentiate departmental store and supermarket

(b)   Small scale retailers like road side traders, machingas, auctioneers and market stall holders has been increasing in our country, but they are facing many challenges. Explain any five challenges facing small scale retailers in Tanzania.

9.      In our country most of the products are imported from other countries such as China, Japan, India etc, but to much importation may have negative impact in our country. So what do you think should be done in order to reduce to much importation of products from abroad(Discus any five factors)   

10.  (a) Define and identify any five difficulties associated with barter trade system

(b)   We normally use money in our daily live, as student explain how do you use money. (Explain any six uses)

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 105

 THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT 

 COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

032/1 CHEMISTRY FORM THREE

TIME: 2 HOURS   NOVEMBER 2022

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This Paper Consists of Sections A,B nd C
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only one(1) question from section C
  3. Cellular phone and any unauthorized material are not allowed in examination room
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer sheet(s).
  5. The following constant may be useful
    • Atomic masses H=1, C=12, N=14,O=16,Na=23,Mg=24,S=32,Cu=64.
    • Avogadro’s number = 6.02 6.02 x 10 23
    • G.M.V at S.T.P = 22.4dm 3
    • 1Faraday = 96500coulombs
    • 1litre = 1dm3 = 1000cm 3

SECTION A. (20 MARKS)

1. For each items (i)-(x) choose the correct answer among the given alternative and write the letter beside the item number in the booklet provided

(i) Which of the following is the agricultural product made by the application of chemistry?

  1. Yeast D. Pesticide
  2. Drug E. Cement
  3. Clothes

(ii) When methane undergo substitution reaction with excess chlorine .what is the end product

  1. Chloromethane D. Monochloromethane
  2. Dichloromethane E. Tetra chloromethane
  3. Dichloromethane

(iii) An element X is found in period 4; group II of the periodic table .if the element X Undergo the reaction X→X 2+ +2e - ; the electronic configuration of X ion formed will be A. 2: 8:6 B. 2:6 C. 2:8:4 D. 2:8:8:2 E. 2:8:8

(iv) A current of 0.2A was passed through an electrolyte for 16 minutes and 40 seconds .what is the quantity of electricity produced in coulombs.

A. 2000C B. 1000C C. 200C D. 0.2C E. 7686C

(v) Which carbonate is the most stable to heat?

  1. Calcium carbonate D. Zinc Carbonate C. Lead II carbonate E. Iron carbonate
  2. Copper II carbonate

(vi) Skin injury that cause a change in the colour of skin

  1. Bruises B. Bum C. Scalds D. Shock E. Suffocation

(vii) A good fuel is the one which has.

  1. High speed of continuous energy supply D. High carbon dioxide production
  2. High energy value supplied E. High content of non-combustible materials
  3. Low carbon dioxide production

(viii) The region of the atmosphere which contains the ozone layer is called

  1. Mesosphere D. Troposphere
  2. Stratosphere E. Metamosphere
  3. Atmosphere

(ix) Aluminum is said to be amphoteric oxide because

  1. It acts as an acid and also It acts as a base
  2. It acts as a neutral compound
  3. It acts as strong reducing agent
  4. It acts as a basic compound

(x) The main impurities in Nitrogen gas prepared in the laboratory are:-

  1. Water vopour D. Dust particles
  2. Oxygen E. Noble gases
  3. Carbondioxide

2. Match the item in LIST A with a correct response in LIST B by writing the letter of the response below the corresponding item in the table given 

LIST A

LIST B

(i) A gas that forms explosive mixture with air and water

(ii) A gas that forms a reddish brown fumes when comes in contact with air

(iii) A gas that turns lime water milky

(iv) A colorless gas that bleaches moist coloured flower

(v) Only basic gas

  1. Nitrogen monoxide gas
  2. Carbon-dioxide gas
  3. Carbonmonoxide gas  thiodne gas
  4. Chlorine gas
  5. Sulphur dioxide gas
  6. Ammonia gas
  7. Nitrogen gas
  8. Oxygen gas  
  9. Hydrogen gas
  10. Hydrogen sulphide gas

SECTION B. (70MARK)

Answer All questions in this section

3. (a) A stone is said to be a good example of matter. Give two reasons to support this fact.

  1. Outline two significance of chemical symbols of an element.
  2. Explain by giving reasons why:
    1. Laboratory door open outwards
    2. Laboratory floor is rough and never polished
    3. Fume chamber is important in chemistry laboratory

4. (a) Identify the substances by using the following information.

  1. A solid is yellow when hot and white when cold
  2. A colorless gas turns a yellow acidified potassium dichromate paper to green
  3. When water is added to a white powder, the white powder changes to blue crystals
  1. With the aid of an equation in each case, explain what will be observed when
    1. Chlorine gas is bubbled through a solution of iron II chloride
    2. Hydrogen Chloride gas is passed through a jar containing ammonia gas.
    3. A piece of sodium metal is dipped into a beaker of water containing some red litmus paper
    4. Carbondioxide is blown into a test tube filled with lime water.

5. (a) outline three reasons to explain why Carbondioxide is used to extinguish fir

(b) A sample of mass 28.6g of hydrated sodium carbonate ( Na 2 CO 3 .10H 2 O) was heated such that; its water was entily absorbed by 32g of anhydrous copper II sulphate to form a blue compound of hydrated( CuSO 4 .XH 2 O) .find the value of X in the copper sulphate.

6.(a)A student aimed to prepared a gas X by reacting a moderate reactive metal with a dilute acid .use this information to answer the following question

  1. What is the name of the gas X
  2. What is the test of the gas X
  3. With reasons; state the appropriate method of collecting gas X
  4. Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction.

(b) State four properties that make Aluminium useful in overhead cables

7. (a) Calculate the morality of 5% by weight of a solution of sodium hydroxide

(b) What is the simplest chemical formula of a compound formed when 36g of Magnesium combine with 14g of Nitrogen?

8.. (a) During electrolysis of an aqueous solution of salt of metal M , a current of 2.0A was passed for 32minutes and 10 second .the mass of metal M deposited was 2.24g.

  1. On which electrode was the metal deposited
  2. Calculate the amount of charge needed to deposit 1mole of metal M
  3. Calculate the charge carried on the ion
  4. Write an ionic equation to show how the ion of metal M are discharged at the electrode (R.A.M of metal M is 112)

(b)During electrolysis of brine .Sodium is deposited at the cathode and chlorine gas is released at the anode .if 2.0g of sodium are collected at the cathode .find the volume of chlorine released at S.T.P.

9. (a) State the le-chatelier’s principle

  1. State what will happen in the process of equilibrium involving the equation

2SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g) ?? 2SO 3 (g) ?H = -94.4KJMol -1 If

  1. Temperature is lowered
  2. Pressure is increased
  3. The concentration of SO 3 is removed from the system.

(c)Briefly write one application of le- chatelier’s principle.

9. (a) States any three main physical properties of water and show the usefulness of each property

(b)During large – scale treatment of water, what two chemical are added at various stage?. Explain their use.

10. (a) i. Extraction of metal is said to be reduction process. Explain

ii. Why Sodium is collected by upwards in the down cell?

(b) Describe the use of each of the following during extraction of sodium

  1. Calcium chloride
  2. Steel gauze
  1. Name the ores commonly used in the extraction of iron metal

11. (a)State the modern periodic law

(b)Study the periodic table below then answer the questions that follow.

Write the formula of compounds formed when element

  1. U and W combine together
  2. Q and W combine together

Draw and write electronic configuration of Y.

12. (a)Catherine is planning to make fire for cooking ugali for her family. What are necessary conditions which must be present so that she can make fire successfully for cooking ugali for her family?

(b)Give a reason for each of the followings

  1. Water is universal solvent
  2. Some metal like zinc do not get rust.
  3. Chlorine gas is collected by downward delivery
  4. Carbon dioxide turns lime water into milky colour.

SECTION C (15 MARKS)

Answer only one (1) question.

13. (a)Give good reason (s) for the following. (Answer according to the question demand).

  1. Natural gas is so popular in heating and cooking in homes. (2 points)
  2. Nuclear energy is not a sustainable source of energy. (2 points)
  3. Coal and petroleum are non-renewable sources. (1 point)

(b) State the main raw materials and process involved in the manufacture of each of the following products.

  1. Wood charcoal
  2. Coke
  3. Lamp black
  4. Animal charcoal

14. (a) 25cm 3 of 0.1MHCl were neutralized by 23cm 3 of Na 2 CO 3 solution. Calculate the concentration of the alkali in grams per litre.

(b)Suggest a suitable indicator of each of the following titrations

  1. Hydrochloric acid against ammonia solution
  2. Sulphuric acid against sodium hydroxide solution
  3. Ethanedioic acid against potassium hydroxide solution

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 104

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA PRESIDENT'S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE ANNUAL EXAMINATION
041 BASIC MATHEMATICS

Time 3:00 Hours Year: 2022

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions
  3. Each question in section A carries six (6) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.
  4. All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly.
  5. Mathematical tables and non-programmable calculators may be used.
  6. All communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  7. Where necessary, use the following constants
  • Pie, =3.142
  • Radius of the earth, R=6400km.

SECTION A: (60 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

1. (a)The traffic lights at three different road crossing changes after every 48 seconds, 72 seconds and 108 seconds respectively. If they change simultaneously at 7 a.m at what time they change simultaneously again?

(b) If x = 0.567567567… and y = 0.8 by converting these decimals to fractions, find the exact value of

2. (a) If  find the value of t

(b)Write “L” in terms of M, N and T from the formula

(c) Determine the value of x if

3. (a)Let  be a universal set and A and B be the subsets of

A= {c, g, f} and B= {b, d, h} find 

(b) Given that A= {x : 0 ≤ x ≤ 8}

B = {x : 3 ≤ x ≤ 8}

where x is an integer, in the same form, represent in a Venn diagram

  1. A u B
  2. A n B

and hence find the elements in each set.

4. (a) Find the slope of a straight line which passes through points A (0, a) and B(3a,0)

(b) The co-ordinates of the square PQRS are given by P(1, 4), Q(3, 4), R(3, 2), and S(1, 2). Write the co-ordinates of the image of the square P’Q’R’S’ under reflection in the x-axis.

 5. (a) Given  where are the sides of the triangle ABT and  Are sides of the triangle KLC. What does this information imply?

(b) Calculate the area of the following figure, if 0 is the centre of the circle and OABC is a square.

image

 6. (a)Twelve people can dig a trench in 15 days for 8 hours daily. How long can they take to finish the same work, working for 10 hours daily?

(b)A variable V varies jointly as the variable A and h. when A=63 and h=4, v=84.

Find;

  1. V when A=9 and h=7
  2. A when V=4.5 and h=0.5

7. (a)If a:b=2:3 and b:c=5:6. Find a:c and a:b:c

(b) PQR is an isosceles triangle whereby PQ =PR and QS = SR. If S is a point between Q and R prove that Δ PQS ≡ ΔPRS

8. (a)If the 5th term of an arithmetic progression is 23 and the 12th term is 37, find the first tem and the common difference.

(b) In how many years would one double one’s investment if Tshs 2500 is invested at 8% compounded semi –annually.

9. (a) Given that

image

Find :

(i)image 

(ii)image 

(b) A and B are two points on the ground level and both lie West of flagstaff. The angles of elevation of the top of the flagstaff from A is 56° and from B is 43°. If B is 28m from the foot of the flagstaff. How far apart are the point A and B?

10. (a)Solve for the quadratic equation x2 – 8x + 7=0

(b)Solve for x and y if

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

11.The marks in basic Mathematics terminal Examination obtained by 40 students in one of the secondary school in Katavi were as follows;

60, 54,  48,  43, 37 61, 43, 66, 65, 52, 37, 81, 70, 48, 63, 74, 67, 52, 48, 37, 48 42, 43, 52, 52, 22, 27, 37,44 38, 29, 19, 28 36, 42, 47, 36, 52, 50, 28.

  1. Prepare a frequency distribution table with class intervals 10 – 19, 20 – 29, etc.
  2. Find the class which contain the median
  3. Find the mean
  4. Calculate the median.

12. (a) From the following information given by Mbeya Co.ltd for the year ended 31st December 2021.

Stock (01.01.2021) ………………………….Three quarter of the closing stock

Stock (31.12.2021) …………………………  of net purchase

Net purchases during 2021 …………………. 432,000.

Gross margin …………………………. 15%

Expenses ……………………………… 20% of Net profit 

Calculate;

  1. Cost of goods sold
  2. Gross profit
  3. Net profit

(b) State Three uses of the trial balance

13. (a) Find the value of angle x in the figure below, where O is the centre of the circle

 (b)Two places P and Q both on the parallel of latitude 26°N differ in longitudes by 40°, find the distance between them along their parallel of latitude.

14. Given

image

(i) Sketch the graph of f(x).

(ii) State the domain and range of f(x) .

(iii) Is f(x) a one-­to-­one function? Give reason(s).

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 103

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE EXAMINATION SEPTEMBER, 2022

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) Identify the sentence which explains passive voice

  1. Tom wrote a nice letter
  2. A nice letter was written by Tom
  3. Tom is writing nice letters.
  4. Tom has been writing nice letters
  5. Nice letters should be written by Tom

(ii) The slogan says “______ the devil you know than the angel you don’t know”.

  1. Good
  2. The best
  3. Better
  4. Greatest
  5. Fine

(iii) The present perfect tense for the sentence “Aisha is eating her lunch” is ______

  1. Aisha eats her lunch
  2. Aisha had eaten her lunch
  3. Aisha ate her lunch
  4. Aisha has been eating her lunch
  5. Aisha has eaten her lunch

(iv) If I ____ you, I would be very rich.

  1. am
  2. was
  3. and
  4. were
  5. is

(v) Neither the student nor the teacher ______ present.

  1. was
  2. are
  3. is
  4. has
  5. were

(vi) “Hurry up! We have _____ time left to finish this task.

  1. Small
  2. Little
  3. More
  4. Less
  5. Much

(vii) “I am always on time” What shows the habit of my actions?.

  1. always
  2. I am
  3. time
  4. I
  5. time

(viii) One of the following categories is a requirement for writing a formal letter. Which one is it?

  1. Date, address of the sender, address of the receiver, signature of the receiver
  2. Date, address, name of the city, body of the letter, purpose of the letter
  3. Address of the sender and the receiver, salutation, title, body and signature
  4. Address of the sender and the receiver, salutation, heading and CV
  5. CV of the sender, address of the sender and the receiver, salutation and body

(ix) How do you call the information given before the audience while the narrator stands, especially on occasions?

  1. Address
  2. Speech
  3. Impromptu
  4. CV
  5. Cooperatives

(x) Amina’s (female) mother was born after my elder brother had been born. Amina is my ____

  1. Sister
  2. Daughter
  3. Nephew
  4. Cousin
  5. Niece

2. Match the description of people in List A with the correct occupations in List B by writing its letter beside the corresponding item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

List A

List B

(i) Teachers, doctors, drivers

(ii) Pencil, pen, books

(iii) Schools, hospital, college

(iv) Maize, beans, millet

(v) mother, father, son

  1. cereal
  2. profession
  3. carpenter
  4. family
  5. stationary
  6. institutions


SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Re-arrange the following sentences into a logical sequence to make a meaningful conversation by writing the corresponding letter in the answer booklet provided. Use the following format for your answers.

  1. And asked them to prepare a big feast for a twin celebration.
  2. One for his birthday.
  3. The king summoned his servants
  4. And two, for his son to select a woman to marry

Sentence number

i

ii

iii

iv

Letter





4. Fill in the blank spaces with the correct form of words given in brackets.

(a) Fred is a ___ (trust) person.

(b) She is an ____ (obedience) lady.

(c) The car lost control ___ (complete).

(d) They ___ (true) love each other.

5. Use the information below and construct meaningful sentences (Use example of “The dog…..)

(a) Under (tree)

(b) Behind (house)

(c) Onto (fence)

(d) On (flowers)

6. Answer the questions based on the short information presented below:

Mr. Moses is a secondary school teacher. He teaches Chemistry and Physics. His friend Mohamed also works in the same school, however, he teaches English language and Geography. The two watch football every weekend. Mr. Moses supports Arsenal, while Mr. Mohamed supports Chelsea. For Tanzania Premier league, Mr. Moses supports Simba Sports club while Mohamed is a strong supporter of Young African Sports club. Both of them are funs of Floyd Mayweather for World Boxing Champion.

 Questions

(a) Both Moses and Mr. Mohamed are _________ in school.

(b) Mr. Moses ______ Simba Sports club to Young Africans Sports Club.

(c) _____ Mr. Moses _____ Mr. Mohamed are funs of Floyd Mayweather

(d) ____ Mr. Moses _____ Mr. Mohamed support Manchester United Football Club

7. Re-write the following sentences according to the instructions given after each in the answer booklet provided.

(a) They tried to raise school fees for their son, they did not get enough. (Begin with “However”…)

(b) Mariam is tall, Jacky is taller than Mariam and Edward is taller than Mariam. (Begin: Edward is _____ of the three).

(c) Every Tanzanian can afford education. The government has made it free (Join using “Because”)

(d) She entertained the guests. She did not understand their language well. (Begin: Although……)

8. Assume that you are the only knowledgeable person in your neighborhood, a new established NGO wants someone to assist them carry out their operation. Below are some of the tasks they want to implement:

  • Mobilization of locals for adult learning program
  • Provision of sanitary towels to every woman in the locality
  • Identification of the number of disabled people
  • Provision of food for the purpose of nutrition to the children
  • Planning for a quarterly budget.

Write an application letter to this NGO, and attach your curriculum vitae. Their address is Azimio Global Organization, P.O.BOX 624521, Dodoma- Tanzania

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

9. Assume that you have been appointed to head a department of health and sanitation. Prepare a speech that you would read before the audience explaining the importance of having a clean environment. Limit your speech to six points.

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 10-12

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES

  • A Wreath for Father Mayer - S.N. Ndunguru (1997), Mkuki na Nyota
  • Unanswered Cries - Osman Conteh, Macmillan
  • Passed Like a Shadow - B.M Mapalala (2006), DUP
  • Spared - S.N. Ndunguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota
  • Weep Not Child - Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1987); Heinemann
  • The Interview - P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan

PLAYS

  • Three Suitors: One Husband - O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen
  • The Lion and the Jewel - W. Soyinka (1963), OUP
  • This Time Tomorrow - Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1972), Heinemann
  • The Black Hermit - Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1968), Heinemann

POETRY

  • Songs of Lawino and Ocol - O. P’Bitek (1979), EAPH
  • Growing up with Poetry - D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989), Heinemann
  • Summons - R. Mabala (1960), TPH

10. Identify and explain six messages that you have obtained from two poems that you have read under this program.

11. How have the two playwrights from the readings you have attempted under this genre portrayed ‘tradition’ as a theme and perceptions it has created on affected individuals? Give three points from each play

12. Explain how conflict has been discussed in the two novels you have studied under this program. Use three points from each novel.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 102

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATIVE AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

LITERATURE IN ENGLISH MIDTERM EXAMINATION

Time: 3 Hours Year: 2022

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.

2. Answer all questions from sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C of which questions 7 and 8 are compulsory.

3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B forty (40) marks and section C carries forty five (45) marks.

4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) The following terms are found in Literature, which one is not?

  1. Drama
  2. Mood
  3. Persona
  4. Personal
  5. Act

(ii) Bughati wrote a story revolving around Mzungu’s life. How do you call that story?

  1. History
  2. novel
  3. Play
  4. Biography
  5. Autobiography

(iii) “You are very smart in class; you scored 2% in the examination”. What literary concept can the statement refer to?

  1. Irony
  2. Repetition
  3. Assonance
  4. Poetic license
  5. Diction

(iv) One of the following information is true about fables, which one is it?

  1. It is a written literature
  2. It uses animals to express morals
  3. It can be sung or recited
  4. It talks about heroes who lived in the past
  5. It explains the origin of an occurrence

(v) Hamsa wanted to please Judith; he compared her to Miss Tanzania use the phrase “like”. What aspect of literature did he provoke?”

  1. Metonymy
  2. Irony
  3. Simile
  4. Diction
  5. Exaggeration

(vi) One of the following features differentiates play from other literary genres. Identify it

  1. Play is emotional in nature
  2. Play is musical in nature
  3. Play employs excessive use of figures of speech
  4. Play is a narrative
  5. Play is lengthy in terms of content

(vii) In a situation whereby a work of literature is written using some aspects of freedom, especially in poetry, what terminology describes this?

  1. Open poem
  2. Point of view
  3. Literary style
  4. Literary freedom
  5. Poetic license

(viii) ______ is a group of lines in a poem

  1. Stanza
  2. Verse
  3. Sonnet
  4. Ballad
  5. Closed form

(ix) A lengthy fictitious narrative is known as________

  1. Play
  2. Novel
  3. Short story
  4. Poetry
  5. Fiction

(x) Onomatopoeia is associated with _____

  1. Rhythm
  2. Genre
  3. Title
  4. Character
  5. Sounds

2. Match the descriptions in List A with the corresponding answers in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

List A

List B

(i) A scene whereby the narrative is taken back in time from the current point in the story

(ii) A story written in chronological order

(iii) A story written beginning with phrases like; long time ago, once upon a time

(iv) A story written from one’s view

(v) A narrative told from one generation to another

  1. Straight forward narrative
  2. Sarcasm
  3. Oral literature
  4. Oral tradition
  5. Imagery
  6. Flashback
  7. Point of view

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Write short notes for following literary expressions

(a) Poetry is musical in nature

(b) Literature is basically divided into three genres

(c) Characters are representation of real people in a story

(d) Figures of speech are important literary tools

(e) Literature and society are inseparable

4. Read the following poem and then answer the questions that follow:

I am Nobody – Emily Dickinson

I am nobody! Who are you?

Are you – Nobody – too?

Then there’s a pair of us!

Don’t tell they’d banish us- you know!

How dreary- to be – Somebody!

How public – like a Frog –

To tell your name – the livelong June-

To an admiring Bog!

Questions

(a) What is the poem about?

(b) Who is the persona in this poem is this?

(c) List and explain two figurative languages used in this poem.

(d) Explain how the title of the poem is relevant to its context.

(e) What message can one find in the poem?

5. Compare and contrast the following literary terms

(a) Persona and character.

(b) Theme and relevance.

(c) Fairy tale and myth.

(d) Hypocrisy and exploitation

(e) Form and content

6. Write down factors that make poetry unique from other literary genres.

(a) Poetry ……………..

(b) Poetry …...........

(c) Poetry …………..

(d) Poetry …………...

(e) Poetry …………..

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Question 7 and 8 are compulsory.

LIST OF READINGS

Plays

  • The Lion and the Jewel - Soyinka, W.
  • The Trials of Brother Jero - Soyinka, W.
  • The Dilemma of a Ghost - Aidoo, A.A.
  • The Government Inspector - Gogol, N.

Novels

  • A Walk in the Night and Other Stories - Guma, A.
  • Houseboy - Oyono, F.
  • The Old Man and the Medal - Oyono, F.
  • The Concubine - Amadi, E.

Poetry

  • Selected poem - Tanzania Institute of Education
  • Growing up with poetry - David Rubadiri

7. Conflict is something inevitable in our societies. Support this statement with two novels that you have read by giving three points from each novel.

8. Explain how poetry portrays our social lives. Use two poems, each with three points for your explanation.

9. Use two plays that you have attempted under this programme and explain how misunderstandings between characters have led to conflict in our respective societies.

10. Explain in details, the playwrights’ intention for writing the play “The Government Inspector” by Nikolai N. Gogol.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE LITERATURE EXAM SERIES 101

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

ENGLISH FORM THREE

FORM THREE- SEPT 2022

SECTION A: (15 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) — (x) choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided 

(i) Which of the following sentences expresses future action?

imageA. Musa is going to school now

B.    Musa shall go to school tomorrow

C.    Musa was going to school

D.    Musa will be going to school now

E.     Musa will go to school

(ii) "A woman with whom I share a husband", Lawino said. The underlined word is a;

A.    Reflexive pronoun

B.     Relative pronoun

C.     A linking verb

D.    Possessive pronoun

E.     Interrogative pronoun

(iii) When you visit Ngorongoro National Park you can see a.........of lions wondering everywhere      image

A. Bunch

image B. Pride

C.    Host D. Swam 

E. Pack

(iv) "I am a soldier", he said. What did he say?

A.    He said that he were a solider

B.     He said that I am a soldier 

C. He said that he was a soldier

D.   He said that he is a soldier

E.    John said that he is a solder

(v) "If I were you I would be a rich person"

The above condition is used to express

A.    Imitation situation

B.    Habitual situation

C.    An opinion

D.    A life experience

E.     A conditional situation

(vi)  Timothy and Titus are friends. They......go to school together

A. Both

B. All 

C. At

D. Each 

E. Are

(vii)    Mary knew that John couldn't sing....

A.     As well as her

B.     Best than her

C.     As well as him

D.    As well as herself E. Good than her

(viii)He has been sleeping   Oyo days. The underlined Word represents;

A.     Preposition of manner

B.     Expression of duration of time

C.     Expression of reason

D.    Expression of specific time

E.     Expression of relation of time

(ix)      I am not used............such a hard work

A.     With

B.      To 

C.       By

D.     For

E.    From

(x) One of the following is set comprises a set of an abstract nouns

A.    Kidney, a ball, a chair, an orange

B.    Joy, sorrow, death, justice, childhood

C.    Tanzania, Malaysia, Congo, Dutch

D.    An army, a forest, a hand, a pack

E.     Kenya, ball, joy, love

 

 

2. Match the description of the following phrases in LIST A with the correct single noun in LIST B by writing its letter beside the corresponding item number in the answer sheet provided

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Fluent in two languages
  2. Wasteful in spending
  3. To learn by heart
  4. Unable to pay ones debt
  5. Loss of memory
  1. Amnesia
  2. Bilingual
  3. Extravagant
  4. Insolvent
  5. Memorize
  6. Fragile
  7. Verbatim
  8. Friable.

 

 

SECTION B: (40 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

3.  Imagine you are Mr. Majani's neighbour. One evening you went to visit him. While you were image in his house, he got an accident. Few hours later his relatives came and wanted explanations on the issue. This is how you explained to them, but the sentences are not in a logical order. Re arrange them to get a logical explanation by writing numbers

A.      Then he pressed the lid of the bottle and as he was holding the spray bottle the   wrong way round, he got a shower on his face.

B.      He collapsed and felt down on the floor where he lied asleep for hours*

C.      Mr. Majani had discovered that, a spider has made a cobweb in his room.i

D.     He wanted to kill the spider with poison from a spray bottle

4.  Bellow is an extract taken from a learner's dictionary. Study it carefully and point out four things you can learn about a word in a dictionary. Give example in each

5.  Imagine that you have attended a birthday party of your friend. Use the following words to construct a sentence for each to describe the eventimage

(a) Birthday

(b)Decorated

(c) Beautiful

(d)Amazing

6.     Write a sentence "l go to school" , into;

(a)An action that is in progress at the moment

(b)An action that was in progress in the past

(c)  An action that completed in the past

(d)An action that will be in progress in the future

7.    Collins and Mary are doing shopping for their younger brother's birthday party. Complete their dialogue with the correct article from those given in the box below image

8.     Read the following conversation between Mr. and Mrs. Nguvumali. From their conversation compose a wedding invitation cart in not more than 60 words

SECTION C: (45 MARKS)

Answer three (3) questions from this section

9.     Recently, Tanzanians have been experiencing the problem of unemployment. Imagine that you are the Headmaster/ Headmistress of Makumbusho Secondary school; prepare a speech to be delivered to your students who are leaving the school after completing their studies on the role of Government in addressing the problem of unemployment in Tanzania. Give out six points

 

10. Imagine that you have attended a women conference where the topic is "Like men, women are equally capable of contributing to the welfare of the society". Use two plays you have read to prove the relevance of this statement. (Give three points from each play)

11. "Poets/ Poetess use the poetic devices to convey messages to the society". Use two poems which you have read under this section to justify this statement by giving three points image from each poem.

12.  "Authors depict the experience of their own societies but the issues tend to be universal". Justify this contention by using two novels you have read. Give three from each

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 100

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

COMMERCE EXAM

FORM THREE- SEPT 2022

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with total of ten (10) questions
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only two questions from section C
  3. Section carries twenty (20) marks, section B carries fifty (50) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks
  4. Programmable calculators, cellular phone and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  5. Write your NAME on every page of your answer sheet(s)

Section A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. Careful read the following questions, then choose the correct answer from the alternative given and write its letter on the space provided.

  1. John and Johnson has been partners for several years, but John has been dealing with all business affairs alone, how can you group Johnson in such partnership

business

  1. As sleeping partner
  2. As an active partner
  3. As Quasi partner
  4. As general partner
  5. As Unlimited partner
  1. The reduction of prices which results from large purchases is known as;
  1. Price support
  2. Re-sale price maintenance
  3. Trade discount
  4. Cash discount
  5. Discount allowed
  1. Mamalishe has been selling fresh juice by using water bottle in her restaurant, so the process of placing fresh juice in water bottle is called?
  1. Branding
  2. Packing
  3. Packaging
  4. Putting
  5. Grading
  1. Mr. Pweza prefers buying carbonated soft drinks (Mango) from Azam Co.ltd, after the rise in prices for Mango Juice, he decided to shift and consume fresh juices from Mamalishe. The demand for two commodities is classified as:
  1. Joint
  2. Complementary demand
  3. Independent demand
  4. Competitive demand
  5. Derived demand
  1. When drawing supply curve, automatically supply curve slope upward from left to right. Why does this supply curve slope upward from left to right? { }
  1. The lower the price, the higher the quantity demanded and vice versa
  2. When the price is held constant, the quantity supplied increases
  3. When the factors other than price held constant, Quantity supplied increases
  4. The higher the price, the higher the quantity of commodities supplied and vice versa
  5. The lower the price, the higher the supplied
  1. Given that, a daily sale is 20kg of NIDO milk, delivery time 5 days, Minimum stock 100kg, and Maximum stock 70kg. What will be the order point?
  1. 200kg
  2. 100kg
  3. 150kg
  4. 180kg
  5. 120kg
  1. A kind of home trade which deals with buying of goods in large quantity from the wholesaler and selling them to the final consumers is called?
  1. Home trade
  2. Wholesale trade
  3. Retail trade
  4. Foreign trade
  5. Import trade
  1. Mr. Mwasambabha as household has prepared a fresh fruit juice for his child Consumption. In which kind of production activities done by Mwasambabha be Grouped?
  1. Primary Production
  2. Tertiary production
  3. Direct production
  4. Indirect Production
  5. Personal services
  1. Which of the following qualities of a good money signifies that, good money should have a long life span
  1. Portability
  2. Malleability
  3. Durability
  4. Divisibility
  5. Difficult to make a fake copy
  1. Mr. Matata own a supermarket at Singida Bus terminal. Which one of the following stock computation will help him to identify fast and slow moving items in the business
  1. Average stock
  2. Stock turn rate
  3. Minimum stock
  4. Stock order point
  5. Stock levels
  1. Self service is a common features of a
  1. Chain store
  2. Single shop
  3. Supermarket
  4. Tied shop
  5. Multiple shop
  1. Continuing rise in general level of prices and consequent fall in purchasing power of money is called?
  1. Deflation
  2. Inflation
  3. Disinflation
  4. Equilibrium price
  5. Rein - Inflation
  1. Are warehouses which are owned by the government and individual and its free to any one wishing to hire them for a certain charge;
  1. Bonded warehouse
  2. Private warehouse
  3. Public warehouse
  4. Wholesaler
  5. Retailer warehouse
  1. Mr Kimbo wishes to start his drinking water industry at Kigoma, then how can he differentiate his product from other company’s products like Uhai, Afya etc.
  1. Through packaging
  2. Through branding
  3. Through price
  4. Through packing
  5. Through standardizing
  1. Which method would Tanzania adopt if she wants to complete restrict importation of sugar from Malwai
  1. Imposing heavy import duty
  2. Total ban
  3. Fixing Import quota
  4. Using government agencies
  5. Using VAT

2. For each of item (i-v) match the description of item in list A with their corresponding names in list B by writing the letter of the correct response on the space provided

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Means change in the quantity of commodity demanded as a result of change in price while other factors remain constant .
  2. This occurs when Tanzania - Petroleum Company’s buy Petrol and Diesel from Libya for selling them within the country.
  3. It’s concerned with the arrangement of the organizational resources like machines, people and materials in such a way they can accomplish organizational goals.
  4. The process of monitoring and measuring subordinates work performance so as to ensure that work performance conform to plans or stand set
  5. Process of setting objectives and deciding how to achieve them
  1. Export trade
  2. Change in quantity demanded
  3. Import trade
  4. Organizing
  5. Controlling
  6. Planning
  7. Change in demand
  8. Coordinating
  9. Plan.

SECTION B (50 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Differentiate between the following terms

a) Packing and packaging

b) Composite demand and competitive demand

c) Commerce and economics

d) Air transport and land transport

e) Specialization and division of labour

4. a) (a) Mr. Kiombo has been producing Beans for years and selling them at his private warehouse, but he has been running his business at loss, what do you think could be the reasons for running his business at loss? Identify any five reasons

(b) Mr. Kiombo who has been producing Beans for years and selling them within a local market, but now he wishes to sell them to Kenya, he has been thinking either to use road transport or air transport.

Required: Since you have business knowledge briefly explain to him any five factors to be taken into consideration before choosing any model of transport system

5. Careful study the following demand and supply schedule for Cooking oil in Tanzania and then answer the questions below

Price (Tshs)

Qd (Litre)

Qs (Litres)

2,000

8

2

3,000

6

4

4,000

4

6

5,000

2

8

6,000

1

10

a) Draw a demand and supply curve in the same pair of axes

b) Indicate the equilibrium point, equilibrium quantity and equilibrium price

c) Calculate price elasticity of demand when cooking oil price changed from Tshs.

2,000 to 5,000

d) Give Comment on the results you obtained in question (c) above

e) Name any five factors affecting demand of Cooking Oil in Tanzania

6. a) Miss Janeth has been employee as an Accountant at Singida Regional Hospital for 10 years, this year she has decided to quit the job and become an entrepreneur. Highlight any six reasons why Janeth decided to be entrepreneur.

(b) Since Miss Janeth has decided to be an entrepreneur, provide your professional advice by naming any four factors that should be taken into consideration when locating her business.

7. a) Define cheque and identify any three circumstances under which a cheque may be dishonoured

(b) Mr. Keko a Sole trader, who own a departmental store at Dodoma City wishes to apply for a loan from NMB Bank for his business expansion, but he is not aware of any factors that are taken into consideration by Bank before giving loans to their customers. As business expert help Mr. Keko by briefly explaining to him any five factors that Banks take into consideration before granting loan to their customers

Section C (30 Marks)

Answer only two questions from this section

8. (a) Differentiate departmental store and supermarket

(b) Small scale retailers like road side traders, machingas, auctioneers and market stall holders has been increasing in our country, but they are facing many challenges. Explain any five challenges facing small scale retailers in Tanzania.

9. In our country most of the products are imported from other countries such as China, Japan, India etc, but to much importation may have negative impact in our country. So what do you think should be done in order to reduce to much importation of products from abroad (Discus any five factors)

10. (a) Define and identify any five difficulties associated with barter trade system

(b) We normally use money in our daily live, as student explain how do you use money. (Explain any six uses)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 99

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

FORM THREE EXAMINATION

062     BOOK-KEEPING

Time: 2:30 Hours                                                                                                        Sept, 2022

 Instructions  

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of nine (9) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries twenty (20) marks, section B forty (40) marks and section C carries forty (40) marks.
  4. All writings should be in blue or black ink pen and all drawings should be in pencil.
  5. Non programmable calculators may be used.
  6. Cellular phones, programmable calculators and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section 

  1. For each of the items (i) – (xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided:
  1.  Mtumzima bought 5 items of TZS 800 each, and given allowance of 25% trade discount and 5% cash discount, if he could settle within the agreed credit period, how much was paid?
  1. TZS 2,850    
  2. TZS 2,800     
  3. TZS 2,600
  4. TZS 4,000 
  5. TZS 3,000
  1. Mr. MRAMBA as a Petty cashier was given a desired cash float of TZS 100,000/= if TZS 72,000/= is spent by him, under imprest system of petty cash how much will be reimbursed?


  1. TZS 28,000/=                       
  2. TZS 172,000/= 
  3. TZS 72,000/=     
  4. TZS 70,000                 
  5. TZS 100,000/=


  1. The book value of an Asset after two years, using straight line method at 10% was TZS 10,000/=. What was the cost price of the Asset?


  1. TZS 20,000/=      
  2. TZS15,000/=    
  3. TZS 12,500/= 
  4. TZS 10,000/=            
  5. TZS 30,000/=


  1. Amount of surplus in a statement of income and expenditure account indicates:
  1. Excess of income over expenditure  
  2. Excess of cash received over credit sales
  3. Excess of expenditure over income
  4.  Excess of gross profit over expenses
  5. Excess of expenses over net profit
  1. Which of the following errors would be disclosed by the Trial Balance?
  1. Credit sales of TZS 20,000/= entered in the books as TZS 2,000/=
  2. Cheque for TZS 65,000/= from R.James entered in R.James as TZS 59,000/=
  3. Cash sales TZS 100,000 were completely omitted in the books
  4. Selling expenses TZS 5,000 had been debited to sales Account.
  5. A purchase of goods worth TZS 2,500/= omitted from the books
  1. Government expenditures on items from which the government attains no value are called.


  1. Development expenditure.
  2. Recurrent expenditure.
  3. Capital expenditure.
  4. Revenue expenditure
  5. Nugatory expenditure.


  1. What is the effect of TZS 500,000/= being added to Purchases instead of being added to a non-current asset?
  1. Net profit would be understated
  2. Net profit would be overstated
  3. Both Gross profit and Net profit would be understated
  4. Net profit would not be affected
  5. Gross profit would be affected
  1. At the beginning of Accounting year, a club had TZS 14,000/= as non-current Assets, TZS 5,000/= as current Assets and TZS 5,000/= as liabilities. What would be its opening Accumulated fund?


  1. TZS 4,000/=                      
  2.  TZS 14,000/=  
  3. TZS 12,000/=                    
  4. TZS 24,000/=
  5. TZS 10,000/=


  1. When the financial statements are prepared, the bad debts Account is closed by being transferred to: -
  1. Statement of financial position                      
  2.  Provision for doubtful debts Account
  3. Income statement         
  4. Statement of affairs
  5. Trading account
  1. When business entity paid rent of TZS 800,000/=. The payment was recorded in the books as follows. Debit: “Bank” TZS 800,000/= and Credit: Rent TZS 800,000/=. What entries will be posted to rectify this error?
  1. Debit “Bank” TZS 800,000/= and credit “Rent” TZS 800,000/=
  2. Credit “Rent” TZS 800,000/= and credit “Bank” TZS 800,00/=
  3. Debit “Bank” TZS 800,000/= and Credit “Rent” TZS 1,600,000/=
  4. Debit “Rent” TZS 1,600,000/= and credit “Bank” TZS 1,600,000/=
  5. Debit “Bank” TZS 1,600,000/= and credit “Rent” TZS 1,600,000/=
  1. A business had an opening and closing capital balances of TZS 57,000/= and TZS 64,300/= respectively. The drawings during the same year amounted to TZS 11,800/= What was the amount of profit made by the business during that year?


  1. TZS 19,100/=  
  2. TZS 16,600/=  
  3. TZS 5,000/= 
  4. TZS 19,600/=  
  5. TZS 18,600/=


  1. Gloria General store sold goods worth TZS 100,000/= to Joshua on credit and were neither recorded in sales account nor in Pearl’s personal account. This represents an error of:
  1. Error of commission.
  2. Error of omission.
  3. Error of original entry
  4. Error of principle.
  5. Error of complete reversal of entries.
  1.             Jeff and Witness were arguing on the primary and basic reason of preparing a trial balance. As form three student taking business studies, what is the basic reason for writing up a trial balance among the following reasons?
  1.               A trial balance issued for internal control as back up document.
  2.               A trial balance is used as a tool for preparing financial statement.
  3.               A trial balance is used to determine a reliable financial position
  4.               A trial balance is used to present a list of balances at one place.
  5.                A trial balance is used to check arithmetical accuracy of double entry.
  1. Which of the following are the examples of revenue expenditure?
  1. Purchases of goods and payment for electricity bill in cash
  2. Repair of van and petrol costs for van
  3. Buying machinery and paying for installation costs
  4. Electricity costs of using machinery and buying van
  5. Purchases of office equipment
  1. A firm bought a Motor van for TZS 50,000 which had a scrap value of TZS 5,000, and useful life of 5 years. What would be the depreciation charge if a straight line method is used?


  1. TZS 10,000 
  2.  TZS 11,000  
  3. TZS 9,000 
  4. TZS 1,000 
  5.  TZS 5,000


  1. Match the items in Column A with the responses in Column B by writing the letter of the correct responses below the corresponding item number in the table provided.

Column A

Column B

  1. The ministry which has been generally vested the task of accounting for all government money
  2. A person appointed by the treasury in writing and charged with the duty of regulating funding issue from exchequer account
  3. Any person who is appointed in writing by accounting officer to authorize the expenditures for specific items of expenditures
  4. An account to which all government money collected from various sources are deposited.
  5. An officer appointed by the president of United Republic of Tanzania for controlling and regulating the use of public money
  1. Collector of revenue
  2. Authorized officer
  3. Treasury
  4. Accounting officer
  5. Consolidated fund
  6. Controller and Auditor General
  7. Warrant holder
  8. Exchequer Account
  9. Paymaster General

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1. Book keeping involves the recording on a daily basis of a company’s financial transactions whether on single entry system or double entry system and because of book keeping, companies are able to track all financial information on its books to make key operating, investing, and financing decisions. Outline five reasons stating why double entry system is better in book keeping.
  2. On 1st July, 2017 Mtumzima Company bought a machinery for TZS 18,000,000, and decided to sell it for TZS 12,000,000 after using it for four (04) years. In four (04) points describe briefly why the company decided to sell a machinery at a price lower than the original cost price.
  1. Prepaid rent at the beginning of the period was TZS 40,000/= and TZS 20,000/= was not paid last year. During the year payment of TZS 320,000/= was made with respect to rent. It was established that at the end of the period prepaid rent should be TZS 60,000/=. Compute the amount of Rent Expenses to be transferred to income statement.
  2. The following information relates with Star social club for the year ended 31st June 2020.

1.7.2019  31.6.2020

Subscription in arrears    4,500   3,200

Subscription received in advance   6,300   1,800

During the year, the subscriptions amounted to TZS. 120,000 were received from the club members.

Required:

Subscription account, showing the amount to be transferred to the statement of Income and expenditures for year ended 31st June, 2020.

SECTION C (40 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

  1.       SIJAFELI keeps his books on a single entries system. The following are the balances of Assets and Liabilities of his business for the year ended 31st December, 2017.

Receipts and Payments made for cash during the year were as follows:

Receipts from Debtors ______________________________________420,000

Payment to Creditors ______________________________________200,000

Carriage inwards ___________________________________________ 40,000

Drawings _________________________________________________120,000

Sundry Expenses __________________________________________140,000

Purchases of new furniture ___________________________________ 20,000

Other information:

There was a considerable amount of cash sales. Depreciate furniture at 10% on a closing balance.

From the information provided, prepare

  1.              Accounts receivables and Accounts payables control Accounts
  2.             Cash Account.
  3.              Income statement for the year ended 31st December 2017
  4.             Statement of financial position as at 31st December 2017 
  1. MtumzimaSports Club, a non-profit making organization was looking for a form three student who is able to assist them in the preparations of various accounts and statements for payments. In their interview one of the questions was as follows: -

Assets and Liabilities:

Receipts and Payments Account

 The following information were also available

  1. The sports equipment sold during the year had a book value of sh.3,500/=
  2. Depreciation on sports equipment was provided at 20% per year

Required:

  1. A statement of affairs as at 1.1.2016
  2. Subscription account
  3. A statement of Income and expenditure for the year ended at 31.12.2016
  4. A statement of financial position as at that date.
  1. The financial year of Collins Trading Company ended on 31.12.2017. You have been asked to prepare a Total Debtors Account and a Total Creditors Account in order to produce end-of-year figures for Debtors and Creditors for the draft financial statements.

You are able to obtain the following information for the financial year from the books oforiginal entry:

TZS

Sales made on Cash basis        782,500

Sales made on Credit       368,187

Purchases made on Cash basis       214,440

Purchases made on Credit        596,600

Total cash receipts from customers       300,570

Total cash payments to suppliers       503,970

Discounts allowed (all to credit customers)     5,520

Discounts received (all from credit suppliers)     3,510

Refunds given to cash customers       5,070

Balance in the sales ledger set off 

against balance in the purchases ledger      700

Bad debts written off        780

Credit notes issued to credit customers      4,140

Credit notes received from credit suppliers     1,480

According to the audited financial statements for the previous year debtors and creditors as at 1.1.2017 were TZS 26,555 and TZS 43,450 respectively.

Required:

  1.              Accounts receivables Control Account
  2.             Accounts payables Control Account

Page 1 of 10

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 98

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

GEOGRAPHY-SEPT 2022

FORM THREE

INSTRUCTIONS

  1.                This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) question.
  2.                Answer All questions in sections A and B and any two (2) questions from section C.
  3.                Map extract of LINDI is provided
  4.                Cellular phones are NOT allowed in the examination room.
  5.                Write your Examination number on every page of your answer booklet (s)

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

PHYSICAL AND MATHEMATICAL GEOGRAPHY

  1.                For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number.
  1.               Which of the following planets is closest to the sun? 
  1.               Earth 
  2.                Jupiter 
  3.                mars 
  4.               Mercury 
  5.                Neptune
  1.             Overgrazing in Tanzania can lead to environmental problems. Identify the regions might have been affected by the problem;
  1.               Dodoma, Arusha and Shinyanga
  2.                Morogoro, Dar es salaam and Tanga
  3.                Pwani, Mbeya and Rukwa
  4.               Mwanza , Singida and Tabora
  5.                Manyara , Iringa and Dodoma
  1.           when the moon’s shadow casts over the earth’s surface the phenomenon is known as
  1.               Lunar eclipse 
  2.                Solar eclipse 
  3.                Equinoxes 
  4.               Summer solstice 
  5.                Winter solstice
  1.           What are the four types of statistical data basing on their nature?
  1.               Individual data, discrete data, raw data and secondary data
  2.                Individual data, discrete data , grouped data and continuous data
  3.                Primary data, secondary data, grouped data and collective data
  4.               Individual data, grouped data, statistical data and discrete data
  5.                Raw data, continuous data , primary data and array data
  1.             The Earth have different evidences that proves that the Earth is spherical. What do you think that this is one among those evidences?
  1.               The four seasons
  2.                The lunar eclipse
  3.                The revolution of the Earth
  4.               The Earth rotation
  5.                The eclipse of the sun
  1.           A drainage pattern which works like a tree with its branches is called
  1.               Radial 
  2.                Dendritic 
  3.                Centripetal 
  4.               Annual 
  5.                Trells
  1.         The following arc the element of weather
  1.               Soils, clouds, dew, humidity, rainfall
  2.                Pressure, clouds, sunshine, humidity, winds 
  3.                Fog, barometer, humidity, pressure, air mass
  4.               Pressure, humidity, soil, fog, rainfall
  5.                Clouds, sunshine, pressure, humidity, thermometer
  1.      The process of peeling off of rock mass is called
  1.               Disintegration 
  2.                Weathering 
  3.                Mass wasting
  4.               Erosion 
  5.                Exfoliation
  1.           A vertical feature formed out of the solidification of magma within the Earths crust is called
  1.               Localita
  2.                sill 
  3.                lopolith 
  4.               Dykc 
  5.                Phacolith
  1.             Mrs Kilua was wondering how fragments are worn out during collision against each other at Kondoa river during rainy season, her daughter tells her that process is known as ……
  1.               Hydraulic action 
  2.                Attrition 
  3.                Abrasion
  4.               Corrosion 
  5.                Hydrolysis
  1.                Match the items in List A with responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1.               Large depression formed when several doline collapse
  2.             Irregular groves formed when water erodes the cracks in the karst region
  3.           Underground chambers formed due to dissolving of limestone rocks
  4.           Stumpy rock masses that grow from the floor of the chamber upwards
  5.             The vertical shaft of the hole from the surface into the ground.
  1.               Grikes
  2.                Ponors
  3.                Stalactites
  4.               Clints
  5.                Polje
  6.                Sinkholes
  7.                Stalagmites
  8.               Cavern
  9.                  Uvala
  10.                  Cave.

SECTION B 55 MARKS

Answer all questions in this section

3. Carefully study the map extract of Kigoma (sheet 92/3) provided and answer the following questions;

(a) Identity the features that found in the following grid references

  1.                      923617 
  2.                      945599 
  3.                      910596

(b) Calculate the area of lake Tanganyika from 570 Southward. Give your answer in Km2

(c) What is the length of the railway line from grid reference 944633 Eastward. Give your answer in Km.

(d) With evidence suggest the type of settlement patterns depicted in the map.

(e) By providing evidences, explain three (3) human economic activities andtwo (2) social activities that might be taking place in the area.

4. Study carefully the data below that show the enrollment of form six students at Bagamoyo secondary school from 1980-1985 the answer the questions that follows;

YEAR

NUMBER

1980

1981

1982

1983

1984

1985

100

150

175

200

225

300

a) Present the data above by pie chart

b) Comment on the trend of the pie chart in (a) above

c) What are the merits of using this method Apart from that method use in (a) above. Give three (3) points

d) What are alternative methods that can be used to present the data above? Give two (2) points.

5 (a) Mary is a good cartographer; she intends to produce a contoured map of Morogoro. What type of survey method would you advise her to apply?

(b) Apart from producing contour maps, what is the other significance of the survey you have mentioned in (a) above

(c) Mention and explain uses of any three instruments which are used in method you mentioned in (a) above

6. Most of the students usually get confusion when they are trying to differentiate some terms. As a form three student how can help those students to attempt for the following?

a) Small holder farmers and subsistence farming

b) Connate water and juvenile water

c) Adit mining and panning method

d) Footloose industries and industrial inertia

e) Shooting star and meteorite

7. Study carefully the given photograph below then answer the questions that follow

C:UsersuserDesktopScreenshot_20220519-131120_2.jpg

  1.                      What is the type of the photograph?
  2.                      State the scale of the production
  3.                      Outline any four regions in Tanzania where the photograph might have been taken
  4.                      What are the three necessary conditions that favour the growth of the crop shown on the photograph above?
  5.                      List down any four uses of the crop shown on the photograph

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answerany two questions in this section

8. a) An announcement from the ministry concerning with industries directed that, government police may play a great role in determining the location of industries, hence the minister argued that, ‘we discourage the concentration of industries in one place” what are the reasons led a minister to argue so? Four points

b) East Africa is struggling to establish several industries so as to fasten the growth of economy. Thus different types of manufacturing industries have been introduced, as an expert in manufacturing, industries identify groups of manufacturing industries in the region concern. Give six groups with vivid examples

9. Plantation is the most form of agriculture practiced in tropical region of Africa, Asia and South America. Justify six (6) characteristics of plantation practiced in these areas.

10. Explain any six objectives of constructing the striglers gorge of hydro-electric power in Tanzania.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 97

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY-SEPT 2022

FORM THREE

032

Time:3 Hours SEPT, 2022

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fourteen (14)

questions.

  1. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one (1)question from section C.
  2. Sections A and C carry fifteen (15) marks each and section B carries seventy (70) marks.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your name on every page of your answer sheets.
  5. The following constants may be used.

Atomic masses: H = 1, O = 16, C = 12, N = 14, Na = 23, Cl = 35.5, K = 39

Ca = 40

Avogadro’s number:

GMV at s.t.p =

1 Faraday = 96,500 coulombs.

Standard pressure = 760 mm Hg.

Standard temperature = 273 K.

1 litre ==

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answerall questions in this section.

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet.
  1. A Bunsen burner is a chief source of heat in the laboratory that produces both blue and yellow flames. Which one among the following heat sources produce a blue flame:

A: spirit lampB:gas stoveC:kerosene stove

D:candleE:hurricane lamp

  1. “Water is referred to as the universal solvent.What does this statement mean?

A: it is commonly known liquid

B:it exists in all three states of matter

C:it dissolves more substances than any other known liquid.

D:it is used for cooking, drinking and washing bodies and clothes

E:it is colourless, odourless and tasteless liquid

  1. Kiraka was suffering from stomach pain for the whole day. Which material among the following could be used to relieve his pain?

A:dilute hydrochloric acid B: cucumber C:lemon

D:tamarind E:blueberries

  1. Electronegativity increases from left to right across the period in the periodic table. In which group and period does the most electronegative element belong?

A:group I period 3B:group VII period 2 C:group I period 7

D: group VII period 1E:group VII period 3

  1. During sunny days, the water in ponds dry completely leaves ponds barely. Which process takes place in that season?

A:condensationB:meltingC:evaporation

D:sublimationE:deposition

  1. The apparatus used to heat small amounts of solid substances within a gas jar is:

A:evaporating dishB:test tube holderC:deflagrating spoon

D:gas jarE:desiccator

  1. One of the following is a common component that causes reddish brown colour on some materials:

A:sodium metalB:alloyC:water vapour

D:oilE:grease

  1. Kileo visited the forest at their village, and fortunately, he found some water in the pond mixed with some dust particles. Which simple method among the following he used to get pure drinking water?

A:fractional distillationB:filtrationC:condensation

D:crystallizationE:simple distillation

  1. Ammonium ion reacts with sulphate ion to form a compound. The oxidation state of ammonium ion in that compound is:

A:+1B:4C:-1D:+4E:-2

  1. Asha boils the water from the well using electric kettle;but the heating process takes long time. The substance that causes this problem is:

A:aluminiumB:calciumC:sodium

D:potassiumE:both A and C

  1. Match the items from list A with the correct responses in list B by writing the letter of the correct response in your answer sheets.

List A

List B

  1. The radical with valence of three.
  2. The elements with both metallic and non-metallic properties.
  3. The most reactive element in the electrochemical series.
  4. It is formed by the contribution of electrons.
  5. The elements which are incredibly stable and rarely reactive.

A:Electrovalent compound

B:Potassium

C:Bromine

D:Covalent compound

E:Phosphate

F:Noble gases

G:Metalloids

SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answerall questions in this section

  1. Element X found in group II period 4 chemically interacted with element Y found in group VII period 3 forming compound Z.

(a)(i)Write the actual names of element X, Y and compound Z.

(ii)What is the chemical combination involved in this interaction?

(b)(i)Draw the structure of the compound Z

(ii)Give two properties of compound Z.

  1. (a) Air is a homogeneous mixture of different gases in the atmosphere. Give

three reasons to support this statement.

(b)With the help of balanced chemical equation, explain what will happen to:

(i)A piece of iron bar left to the exposure.

(ii)Anhydrous copper (II) sulphate when put into the watch glass and placed

on the laboratory bench.

  1. (a) (i) Why chemical symbols are very important to chemist? Give three reasons

(ii)Write the symbols of phosphorous, fluorine, manganese and copper.

(b)Why some elements are assigned symbols with only one letter while

Others bear with two letters?

  1. A certain compound was found to have the following composition by mass: 24.24% carbon, 4.04% hydrogen and 71.72% chlorine.
  1. What is the simplest formula of the compound formed?
  2. Calculate the percentage composition by mass of water in magnesium

Chloride hexahydrate.

  1. (a) (i) Give two reasons why laboratory exists are advised to open outward?

(ii)Why laboratory safety precaution is very important?

(b)Categorize the following laboratory compounds into corrosive and flammable:

Sodium hydroxide, spirit, sulphuric acid, oil, aro and benzene

  1. (a) Differentiate molar mass of a substance from molar volume of gases.
  1. The Golden Boy conducted an experiment for the production of oxygen gas

bythermal decomposition of potassium chlorate. If he used 20g of potassium

chlorate, what volume of oxygen would be produced at s.t.p?

  1. (a) Briefly state two importance of balancing chemical equations.
  1. Silver nitrate was introduced into dilute hydrochloric acid to form

products.

  1. Which type of chemical reaction took place?
  2. Write the net ionic equation for that reaction.
  1. (a) Give the names of the processes of making coke from coal and charcoal from

wood.

(b)(i)“Liquid fuel is more advantageous than solid fuel”. Give three points to

support this statement.

(ii)Write down the composition of water gas and producer gas.

  1. (a) A solution of sodium hydroxide was electrolysed using platinum electrodes.

Write the reactions which take place at the electrodes and give reason why

the solution becomes alkaline.

  1. What mass of zinc will be formed in electrolysis using a 15 amperes of

electricity for one and a half hours?

  1. Form three students at Tusomeni Secondary School performed an experiment for the neutralization of sodium hydroxide solution and hydrochloric acid. 25 of sodium hydroxide were exactly neutralized by 25 of 0.10M HCl.
  1. Calculate the concentration of sodium hydroxide in:
  1. mol/ (ii) g/
  1. What is the suitable indicator for:
  1. The above titration
  2. The titration of strong acid against strong base

SECTION C (15 Marks)

Answerone (1) question in this section.

  1. Cutting down trees for firewood and charcoal causes major catastrophic effects to the environment. Using four points analyse these effects and suggest two alternative ways that can be used to minimize the energy loss encountered.
  2. Water has a property of dissolving some minerals that affect it permanently; as a result, it becomes very disadvantageous to many rural people. As a young chemist and one among these people, explain the four effects of using this water and suggest two ways of removing the effect.

Page1 of5

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 96

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATIVE AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE EXAMINATIONS SEPT 2022

NEW NECTA FORMAT

PHYSICS

PHYSICS FORM THREE

Where necessary use the following constants

Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 10m/s2

Density of water = 1g/cm3/ 1000kg/m3

ATTEMPT ALL QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION

  1. (a)For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number.
  1. A force F newton’s gives a mass of 2kg an acceleration of 4m/s2. A force of 3F newton will give a mass of 8kg an acceleration in m/s2 of?
  1. 1
  2. 3
  3. 6
  4. 12
  5. 24
  1. A Uniform beam XY is pivoted at one end X and a vertically upward force of 4N at Y keeps the beam horizontal. The weight of the beam in Newton’s is
  1. 8
  2. 6
  3. 4
  4. 2
  5. 1
  1. In the process of charging by induction in static electricity
  1. A conducter is rubbed with an insulator
  2. A charge is produced by friction
  3. Negative and positive charges are separated
  4. A positive charge induces a positive charge
  5. Electrons are sprayed into an object.
  1. In a single rope 4-pulley system, the mechanical advantage is less than 4 because
  1. The effort may vary
  2. The load is raised
  3. The upper pulleys do not move
  4. Friction acts on the pulleys
  5. The weight of the pulleys may be neglected
  1. Which of the following are non-renewable energy sources
  1. Wave energy
  2. Biofuels
  3. Fossil fuels
  4. Radiant energy
  5. Geothermal
  1. An airship is floating stationary high above the ground in this case
  1. Up thrust = airship weight
  2. Air temperature inside the ship = Air temperature outside the ship
  3. Air density outside the ship is greater than air density inside
  4. Air density outside the ship is less than air density inside the ship
  5. The air up thrust is greater, than the air weight
  1. Which of the following describe the particles in a sold at room temperature
  1. Close together and vibrate
  2. Close together and moving around at random
  3. For apart and moving at random
  4. Close together and stationary
  5. Far apart and stationary
  1. The relationship between the local length (f) and radius of conture of a concave mirror (r)is that
  1. f=2r
  2. f =r
  1. When two cars A and B are morap in the same direction; the velocity of A relative to B is given by
  1. VAB=VA – VB
  2. VAB = VAB – VA
  3. VAB = VA + VB
  4. None of the above
  1. The following work on the principle of total internal reflection except
  1. Prism Pens copes
  2. fibre optic cable
  3. mirage
  4. mirror pens cope
  1. Match the items in List A with a response in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Distance from pole to center of curvature
  2. Distance from pole to principle focus
  3. Converges light rays
  4. Diverges light rays
  5. Center of curved mirror
  1. Pole
  2. Convex mirror
  3. Concave mirror
  4. Total length
  5. Radius of curvature
  6. Aperture

SECTION B (60 MARKS)

ATTEMPT ALL QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION

  1. (a)With the aid of a ray diagram, explain why a concave mirror is used as a shaving mirror

(b)A convex mirror of focal length 15cm is used to produce an image an object placed 20cm from the pole of the mirror 

Find the position and nature of the image formed

  1. (a)How is absolute velocity different from Relative velocity

(b)A bird is plying at 80/km/hr. due East relative to the air. A wind is blowing at 30km/hr in the north East direction as seen from the ground. What is the velocity of the bird relative to the observer on the ground? 

(c) Identify three ways of reducing friction force acting on a body

  1. (a)Explain why it is not possible for you to push a car when you are seated inside it

(b)A uniform beam of mass 50kg and length 6m is supported by two vertical strings at A and B such that each pant is 0.5m from each end A mass of 40kg is also hung at m from A. Find the tension in the strings at points A and B

  1. (a)(i)Draw a well labelled diagram of a hydrometer

(ii) Explain the important of the following on a hydrometer 

  1. Narrow stem
  2. Wide bulb

(b) A cube of side 10cm and mass 400g floats in water

  1. What fraction of the cube is under the water
  2. What is the extra force that must be exerted on the cube such that it is completely submerged in the water
  1. (a)With a clear diagram show how a prism can be used to produce a spectrum when white light falls on its

(b)A compound microscope has objective lens of focal length 8cm and eyepiece lens of focal length 4cm the distance between the lenses is 28cm. the lens is adjusted such that the final image is at infinity

  1. Calculate the position of the object from the objective lens
  2. What is the angular magnification of the lens
  1. (a)Explain the importance of anomalous expansion of water to marine organision

(b)A wheel and exle has wheel radius of 20cm and axle radius of 5cm. The efficiency of the machine is 90%

  1. What is the velocity of the machine
  2. What is the effort required to raise a load of 2000N

SECTION C

ATTEMPT ANY TWO QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION

  1. (a)Explain why during the installation of electrical wires that transmit electricity from one place to another the wires are left sagging and not tight

(b)The figure below shows a bimetallic strip having two metals invar and brass. (Brass has a higher linear expansitivity than invar)

Explain how the bar will bend if it is heated to a higher temperature than room temperature

(c) A telegraph wire has a length of 30m and is made of metal of linear expansitivity 0.00002/K

Find the change in length from a hot day temperature 30°C to a very cold day - 5°C

  1. (a)What are the laws that govern friction force

(b)Explain why coefficient of Kinetic friction is always smaller than coefficient of state friction 

(c)Three forces act on a body as shown below

Find the value of T and F

  1. (a)Explain the appearance of a  blue shirt with red spots when viewed through
  1. Blue light
  2. Red light
  3. Green light

(b)Convex mirrors are always used as driving mirrors. With the aid of a diagram explain why these kinds of mirrors are used in this case 

(c)What is the maximum magnification produced by a convex lens of local length 5cm.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 95

 

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

 

032/1                                                BIOLOGY FORM THREE

TIME: 3 HOURS                                                                                 SEPT 2022

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consist of sections A, B and C, with total of fifteen (15) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two (2) questions from section C of which question 13 is compulsory.
  3. All drawing must be in pencil.
  4. Cellular phone and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5. Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheets.

 

SECTION A (15 Marks)

  1. For items (i-x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number.
  1. A biologist in his experiment discovered a new cell in a culture. The new cell had cell wall but had no definite nucleus. The cell is mostly likely to be of.
  1. Kingdom fungi
  2. Kingdom plantae
  3. Kingdom monera
  4. Kingdom animalia

 

  1. The blood vessel that carries blood rich in nutrients from the gut to the liver is.
  1. Pulmonary artery
  2. Pulmonary vein
  3. Hepatic artery
  4. Hepatic portal vein
  5. Liver artery

 

  1. Cardiac muscles are example of.
  1. System     (b) tissue     (c) organ     (d) organism

 

  1. The part of brain which coordinates and supports movement of the human body is.
  1. Cerebellum     (b) cerebrum     (c) medulla oblongata  (d) hypothalamus

 

  1. Which of the following is a list of diseases caused by bacteria?
  1. Pneumonia, elephantiasis, cholera and typhoid
  2. Malaria, pneumonia, typhoid and cholera
  3. Cholera, bilharzias, tuberculosis and pneumonia
  4. Tuberculosis, small pox, pneumonia and cholera
  5. Tuberculosis, cholera, pneumonia and typhoid

 

  1. The term that best describes animals having both male and female sex organs is.
  1. Fibroblastic     (b) tribloblastic      (c) hermaphrodites    (d) viviparous

 

  1.         The fact that the fluid oozes out of a slump after a tree has been felled is evidence to ______ in plants.
  1. Transport     (b) root pressure    (c)translocation    (d) transpiration stream

 

  1.      Which substance can be tested by using Benedict’s solution
  1. Reducing sugar                
  2. Starch       
  3. Lipids                                  
  4.  Protein
  5. oils

 

  1. Which of the following enzymes is produced in the Mouth
  1. Lipase.                                                        
  2.  Salivary amylase  
  3. Sucrose.                                                     
  4. Trypsin
  5. Maltase.
  1. Which of the following is the correct order of event?
  1. Oogenesis – fertilization – ovulation – implantation
  2. Ovulation – fertilization  - oogenesis – ovulation
  3. Oogenesis – ovulation – fertilization – implantation
  4. Implantation – oogenesis – fertilization – ovulation
  5. Oogenesis – ovulation – implantation – fertilization

 

 

  1. Match the responses in list B with the phrases in list A by writing the letter of the correct response.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Knee
  2. Heart
  3. Ligament
  4. Pectoral girdle
  5. Cervical vertebrae
  1. Joins bone and muscles
  2. At the shoulder
  3. Cardiac muscles
  4. Join bone and bone
  5. Hinge joint
  6. At the hip
  7. Smooth muscles
  8. At the neck
  9. Ball and socket joint
  10. At the stomach

 

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. (a) Give the meaning of blood compatibility as well as its application in life.

(b) Mention three (3) areas where diffusion occur in the human body and explain to each how it occurs.

 

  1. (a) Mention any three members of kingdom monera and to each state one disease it cause.

(b) To each disease in 4(a) above state two ways of their prevention.

(c) How does a pea plant and millet plant differ? Three points

 

  1. (a) Which features does the structure for selective reabsorption in human body has that enable it to perform its roles efficiently? Give four points.

(b) “No specialized excretory organs to both plants and animal’s body, no life”. Is this statement true or not? Use four points to support your answer.

(c) Why sometimes a person urinates yellowish urine? Explain.

 

  1. (a) Juma has no knowledge how a woman can produce more than one children who are similar or not similar. Use your knowledge of biology to educate him how such condition can occur.

(b) Give two necessity of menstruation in reproduction

 

  1. Mwamini believes that all scientific special rooms for scientific studies are equiped similary.With four points,help Mwamini showing her the uniqueness of biological special room for scientific studies and state the uses of such uniqueness stated above.

 

  1. Plants are among of biotic components of an ecosystem. Use five points to comment on this statement.

 

  1. (a) How does cow and man differ in nature of their alimentary canal? (Give three points).

(b) Human being cannot survive without photosynthesis. Give two reasons to support this statement.

 

  1. Mention the types of genetic materials and write three their differences.

 

  1. (a) Tatu who is a form one student has given birth to new boy baby due to illegal and unprotected sexual practice and unfortunately she has no knowledge how to feed her baby .Which food do you advice Tatu to feed her baby and how do you think that food is more important to her child. Give four points.

(b) How is sensory neuron adapted to its function (two points).

 

        12. If you put a piece of bread in a wet cupboard after a few days the breast will be  covered with               organism called fungi.

   a) Give the common name of these fungi which grow bread 

 ……………………………………………………………………………………………
 b) Outline the three phyla of the Kingdom fungi
 i. …………………………………………………………………………………………………
 ii. …………………………………………………………………………………………………
 iii. ………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Outline five advantages of Kingdom fungi
i. ………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii. ……………………………………………………………………………………………….
iii. ……………………………………………………………………………………………….
iv. ………………………………………………………………………………………………..
v. ……………………............………………………

 

SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer only two questions from this section, the question number 13 is compulsory.

  1. (a) Draw a well labeled diagram of a light microscope and state the function of the following parts.
  1. Diaphragm    (ii)Mirror  (iii) Eye piece

(iv Body tube          (v) Condenser          

(b) Write five ways of taking care to a microscope.

  1. Majority of people believes that all fungi are harmful organisms. As a biologist, explain five ways in which fungi are beneficial to human being.

 

  1. Discuss on the causes, ways of transmission, symptoms and prevention of gonorrhea.

1 | Page

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 94

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA PRESIDENT’S OFFICE- REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE TERMINAL EXAMINATION

061 COMMERCE

TIME: 3 Hours

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions

2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two (2) questions from section C.

3. Section A carries twenty (20) Marks, section B Fifty (50) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.

4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination

5. Write your Name on every page of your answer booklet(s)

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions from this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (xv) choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter beside the item number on the answer sheet provided

i. Mr. Brian is a trader selling second hand clothes that normally buying them from Dubai and selling them Dar es salaam-Tanzania. Which type of trade Mr. Brian conducting?

  1. Retail trade 
  2. Export trade 
  3. Wholesale trade 
  4. Import trade 
  5. Home trade

ii. Which is the correct reason for the movement along the demand curve?

  1. Change in taste and fashion
  2. Change in people’s level of income
  3. Change in the price of the commodity
  4. Change in the demand of the other goods
  5. Change in the value for money 

iii.Suppose a form one commerce student asked you about the best way of describing the term commerce. Which of the following is the best response that you could give?

  1. Commerce deals with distribution of goods to final users
  2. Commerce deals with exchange of goods and service
  3. commerce deals with exchange and distribution of goods and services
  4. commerce deals with exchange of goods and services within the country
  5. Commerce deals with exchange of goods and services outside the Country 

iv. The following are the roles of entrepreneurship in economic development except:

  1. creation of friendship among the countries 
  2. creation of employment opportunities
  3. improvement on peoples’ living standards
  4. improvement in per capital income
  5. capital formation

v. Which one among the following is the correct classification of warehouses?

  1. Private warehouse, bonded warehouse and wholesalers warehouses
  2. Bonded warehouse, private warehouse and retailers warehouse
  3. Public warehouses, private warehouses and bonded warehouse
  4. Public warehouses, bonded warehouses and producers warehouses
  5. Wholesalers warehouses, retailers warehouses and manufacturers warehouses

vi. If there was a farmer who had wheat and wanted salt he had to find one who had salt and wanted wheat, this is an example of:

  1. Difficult in transporting immobile items.
  2. Invisibility of some items.
  3. Lack of store of value.
  4. Need of double coincidence of wants.
  5. Lack of measure of value.

vii. Which of the following is not a feature of free goods?

  1. They are not scare
  2. They are not produced by human effort
  3. They are not transferable in terms of ownership
  4. They lack exchange value
  5. They are transferable in terms of ownership 

viii. Nearly every journey involves junctions where we can transfer from one form of transport to another, in this case we are referring to:

  1. The way
  2. The unit of carriage
  3. The terminal
  4. The unit of propulsion
  5. None of the above.

ix. Suppose you have bought medicine from India and they are urgently needed to serve the life of patients in Tanzania, which mode of transport would consider being appropriate?

  1. Road transport
  2. Air transport
  3. water transport
  4. Railway transport
  5. Pipeline transport

x. Under which classification the services provided by teachers, lawyers and police to their customers are categories? 

  1. Direct services
  2. Auxiliary services
  3. Personal services
  4. Public services
  5. Indirect services 

xi. The following are the functions of production department in management except

  1. controlling the quality of goods produced in production department
  2. maintaining the quality of machines in the production department
  3. developing and implementing production plans
  4. preparation of budget for activities carried in the department
  5. Recruiting members of staff for production department.

xii. The process of giving a particular name to a product is called

  1. Pre-packaging
  2. Trade naming
  3. Pre-packing
  4. Branding
  5. Retailing

 xiii. A delcredere agent

  1. receives longer credit terms from his principals in consideration of higher trade discount
  2. Obtains higher commission as he guarantees payment for goods sold on behalf of his principals
  3. Handles only imported goods of high standing
  4. Receive longer credit terms from his principals in consideration of lower trade discount
  5. Is given credit from his principals but himself sales only by cash 

xiv. Aids to trade may be defined as the activities aimed at

  1. Assisting the consumers directly
  2. Making the work of those involved in manufacturing of essential goods easy
  3. Helping producers directly
  4. Bridging the gap between the producer and a consumer
  5. Helping retailers directly 

xv.Why does elimination of the wholesaler from the channel of distribution not affect the flow of goods from the manufacturer to the final consumer?

  1. The wholesaler has very small amount of capital.
  2. The wholesaler performs the only selling function.
  3. All goods involved in the channel of distribution are branded.
  4. In regardless of the financial position, manufacturer can sell direct to final users.
  5. The wholesaler’s functions can be performed by other agents.

2. Match the item in LIST A with the response in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the number in the table provided below

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Account holder required to deposit specific initial amount as well as maintain balance

(ii) Account holder may deposit and withdraw money whenever they want without maintain minimum balance

(iii) Banks pays interest on deposit at comparatively higher rates 

(iv) Money may be deposited at time and interest is earned if specific balance is maintained

(v) Account holder can withdraw money from his account more than his outstanding balance

  1. Standing order
  2. Bank rate
  3. Legal tender
  4. Fixed deposit
  5. Bank over draft
  6. Bank charges
  7. Saving account
  8. Cheque
  9. Current account
  10. Personal account

 SECTION B (50 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Martine is a bookseller in Dodoma, and he wants to choose the best communication media that will help him to reach his customers countrywide easily. He approached you as a business communication expert to advise him

(a)What suitable communication media should he use?

(b)What factors have been considered in selecting the medium in (a) above? Six factors

4. Being employed in an organization will not make a person rich, but being a boss for you is a source of richness to many entrepreneurs. Briefly explain three benefits and two demerits of self-employment to the people of Tanzania.

5. Mundemu secondary school after the loss of sacks of corn, A food Teacher Madame Isuchaa insists on establishing a large building which will be used for the storage of maize, rice and oils for future use and that building will help the school for the protection like bad weather and theft. What factors do you think will be considered for the establishment of that building?

6. Given the diagram below.

a) Name and explain the diagram above.

b) Explain six (6) reasons that might be reasons for the shift from either 0QE to 0Q1 or 0QE to 0Q2.

7. Mwambola is a trader who exports fresh fish and flowers from Tanzania to Japan and he did not know the best means of transport to be used. As a commercial student:

a) Identify and suggest the suitable means of transport to be used.

b) Describe two (2) advantages and two (2) disadvantages of the means transport chosen in (a) above.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer only two questions in this section

8. Sunflower Oil industry at Singida uses wholesalers in distributing its products all over Tanzania. With some reasons, the wholesalers have decided to step down. Explain how the Industry is negatively being affected by stepping down of the wholesalers. Give six points.

9. Money to be called money should have traits. Examine six things which make money to be money.

10. Advertising is considered as an aid to trade because of the role it play in spreading information about goods and services and creating inclination in the mind of the consumers. Without effective advertising it would be very difficult, if not impossible, for any large scale organization to stay in business. Advice to large scale organization six factors that should be considered when choosing advertising media


LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 93

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE BASIC MATHEMATICS TERMINAL EXAMINATION

Time: 3:00 Hours Year: 2022

Instructions

l . This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.

2. Answer all questions.

3. Each question in section A carries six (6) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.

4. All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly.

5. NECTA mathematical tables and non-programmable calculators may be used.

6. All communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

SECTION A

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

1. (a) Write as a mixed fraction

(b)If and find x + y to 3-significant figure

2. (a)Find

(b) A farmer sold a quarter of his maize harvest and gave one third of the remaining to his relatives.

If the farmer remained with 25 bags. If maize, how many bags of maize did the farmer harvest?

3. (a)Factorize (i)

(ii)

(b)Simplify

(c)Solve for x:

4. (a)Solve for x: (i)

(ii)

(b)If log3 = 0.4771 and log2 = 0.3010

Find:

(i)

(ii) Without using tables.

5. Solve the following simultaneous equations

6. Given the universal

Set and

  1. Represent the above information in a Venn-diagram and use it to find elements of

  1. Show that

7. (a)Marium served Tshs 6 million in a serving account Bank where interest rate was 10% compounded annually. Find the amount in mariam’s account after 5years.

(b)In how many years would one’s investment double if 100,000/= is invested at 10% compounded semi-annually?

8. (a) Factorize:

(b) Given that

AB=EC

  1. Show that EA=ED
  2. Prove that

and state the postulate out of (SSS, AAS, SAS, RHS)

9. (a)The ratio of the areas of two similar polygons is 144:225. If the length of a side of the smaller polygon is 60cm, find the length of the larger polygon

(b)

Given that

  • DC//AB
  • AOB is diameter

Find an expression in terms of x

10. In a series between the integers 3 and 102. Find the sum of

  1. Even numbers (ii) Odd numbers

(b) A bacteria produces 10 bacteria after every minute and each of the 10 bacteria produces, 10 bacteria after every minute and so

  1. Form a sequence of number of bacteria produced after 1,2,3 and 4 minutes
  2. If the frequency is to form a series, what is the name of the series?
  3. Find the sum of bacteria produced after one hour.

SECTION B (Answer All Questions)

11. The table below represents the scores in general cleanliness of 30 students

SCORE x

FREQ f

fx

1

M

2

2m

3

10

4

8

5

3

?f

?fx

  1. Find the value of m
  2. Complete the table and find ?f, ?fx
  3. Find the mean (average) score
  4. Find the mode
  5. Construct an ogive and use it to estivate the median

12. Given the function f(x) = x2-8x + 12

  1. Find the x and y-intercepts
  2. Using (a) determine the axis of symmetry of f(x)
  3. Using (b) determine the coordinates of the minimum point
  4. Using (a) (b) and (c) sketch the graph of f(x)
  5. From the graph find
  1. Domain (ii)Range
  1. Construct a suitable line and sketch it on the same axes to find solution of the equation; x2 -10x + 16=0

13. (a)An aero plane fires from Tabora (5°S, 33°E) to Tanga (5°S, 39°E) at 332 km/her. Along parallel latitudes. If it leaves Tabora at 3 p.m., find the time of arrival at Tanga air-port

(b)Another plane flying at 595 km/hr leaves Dsm (7°S,39°E) at 8:00a.m it Addis Ababa (9°N, 39°E) (parallel longitude)

(Radius of the earth R 6370km)

14. (a) The volume V of a given mass of gas varies directly as the absolute temperature T and inversely as the pressure P

If V=450 and T= 288 when P=825, find V when T=320 and P = 720

(b) In the figure below, BD is a tangent to the circle having the centre O .

Given that angle OEC = 28°, find the values of angles marked X , Y and Z .

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 92

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE TERMINAL EXAMINATION JULY, 2022

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

 NAME___________________________________­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­________________________

TIME: 3 HRS

 INSTRUCTIONS

  • This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of 12 questions 
  • Answer all questions in section A and B
  • Answer three (3) questions from section C
  • Adhere to every instruction instructed under each section 

FOR EXAMINER’S USE

Qn. No.

image

MARKS

1

 

 

2

 

 

3

 

 

4

 

 

5

 

 

6

 

 

7

 

 

8

 

 

9

 

 

10

 

 

11

 

 

12

 

 

 TOTAL

 

 

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

1. Choose the correct answer from the items given in (i-x) below and write the letter in the table.

(i) Which of the following sentences express simple past tense

  1. I have never read such an interesting piece of novel
  2. I had been going to the market throughout last week
  3. James was buying a new pen 
  4. Our white cat killed a rat last night 

(ii) The weather today is cold; everyone walking outside ________ clothes own.

  1. Is seen with 
  2. Has heavy 
  3. Have heavy
  4. Used to have 

(iii) I am going to the party tonight 

  1. Is I?
  2. Did I?
  3. Aren’t I?
  4. Not foolish

 (iv) Neither the boy nor the girl was present. This implies that 

  1. The two were absent 
  2. The boy was present but the girl was absent
  3. The girl was present but the girl was absent
  4. The two were present 

 (v) Unless you work hard, you will _______

  1. Not fail in your examination
  2. Pass by your examination 
  3. Pass your examination
  4. Fail in your examination

 (vi) Hardly had Winfrida opened the door when the visitors arrived means

  1. The visitors arrived before the door was opened 
  2. The door was opened then the visitors arrived 
  3. The door was long open even before arrival of the visitors 
  4. Immediately the door was opened, the visitors arrived 

 (vii) Moses owns a house. The correct possessive noun is _____

  1. Moses’
  2. Mose’s
  3. Moseses’
  4. Mosesess’

 (viii) The two are _____ in love

  1. Truthfully 
  2. Truely
  3. Truly
  4. Trully 

 (ix) The superlative form of the word “cold” is ________

  1. Coldest  
  2. Coolest  
  3. Cooler 
  4. Colder 

 (x) The ____ you walk the more you get tired 

  1. Father
  2. Furthest 
  3. Fartherer
  4. Farther 

i

ii

iii

iv

v

vi

vii

viii

ix

x

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 2. Match the items in List A with words in List B to make a meaningful complement.

LIST A LIST B
  1. Agnes kept looking at the boy ………..
  2. They tried harder and harder …………
  3. She did not go school ……………….
  4. I cannot write to you ……………..
  5. The more you study hard……………………
  1. The more intelligent you become 
  2. Even though her relatives were financially well off 
  3. The more people will hate you 
  4. Because he appeared attractive 
  5. And they failed to love each other `
  6. Even if I have time for it 
  7. But achieved nothing 
  8. And achieved a lot


LIST A

i

ii

iii

iv

v

LIST B

 

 

 

 

 

 

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Rewrite the following sentences according to the Instructions given after each.

  1. My room is full, but I can still host some of you (Rewrite using although…..)
  2. Nobody is listening to your speech (Change into plural form……………..)
  3. I took my breakfast in the morning (Re write into past participle tense)
  4. We had not woken up when the guests arrived (Begin; hardly)

4. Pick the wrongly spelt word and rewrite it correctly in the spaces provided 

  1. Their actions were contrary to the layed down rules _____
  2. I hope to make up for my passed mistakes _____
  3. Please do not comfront an angry lion ______
  4. My birthday party is scheduled for tommorrow ______ 


5. Use the correct prepositions to fill in the blanks in the sentences below

  1. We are required to open school  ____ September
  2. They have been here ____ three hours
  3. The meeting will be held ____ Monday next week 
  4. It has been raining ____ yesterday 

6. Re arrange the following sentence in their logical order 

  1. Rush out to the bus stop
  2. The newspaper vendor thrust copies of the evening paper at them
  3. Every evening when the workers 
  4. “Daily news, Mwanachi and Tanzania Daima among others”

7. Identify components of Curriculum Vitae

  1.   . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 
  2.   . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 
  3.   . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  4.  . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

8. Identify the meaning/s of idioms given below

  1. To let the cat out of the bag
  2. To kick the bucket
  3. Beat around the bush 
  4. Raining cats and dogs 

SECTION C

Answer only three questions in this section

9. Write a short composition about EAST AFRICAN COMMUNITY

 LIST OF READING

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES
A Wreath for Fr. Mayer S. N. Ndunguru (1977), Mkuki na Nyota
Unanswered Cries Osman Conteh, Macmillan
Passed Like a Shadow B. M Mapalala (2006), DUP
Spared S. N. Ndunguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota
Weep Not Child Ngugi wa Thiong'o (1987); Heinemann
The Interview P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan
PLAYS
Three Suitors: One Husband O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen
The Lion and the Jewel W. Soyinka (1963), OUP
This Time Tomorrow  Ngugi wa Thiong'o (1972), Heinemann 
The Black Hermit Ngugi wa Thiong'o (1968) Heinemann
POETRY
Songs of Lawino and Ocol O. P'Bitek (1979), EAPH
Growing up with Poetry  D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989), Heinemann 
Summons R. Mabala (1960), TPH

10. Read the following poem and then answer the questions that follow:

YOUR PAIN BY ARMANDO GUEBUZA (MOZAMBIQUE)

Your pain

Yet more my pain

Shall suffocate oppression

 

 Your eye

Yet more my eyes

Shall be speaking of revolt


Your scars

Yet more my scars

Will be remembering the whip

 

Your hands

Yet more my hands

Will be lifted fully armed


My strength 

Yet more my strength

Shall overcome imperialism

 

 My blood

Yet more your blood

Shall irrigate our victory

Questions

  1. Who is the persona in this poem?
  2. What is the poem about?
  3. Identify the figure of speech used in the poem.
  4. Identify the themes in the poem. 
  5. Is the persona happy or sad? Explain 
  6. How is this poem relevant to our society?

11. With the aid of two novels, show the relevance of their content to our society.

12. Discuss the causes of conflicts in our society with reference to two plays you have attempted under this program 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 91

JAMHURI YA MUUNGANO WA TANZANIA

OFISI YA RAIS, TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

KISWAHILI KIDATO CHA TATU

MUDA: SAA 3:00        MAY  2022

 

MAELEKEZO

  1.                Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B, na C, zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na mbili (12)
  2.                Jibu maswali yote kama ilivyoelekezwa katika kila sehemu. A na B maswali matatu kutoka sehemu C
  3.                Sehemu A ina alama kumi natano (15), sehemu B alama arobaini (40) na sehemu C ina alama arobaini na tano (45)
  4.                Zingatia mwandiko mzuri, Mpangilio na usahihi wa majibu yako.
  5.                Majibu yote yaandikwe kwenye karatasi za kujibia.

 

 

SEHEMU A

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii

  1.                Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika kipengtele cha (i) hadi (x) kisha andika herufi ya jibu sahihi katika karatasi ya kujibia
  1. Lugha huweza kuchukua maneno kutoka katika lugha za asili, baini maneno hayo katika orodha ifuatayo;
  1.              Bendera na meza
  2.               Bunge na shule
  3.               Hela na mtutu
  4.              Godoro na sharubati
  5.               Kitivo na ngeli
  1. Ipi ni aina ya tungo ambayo muudo wake una kitenzi ndani yake? Kitenzi hiko huweza kutoa taarifa kamili au isiyo kamili.
  1.              Kishazi
  2.               Kirai
  3.               Shamirisho
  4.              Yambwa
  5.               Sentensi
  1. Katika neon wanaimba, kuna viambishi vingapi?
  1.              4
  2.               8
  3.               3
  4.              5
  5.               6
  1. Ni mchakato wa uundaji wa maneno kwa kupachika viambishi kabla na baada ya mzizi wa neno.
  1.              Utohoaji
  2.               Uambishaji
  3.               Mnyambuliko
  4.              Uambatishaji
  5.               Urudufishaji
  1. Kitomeo huweza kuwa na taarifa kadha wa kadha. Je ipi kati ya zifuatazo si taarifa sahihi inayopatikana katika kitomeo?
  1.              Wingi wa neon
  2.               Aina ya neno
  3.               Mfano wa matumizi
  4.              Asili ya neno
  5.               Mnyumbuliko wa maneno
  1. Katika maneno choka na chako ni mbinu gani imetumika katika kuunda maneni hayo?
  1.              Uradidi
  2.               Uambishaji
  3.               Uhulutishaji
  4.              Mpangilio tofauti wa vitamkwa
  5.               unyumbulishaji
  1. Vipashio vya lugha hupangwa kidarajia kuanzia kidogo kwenda kikubwa katika mpangilio huo ni kipashio kipi kikubwa cha lugha?
  1.              Kirai
  2.               Neno
  3.               Sentensi
  4.              Kishazi
  5.               Sauti
  1. Kutokana na kigezo cha tabia muhusika JOTI ni aina gani ya mhusika?
  1.              Mhusika shida
  2.               Mhusika bapa
  3.               Mhusika foili
  4.              Mhusika mkuu
  5.               Mhusika duara
  1. Waingereza wanakumbukwa kwa mchango wao mkubwa kwa kufanya jambo moja la pekee tofauti na Waarabu na Waingereza katika kukuza na kueneza lugha ya Kiswahili enzi za utawala wao, jambo gani hilo.
  1.              Kutoa elimu kwa lugha ya Kiswahili
  2.               Kusafirisha manamba kutoka sehemu mbalimbali na kuwa fundisha Kiswahili
  3.               Kuteua lahaja ya kiunguja na kuisanifisha
  4.              kuhimizA matumizi ya lugha ya Kiswahili katika ofisi zao
  5.               kuchapisha kamusi mbalimbali za lugha ya kiswahili
  1. Ipi ni maana ya nahau “Uso mkavu”
  1.              Uso usio na mafuta
  2.               Uso usio na nuru
  3.               Uso usio na haya
  4.              Uso usio na shukurani
  5.               Uso wenye mabaka mabaka
  1.                Oanisha maana ya dhana zilizo katika ORODHA A kwa kuchangua herufi ya dhana husika katika ORODHA B

ORODHA A

ORODHA B

  1.                  Ngeli
  2.                Sentensi
  3.             Nomino za pekee
  4.              Neno lenye mofimu nne
  5.                Kiambishi cha nafsi ya pili wingi
  1.              Pangani, Asha, Usingizi na John
  2.               Anayesinzia ni mvivu
  3.               Chaki
  4.              PAMUKU
  5.               Wanaimba
  6.                Mnaimba
  7.              Mtoto
  8.              Chai
  9.                 Kariakoo, Tanga, Iringa na Ali
  10.                 Wewe ni mvivu

 

SEHEMU B (Alama 40)

Jibu maswali yote ya sehemu hii kwa kuzingatia maelekezo ya kila swali.

 

  1.                Taja mambo manne (4) yakuzingatia katika uandishi wa kumbukumbu za mikutano
  2.                Badili vishazi tegemezi vifuatavyo kuwa vishazi huru
  1.                  Mtoto aliyelia jana usiku
  2.                Kazi zinazofanywa
  3.             Jambo litakalomsumbua
  4.              Kitabu kinachosomwa
  1.                Kwa mwanafunzi anayeijua vizuri sarufi ya lugha ya Kiswahili ni rahisi kutambua makossa yanayotokea katika lugha. Kwa hoja nne (4) na mifano fafanua makossa ya kisarifi yanayojitokeza katika utumiaji wa lugha kwa mwanafunzi wa kitanzania.
  2.                Ainisha sentensi zifuatazo, kisha toa sababu moja (1) yaa uainishaji huo kwa kila sentensi.
  1.                  Mkate uliotupatia umeharibika
  2.                Sanga alikuwa amelala
  3.             Aliadhibiwa kwa kuwa alifanya makossa
  4.              Mwalimu akirudi tutaendelea na somo
  1.                “Licha ya lugha ya Kiswahili kuteuliwa kuwa lugha ya Taifa la Tanzania, bado inakabiliwa na changamoto mbalimbali kwa sasa” Onesha ukweli wa kauli hiyo kwa hoja nne (4)
  2.                Vifuatavyo ni vipera vya tanzu za fasi simulizi. Onesha tofauti iliyopo baina ya jozi za vipera hivyo
  1.                  Visakale na visasili
  2.                Ngonjera na majingambo
  3.             Mizungu na misemo
  4.              Wimbo na utenzi

 

SEHEMU C (Alama 45)

Jibu maswali matatu (3) kutoka sehemu hii

 

  1.                Anna ni mwanafunzi wa kidato cha tatu katika shule ya sekondari Kibo. Alikutwa na simu licha ya katazo la serekali na shule kuwa hairuhusiwi mwanafunzi kumiliki simu akiwa shuleni. Baada ya kukutwa na simu hiyo alihojiwa na mwalimu wa nidhamu. Kwa kutumia ukurasa mmoja na nusu (11/2) andika namna mazungumzo yao yalivyokuwa. 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 90

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMANT

FORM THREE TERMINAL EXAMINATION, JULY 2022

LITERATURE IN ENGLISH

TIME: 3 HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and three (3) questions from section C
  3. Section A carry 15 marks, B carry 40 marks and section C carry 45 marks
  4. Make sure your work is smart and attractive

FOR EXAMINER’S USE

QUESTION

SCORE

EXAMINER’S INITIAL

1.



2.



3.



4.



5.



6.



7.



8.



9.



10.



TOTAL



SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. Choose the correct answer among the given alternatives from item numbers (i) – (x) and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided

(i) Is referred to a short period of time whereby conflict rises to a point for which resolution is required

  1. Climax
  2. Literature
  3. Crisis
  4. Anticlimax
  5. Internal conflict

(ii) It is true to say that Literature and language are inseparable because

  1. Language acts as a medium through which literature is expressed
  2. Language expresses literary emotions and feelings
  3. Literature expresses social evils which are great vices to the development of society
  4. Literature is mainly concerned with reducing offensive languages in the work of art
  5. Literature and language express social realities

(iii) One of the following is an example of oral literature

  1. Poetry
  2. Biography
  3. Novella
  4. Encyclopedia
  5. Folklore

(iv) Riddles is described as Is a puzzle whose meaning is hidden

  1. A figure of speech with similar sound pattern
  2. A group of words with literal meanings
  3. An ancient story portraying morals
  4. A puzzle whose meaning is hidden
  5. One of the genres of literature

(v) When the author uses flashback in writing, it means

  1. He/she wants to stress on a point by bringing in the past into the present for clarifications
  2. He/she wants to make the work of art more appealing to the audience
  3. He/she wants to reduce any tension that might occur between the audience
  4. He/she is exploring many options of being understood
  5. He/she wants to be funny and reduce boredom for readers

(vi) The poetic phrase “With bare breast bouncing” can be used in Literature as a term for

  1. Assonance
  2. Proverbs
  3. Alliteration
  4. Simile
  5. Imagery

(vii) Identify genres of literature from the given groups

  1. Novella, biography and eulogy
  2. Short story, novel and play
  3. Fiction, novel and play
  4. Novel, poetry and play

(viii) Partricia is reading a work of literature and becomes emotional when he becomes endangered and eventually dies in the course of action. What type of drama could this be?

  1. Comedy drama
  2. Tragedy drama
  3. Melo drama
  4. Tragic comedy
  5. Historical drama

(ix) A persona in the work of literature is referred to as

  1. Someone who composes poetry
  2. Someone whose emotions and feelings are directly expressed in poetry
  3. Someone who narrates the work of literature before the audience
  4. Someone who has a contradicting view to the author
  5. Someone who emerges as a hero in the work of literature

(x) Mr. Fred has opted to break grammatical rules when writing poetry. How is this practice referred to as?

  1. Language use
  2. Poetic diction
  3. Characteristics of poetry
  4. Tradition poetry
  5. Poetic license

i

ii

iii

iv

v

vi

vii

viii

ix

x











2. Match the items in List A with correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response in the answer sheet provided

List A

List B

(i) Dialogue

(ii) Monologue

(iii) Stage direction

(iv) Rhetoric question

(v) Point of view

  1. The author’s way of telling the story
  2. More than two people talking in a conversation
  3. Questions whose answers are obvious
  4. A conversation between two persons especially in a play
  5. Instructions that players take from other players while on stage
  6. Questions that do not need answers
  7. A situation whereby a character speaks to him/herself on stage
  8. Two people having a conversation in a work of literature
  9. A story told from one point to the other point
  10. Are instructions which shows actors state of action (often in italics)


i

ii

iii

iv

v






SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Provide short answers for the following literary terminologies

  1. Literature reflects social realities
  2. Figures of speech are powerful tools in literature
  3. Content is a what readers get from the work of literature
  4. Characters are representatives of people in literature
  5. Novel is a fictitious literary narrative

4. Compare and contrast the following literary terms

  1. Message and relevance
  2. Characterization and personification
  3. Play and novel
  4. Stanza and verse
  5. Poet and poetess

5. With examples, write brief notes on the following literary terms

  • Onomatopoeia
  • Theme
  • Form
  • Content
  • Written Literature

6. Suppose a form one student finds you reading the work of literature and asks you what it is all about, identify five points that you will use in order to make him/her understand the term literature

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three questions in this section. Question number “7 and “8” are compulsory.

LIST OF READINGS

PLAY

The Lion and the Jewel – Wole soyinka

The Trials of Brother Jero – Wole soyinka

The Dilemma of a Ghost –Aidoo , A.A

The Government Inspector – Gogol,N

NOVELS

A walk in the Night and Other Stories- Guma A

House Boy- Oyono, F

The Old man and the Medal- Ferdinand Oyono

The Concubine- Amadi, E

POETRY

Selected poems-Tanzania institute of education

Growing up with poetry- David Rubadiri

7. Poetry is characterized with its excessive use of figures of speech. With the aid of two poems read under this section, verify this statement.

8. Provide the relevance of any of the two novels you have read under this program to the society of Tanzania.

9. Explain the view of marriage as a norm in most of the societies in Tanzania. Use two plays for your answer.

10. Discuss the causes of conflicts among most members of the society with the aid of two plays you have attempted under this program.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE LITERATURE EXAM SERIES 89

OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND VOCATIONAL TRAINING

CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION

TERMINAL EXAMINATIONS- MAY 2022

FORM THREE BASIC MATHEMATICS

(For Both School and Private Candidates)

Time: 3 Hours Year: 2022

Instructions

l . This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.

2. Answer all questions.

3. Each question in section A carries six (6) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.

4. All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly.

5. NECTA mathematical tables and non-programmable calculators may be used.

6. All communication devices and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.

7. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

 

1.(a)If a*b=b (a2 – 2b) Find (i) 3*2 (ii) n if 4*n=0

(b)Given 

2.A and B are two sets such that

  1.                 
  2.                In a class of 30 students 17 participate in English debate, 12 participate in English debate and sports. If every student is required to participate in at least one of the two subjects. Find the number of students who participate in

(i) English debate only    (ii) Sports only

3.(a)If 

(b)Express as single logarithm the expression 

4.Rewrite without absolute value  and sketch a graph of the resulting inequality 

5.(a)The second term of an A.P is 2 and the sixth term is 14. Find 

  1. The first term
  2. The common difference

(b)A function is defined by . Find 

(i) The inverse  of this function  (ii)

6.Given that  find value of 

  1. Cos A

7.Fine the remainder when  is divided by x + 1 and hence solve the equation 

8.If  evaluate

  1.                 Correct to 3 decimal places
  2.                Simplify
  3.                 Given  and  find

9.

  1.                 Given that = find value of
  2.                Make q the subject of the equation
  3.                 Solve the equation  by factorization

10. A line passes through point A (3,5) and B (8, K) has a slope of -2. Find the;

  1.                 Value of K
  2.                The equations of line

 

SECTION B

11.(a)Mpira club has the following number of goals scored against them, 0,1,0,2,9,0,1,2,1, what is the mean number of goals scored against them?

(b)The table below shows the masses of 100 students to the nearest kg

Mass kg

60-62

63-65

66-68

69-71

72-74

Frequency

5

18

42

27

8

  1. Determine the mean of the masses
  2. Calculate the mode
  3. Draw a cumulative frequency (give) curve and use it to determine the median of the masses

 

12.(a)(i) Find the distance between Mbeya (9°S.33°E) and Tabora (5°S,33°E) in km

(b)An airplane takes off from Tabora (5°S,33°E) to Tanga (5°S,39°E) at a speed of 332 kmh-1 if it leaves Tabora at 3:00pm, at what time will it arrive at Tanga airport?

13.Musa started business on 1st June, 1999 with Tshs 6000/= as capital

June 01 Bought goods cash    3000/=

June 02 Paid office cleaners    20/=

June 03 Sold all goods for cash   3400/=

June 05 Purchased goods for cash  2000/=

June 08 Paid carriage on goods sold  40/=

June 10 sold goods for cash    3000/=

June 15 paid wages     100/=

  1.                 Enter these transactions in cash book
  2.                Bring down the balance at the end of June

 

14. A house and flag post are on the ground. From an open window in a house 6m, above the ground, Abdulrazaq finds that the angle of elevation of the top of the flag post is 35° and the angle of depression of the bottom of the flag post is 20°.

 

15.(a) Draw the graph of  taking the value of x in the interval 

(b)State the running point of the graph and state whether it is a maximum or a minimum.

(c)Solve the equation 

(d)Use a suitable straight line, solve the equation 

 

16. (a). Box A contains 8 items of which 3 are defective and box B contains 5 items of which 2 are defective. An item is drawn at randomly from each box. What is the probability that? 

  1. Both items are non-defective?
  2. One item is defective and one item is not defective

(b)The radii of trastrom of a right cicular cone are 10cm and 7cm. If the height of this trastrom is 6cm. What will be the height of the original cone?

(c)If 

  1. Find an expression for
  2. Find the simplified algebraic expression for f(x-1)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 88

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

PHYSICS TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2022

INSTRUCTIONS

  1.   This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11)  questions.
  2.    Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions  from section C.
  3.    Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in  the examination room.
  4.    Non-programmable calculators may be used.
  5.    Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer  booklet(s).
  6.   Where necessary the following constants may be used:
  1.                       Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s 2
  2.                      Density of water = I .0 g/cm 3 
  3.                      Pie= 3.14.
  4.                       Coefficient of linear expansivity of the brick 1.2 x 10 -5 K -1
  5.                       Speed of light in air = 3 x 108 m/s. 
  6.                      Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

  1.              Measurement of mass by using equal ­arm beam balance uses the principle of
  1.             conservation of momentum.
  2.             conservation of energy
  3.             moments
  4.             gravitational pull of the earth
  5.              conservation of matter.
  1.           The principle of fluid pressure which is used in hydraulic brakes, is the
  1.             pressure is the same at all levels in a fluid B
  2.             increases of pressure are transmitted equally to all parts of a fluid
  3.              the pressure at a point in fluid is due to the weight of the fluid above it
  4.             increases of pressure can only be transmitted through fluids
  5.               the pressure at a given depth is proportional to the depth in the fluid.
  1.         The surface tension of a fluid is due to
  1.             molecules on its surface
  2.             a semi­permeable membrane which covers it
  3.             the Brownian motion of surface molecules
  4.             the cohesive force between its surface molecules
  5.              the adhesive force between molecules of different materials
  1.         Given cubical expansivities of mercury and glass are 1.8 x 10 ­4 /K and 1.0 x 10 ­5 /K respectively? a glass vessel of capacity 100ml holding mercury to the brim, heated through 100°C will expel mercury of the following volume.
  1.             18ml
  2.              28ml
  3.             10ml
  4.              8ml
  5.              17ml.
  1.            A rod of insulating material is charged positively by rubbing against a piece of fabric and the latter is tested for electric charge. The fabric will be expected to have a
  1.             positive charge equal to that on the rod
  2.             positive charge less than that on the rod
  3.              negative charge equal to that on the rod
  4.             negative charge greater than that on the rod
  5.              negative charge less than that on the rod.
  1.         A gearwheel X is used to turn another gearwheel Y. X has 15 teeth and Y has 5 teeth. When Y makes 6 revolutions X has made
  1.             A 6 revolutions
  2.              2 revolutions
  3.             3 revolutions
  4.             5 revolutions
  5.               18 revolutions.
  1.       A material which allows some light to pass through it but one cannot see through it is said to be
  1.             transparent
  2.             translucent
  3.              luminous
  4.             opaque
  5.              colorless.
  1.    The positive pole of a dry cell is made of
  1.             carbon rod
  2.             zinc can
  3.             ammonium chloride
  4.              copper rod
  5.               manganese dioxide.
  1.         Each scientific instrument is limited in accuracy. What is the shortest length that can be accurately recorded or measured by a metre rule?
  1.             0.02 mm
  2.             0.2 mm
  3.              0.2 cm
  4.              0.02 cm
  5.               0.2 m.
  1.            A body weighs 10 N in air and 8 N when completely immersed in water. Neglecting upthrust in air, its weight in a liquid of density 1.5 g/cm 3 will be;
  1.             3 N
  2.              18 N
  3.             10 N
  4.             2 N
  5.              7 N
  1.         When a person perspires on a hot day
  1.             A evaporation occurs and helps to cool the body
  2.             heat is conducted away from the body
  3.             latent heat keeps the body warm
  4.              the body is insulated from the warm air
  5.              condensation occurs and helps to cool the body.

 

2. Match the items in list A with the responses in list B by writing the letter of the correct response

beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

  1.              Linear expansitivity
  2.           Critical angle
  3.         Lunar eclipse
  4.         Light velocity is greater than sound velocity
  5.            iris
  1.             Angle of incidence in denser medium which produces the angle of refraction equal to 90°
  2.             Earth is between the sun and moon
  3.              Moon is between the sun and earth
  4.             Extrinsic semiconductor
  5.              The fractional increase in area of a solid per degree Celsius
  6.               The lightning is normally observed after the thunder is heard
  7.             The ratio of effort to load
  8.             The lightning is normally observed before the thunder is heard
  9.                 Used in forming thick and real images

 

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) (i) Explain the pressure of a gas in terms of the kinetic theory of gases. (2 marks)

(ii) How is diffusion explained by the kinetic theory of gases? (2 marks)

(b) (i) State Charles’s Law. (1 mark)

(ii) Sketch the graph of volume against temperature for a perfect gas.(2 marks)

(c) (i) What is the absolute zero of temperature?(1 mark)

(ii) 150 cm 3 of dry gas at 30°C was heated until its volume became 450 cm 3 . What was the final temperature?

 

4. (a ) (i) Name, draw and mention one use of the three different types of diverging lenses?

(b) Where should an object be placed such that its image as formed by a converging lens will be

(i) at infinity (ii) of the same size (iii) erect?

(c) A nail 6.0 cm long is placed 15 cm away from a convex lens of focal length 10.0 cm. The nail

is stuck perpendicular to the optical axis of the lens. Determine the positions and height of the nail

 

5. (a ) Explain the terms potential energy and kinetic energy giving one example of each.

(b) A pendulum bob of mass 50g is pulled aside to a vertical height 20 cm from the horizontal and then

released. Find

(i) the maximum potential energy of the bob

(ii) the maximum speed of the bob

(c) (i) Suppose the length of the thread of the pendulum in discussion was 1.0 m, what could its periodic time of oscillation be?

(ii) State the principle applied by the pendulum experiment.

 

6.(a) A cricket ball of mass 180g bowled with a velocity of 20m/s is hit back towards the bowler at a velocity of 15m/s. The impact lasts for 0.4s. Calculate

  1.              The impulse,
  2.           Force applied on the ball

 

(b). A car of mass 1000kg travelling at 36km/h is brought to rest by applying brakes. Calculate the distance travelled by the car before coming to rest, if the frictional force between the wheels and the road is 2 000N

(c) An effort of 250N raises a load of 900N through a distance of 5m. If the effort moves through 25m, calculate 

  1.              The work done in raising the load,
  2.           The work done by the effort,
  3.         The efficiency of the machine.

7. Give scientific reasons for the following statements

  1. If a mercury thermometer with a ‘thick’ glass bulb is dipped into hot water, the mercury level first drops slightly and then rises quickly in the bore.
  2. Steel bridges are usually supported by rollers
  3. The telephone cables “sag” in warm weather and tighten in cold weather
  4. The mouth of a glass bottle is gently heated when the glass stopper is rigidly stuck to the mouth so as to remove it.
  5. A sealed plastic bottle filled with water to the brim breaks after some time if it is placed in the freezing compartment of a refrigerator.

8. Explain the following statements

  1. Electric kettles and geysers have the heating coils at the bottom
  2. In a room, the windows are at a lower level and the ventilators at a higher level
  3. During the day cold air flows from the sea to land
  4. The bottom of cooking vessels are usually blackened
  5. A metal knob of a wooden door fees much colder than the door
  6. Electric metal kettles are fitted with wooden or plastic handles
  7. People wear woollen garments in cold weather to keep their bodies warm.

 

9. (a) The extension produced in a spiral spring is 6cm when a mass of 300g is attached to it. Calculate the spring constant of the spring 

(b) When a body of mass 400g is completely immersed in a liquid, the upthrust on the body is 1.4N. Find the weight of the body in the liquid.

SECTION C (10 Marks)

Answer one (1) question from this section.

10. (a) State Pascal’s principle of transmission of pressure. (01)

(b) A piston of small cross section area of 30.0 cm 2 is used in hydraulic press to exert a force

of 300.0N on the enclosed liquid. A connecting pipe leads to a large piston of cross

section area 600.0 cm 2 . Find

(i) the force sustained by the larger piston (03)

(ii) the force applied on the smaller piston to support 2.0 tonnes on the larger piston.

(03)

(iii) the mechanical advantage (MA) of the pistons of the press. (02)

 

11. (a) What is meant by magnetic materials? Give two examples.

(b) State the law of magnets.

(c) Explain with an illustration how one can locate the position of a north-pole of a bar magnet.

(d) Explain with an illustration how to magnetize a steel bar using an electric current.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 87

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

GEOGRAPHY TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2022

INSTRUCTIONS

  1.    This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
  2.    Answer all questions in sections A and B and any two (2) questions from section C.
  3.    Map extract of Mkomazi (Sheet 109/1) is provided.
  4.    Programmable calculators, cellular phones and unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.   Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)If Ronaldo scores a goal for his team playing in Colombo (80°E) at 4:00pm local time, what will be the best time at Mtwara (45°E) Tanzania?

  1.   1:40pm
  2.   1:40am
  3.   1:20pm
  4.   1:20am
  5.   6:20am

(ii)The intensity of an earthquake is measured by an instrument called 

  1.   Epicenter
  2.   Chronometer
  3.   Seismography
  4.   Ritcher scale
  5.   Hygrometer

(iii)Michewen at sea level has a temperature of 32°C. What is the temperature at Karatu 1500m above sea level?

  1.   19°C
  2.   9°C
  3.   0.6°C
  4.   17°C
  5.   23°C

(iv)Which of the following feature is formed by wind erosion?

  1.   Delta
  2.   Lagoon
  3.   Rock Pedestal
  4.   Barchan
  5.   Seif dune

(v)Which of the following has a limestone surface feature?

  1.   Stalagmite
  2.   Underground stream
  3.   Tombolo
  4.   Polje
  5.   Loess

(vi)The sun is overhead at the equator every year on 

  1.   21st June
  2.   21st March
  3.   24th March
  4.   22nd December
  5.   25th December

(vii)A type of river erosion which increases the length of the river channel is called.

  1.   Headward erosion
  2.   Vertical erosion
  3.   Lateral erosion
  4.   Sheet erosion
  5.   Deep erosion

(viii)Most building materials in Tanzania originated in which type of rock?

  1.   Metamorphic rock
  2.   Sedimentary rock
  3.   Igneous rock
  4.   Plutonic rock
  5.   Conglomerates rock

(ix)Exfoliation is the type of weathering which mostly occurs:

  1.   At higher altitudes
  2.   In chalk and limestone area
  3.   In arid and semi-arid areas
  4.   In humid climates
  5.   In arid and equatorial regions

(x)Why do two different countries located in different latitudes or hemispheres experience a similar type of natural vegetation? It is because of 

  1.   Their position which are very far
  2.   Similar traditions of the people living in those areas
  3.   The same type of climate
  4.   Same onshore prevailing wind
  5.   Fertile soil, good cloud cover and rains

 

2. Match the descriptions of vulcanism in Column A with the corresponding items in Column B by writing the letter of the corresponding answer beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

 

COLUMN A

COLUMN B

  1. A volcano which emits Sulphur gas
  2. A volcano which emits carbon dioxide gas
  3. Is a volcano which erupts frequently
  4. Forces emission of hot water from the ground to high level of the atmosphere
  5. Is a broader term which includes both extrusive and intrusive activities
  1.   Active volcano
  2.   Dormant volcano
  3.   Fumarole
  4.   Geysers
  5.   Hot spring
  6.    Hypabyssal
  7.   Mofetta
  8.   Solfatara
  9.      Vulcanism
  10.     volcanism

 

3. With the aid of a well labelled diagram, describe the underground karts region features.

 

4.Carefully study the table below which show the use of soft drinks in creates at Chapamaji village then answer the questions that follows

Types of Soft drink

Coca Cola

Fanta

Pepsi

Mirinda 

Novida

Number of Crates

300

150

250

100

200

  1.     Draw a pie chart to present the data above
  2.    Give three (3) merits and three (3) demerits of the method used above

 

5. Mr Kazimoto as a chairman of Bajado village conducted a simple chain survey in order to get right measurement of the village farm.

  1.          Show three (3) merits and three (3) demerits of simple chain survey
  2.          Describe five (5) instruments used in surveying the farm.

 

6.Carefully study the weather data for a station in Australia and answer the questions that follow

Month

J

F

M

A

M

J

J

A

S

O

N

D

Temp(°C)

28.3

27.5

28.5

29

26.7

26

26

25

24

26

27

28

Rainfall (mm)

380

330

240

175

170

5

2.5

2.2

17

50

210

230

  1.     Calculate the annual mean temperature for the station
  2.    Determine the rainfall range
  3.     Find the temperature mode and median
  4.    Comment on the relationship between temperature and rainfall for the station
  5.     Giving two examples, show the application of data in the daily life.

7. Carefully study the photograph below and answer the questions that follow

 

 


  1.          With two (2) reasons suggest on the types of climates
  2.          Name the type of photograph shown above
  3.          Describe two (2) main physical features found on the photograph
  4.          Examine four (4) economic importance of the features shown on the photograph

 

SECTION C (30 marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section

8.Explain six (6) problems facing peasantry agriculture in Tanzania

9.Explain six (6) limitations and six adverse effects of mining industry in African countries 

10. It is known that; the earth rotates on its axis while revolving around the sun. Describe the significance of the Earth’s revolution. (Four (4) points)

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 86

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2022

Time: 3Hours

INSTRUCTIONS.

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of questions
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries 20 marks, section B 35 marks and section C 45 Marks
  4. Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

  1. The average difference of age between parents and their children is called;
  1. Period
  2. Age
  3. Family tree
  4. Time line
  5. Generation
  1. The first creature to walk upright was called;
  1. Homo erectus
  2. Primates
  3. Homo sapiens
  4. Homo habilis
  5. Hominids
  1. Which of the following are included in the archives?
  1. Division of time into days, weeks and years.
  2. Family trees, time lines and time charts.
  3. Colonial records and early travellers' records.
  4. Cultural items from the earliest times to the present.
  5. Items which show man's physical development.
  1. Who among the following was the first systematic tool maker and had a bigger brain than that of Zinjanthropus?
  1. Homo Habilis.
  2. Homo Sapiens.
  3. Homo Eractus.
  4. Modern Man.
  5. Modern Apes.
  1. In areas such as Kondoa-Irangi, paintings and drawings in caves give evidence of the activities of;
  1. iron smelters
  2. settled communities
  3. colonial legacy
  4. education for adaptation
  5. slave trade and slavery.
  1. Most of the traders during the early commercial contacts between East Africa and the Far East came from;
  1. China and Egypt
  2. Europe and China
  3. Egypt and Indonesia
  4. Indonesia and Europe
  5. Indonesia and China.
  1. Why the rulers of small Ngoni groups were able to defeat and consolidate their power to most of the East African societies?
  1. Their female subjects were married by defeated tribes.
  2. Their male subjects were agents of colonialism.
  3. Their army used more magic power than weapons.
  4. Their army had poor weapons like guns.
  5. War captives were spared and recruited into Ngoni armies.
  1. Why the knowledge of iron-working was kept secret in some societies during pre-colonial period?
  1. They wanted to develop division of labour.
  2. Iron had the immediate use value to some societies.
  3. They wanted to maintain monopoly of the blacksmiths.
  4. They had plans of using it in making ornaments.
  5. It enabled men to play a middleman's role in salt and gold.
  1. The coastal city states which grew from the trade contacts between East Africa and Asia were
  1. Mwanza, Tanga and Dar es Salaam
  2. Malindi, Kilwa and Mombasa
  3. Nairobi, Kampala and Dar es Salaam
  4. Lamu, Bagamoyo and Mbeya
  5. Mombasa, Zanzibar and Kigoma.
  1. Which of the following did not result from the contacts between East Africans and the people from the Middle and Far East?
  1. Construction of Fort Jesus.
  2. Introduction of Islam.
  3. Emergence of slave trade
  4. Intermarriage.
  5. Growth of coastal towns.

2. Match the items in LIST A with the correct responses in LIST B by writing the letter of the response beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. First portugues merchant-explorer to round the cape of good hope in 1498
  2. New economic strategy for Tanzania in 1967
  3. Mau mau leader
  4. Was fought in Nigeria from 1967 to 1970
  5. The last and most serious revolt against germans rule in Tanganyika
  1. Cecil Rhodes
  2. Vasco dagama
  3. Arusha declaration
  4. Jomo Kenyatta
  5. Dedan Kimathi
  6. Biafra War
  7. Maji Maji rebellion

SECTION B (35 Marks) 
Answer all questions in this section.

3. Answer the following question briefly;

  1. Why was trans-saharan trade called dumb trade?
  2. How did the abolition of slave trade contribute to decline of trans-saharan trade
  3. Why was long distance trade called long distance trade?
  4. Who was Sir Fredrick John Lugard?
  5. Describe the structure of direct rule under Germans
  6. Explain French policy of associations

4. Arrange the following statements in chorological order writing number 1 to 6 beside the item number. 

i) Berlin conference was called by Otto vonBismarck resolve the conflict among the imperialist powers 

ii) The imperialist power sent agent of colonialism such as explorers, missionaries and Traders 

iii) The colonial economy was introduced to ensure maximum production of raw materials for European industries 

iv) The scramble for and partition ofAfrica took place in Africa after European nations served the potentiality information about Africa 

v) The colonial administrative system was created to ensure supervision of colonial activities 

vi) The colonial services were established to ensure better health and knowledge for maximum production of raw materials 

5. Draw a sketch map of East Africa and Locate

  1. Headquarter of East Africa Community
  2. Capital of a country whose president was overthrown ina coup in 1971
  3. East Africa great slave market which was closed in 1873
  4. The headquarter of Portuguese rule
  5. Region in Tanganyika which was the best reservoir of labour during colonial period.

SECTION C (45 Marks) 

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

6. Describe the main characteristic of colonial state administration

7. Briefly explain why British decided to use indirect rule in its colonies

8. What were the causes of Ngoni Migrations? Give seven causes

9. Discuss four forms of Feudalism, their merits and its demerits

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 85

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2022

 

INSTRUCTIONS:

 

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B & C.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only three questions in section C.
  3. Section A carry 15 marks, section B carry 40 marks and section C carry 45 marks
  4. Cellular phones are not allowed in the Examination Room
  5. Write your Examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

 

SECTION A

1.Choose the most correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter in the answer sheet book provided

(i)The executive in Tanzania is made up of three pillars;

  1. Judiciary, ministers and legislature
  2. Judiciary, legislature and Parliament
  3. President, cabinet and Civil Services
  4. Citizens, President and Ministers
  5. Legislature, Parliament and National Assembly

(ii)The process involving eradicating of Poverty, disease, Illiteracy and environmental destruction is called 

  1. Social, Economic development
  2. Sustainable development
  3. Development
  4. Rampant development
  5. Global development

(iii)Doing what you believe to be right even if other Mock or criticize you is called 

  1. Self worth
  2. Self confidence
  3. Self esteem
  4. Low self confidence
  5. High self confidence

(iv)Which of the following is not the factors for good leadership

  1. Development
  2. Team work
  3. Get talking
  4. Motivation
  5. Encouraging

(v)The central bank is responsible for

  1. Providing loans to the people
  2. Maintaining the currency of the country
  3. Providing materials support to the people
  4. Providing money to the citizens
  5. Governing the country

(vi)The type of electoral system in Tanzania is known as the 

  1. Proportional system
  2. Combined system
  3. Complex majority system
  4. Simple majority system
  5. Parallel system

(vii)………. Are rights which are not include officially in the law of the country cannot claim them in the court of law.

  1. Civil and political rights
  2. Environmental and development rights
  3. Moral rights
  4. Legal rights
  5. Economic, social and culture rights

(viii)A social group of people living together with their non-government language tradition and history is called

  1. Nations
  2. Community
  3. Family
  4. Government
  5. Constituency

(ix)The legal process of obtaining citizenship is referred to as

  1. Citizen registration
  2. Legalization
  3. Legitimamacy
  4. Naturalization
  5. Liberalization

(x)Isolating, mistreating insulting people with HIV/AIDS is best termed 

  1. Oppression
  2. Globalization
  3. Racism
  4. Stigmatization
  5. Gender biases

 

2.Match the item in List A with correct response in List B by writing the letter of the responses beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. CWT
  2. Economic cultural and social rights
  3. Commemoration of hero’s day
  4. A shadow minister
  5. Embezzment of public funds
  6. Magma center
  7. TAMWA
  8. Naturalization
  9. Un lawful sex
  10. Questionnaire

 

  1. Effects of human right abuse
  2. Human rights abuse
  3. A non-governmental leader re-presenting opposition
  4. A group of people who speaks Kiswahili
  5. The first generation of human rights
  6. The second generation of human rights
  7. A leader representing CHADEMA
  8. Association fighting for teachers rights
  9. Association fighting for workers rights
  10. 1st September
  11. 1st October
  12. A person acquires citizenship though written document
  13. Fight for the rights of both women and children
  14. Improper behavior
  15. Used to solve problem with physical effects
  16. Method of collecting information about a problem
  17. Initiating mediation
  18. Creativity

 

SECTION B: 20 MARKS

3.Read the following passage and then answer the questions that followed.

 In Tanzania all people over 18 years can vote as a long as they are registered and not disqualified. Those who are not permitted to vote include certain criminals and people with severe mental retardation. In order for the election to be democratic. In order for the election to be democratic. It has to be free and fair. This requires an election to be competitive, regular, inclusive and not limited to selecting the candidates 

 Elections are competitive when many political parties complete for vacant seats for council, parliament or the presidency. These should be freedom to move, to assemble and to speak. Elections are regular when are held ate prescribed intervals. In Tanzania this occurs after every five (5) years

 Democratic elections are inclusive when the rights to vote is exercised by a large proportion of the adult population and definitive when those elected hold the reins of power and are not symbolic leaders.

 Before elections all parties and candidates’ campaign had to win vote. In Tanzania all candidates are member or their respective political parties. The national leaders of each political party address votes to publish policy documents or manifesto’s setting out the party policies. Local branches of each party have campaign committees to organize activities. Television, news papers and radio play a major role in modern election campaigns.

QUESTIONS

  1. What is a democratic election?
  2. What is the importance of election campaigns?
  3. What are the functions of local branches of each political party?
  4. Name at least two (2) mass media that are used in election campaigns
  5. Suggest a suitable tittle for the passage

4(a)What do you understanding by the term “early marriages”? Briefly explain four (4) effects of early marriage.

(b)Briefly explain the main five (5) functions of central Bank of Tanzania (B.O.T)

 

SECTION C. 60 MARKS

5.Outiline five (5) challenges facing water supply in the third world countries such as Tanzania 

6.Through your knowledge you have obtained from civics subject, asses the rationale of having constitution in a nation (7 points)

7.Free and fair election is one of the principles of democracy, but not only ingredient to strengthen democracy. Verify by giving 7 points

8.The informal sector is one of the fast-growing sectors in economy. Explain six major problems facing the informal sector in Tanzanian.

9.Differentiate between local government and central government with only five (5) points 

10. Explain six (6) different steps to be followed in the whole process of problem solving.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 84

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2022

Time: 3 Hours

Instructions.

  1.    This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
  2.    Answer all questions in section A and and ONE (1) question from section C.
  3.    Section A and C carries 15 marks, while section B 70 marks
  4.    Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.    Non programmable calculators may be used.
  6.    Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.
  7.    Where necessary the following constants may be used;

Atomic masses; H=1, C=12, N=14,O=16, Na=23, S,=32, Ca =40, Cl =35.5, Cu=64, Zn=65.

Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm3

1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs.

Standard temperature = 273K

Standard pressure = 760mmHg.

1 Litre = 1 dm3 = 1000cm3

 SECTION A ( 15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

  1. Chemistry is a study of
  1.              The chemicals used in the laboratory
  2.               An experiment carries out in industries.
  3.               The composition , structure and properties of matter
  4.              All scientific processes.
  1. Hassan wants to grid the granules of a certain chemical to fine powder. The apparatus he will use include a.
  1.              Pestle and filter funnel
  2.               Round-bottomed flask and trough
  3.               Mortar and pestle.
  4.              Bunsen burner and filter paper.
  1. Which of the following is a physical change?
  1.              Milk left on the counter turns sour
  2.               Common salt dissolves complete in water
  3.               A forest fire burns all the trees
  4.              Fruits are fermented to produce wine
  1. When a substance is heated and change from solid directly to a vapor the process is called
  1.              Condensation
  2.               Dissolving
  3.               Sublimation
  4.              Melting
  1. Which of the following gases if mixed with Hydrogen produce a very hot flame of up to 3000oC.
  1.              Oxygen
  2.               Neon
  3.               Chlorine
  4.              Argon.

 

  1. An isotope of Cadmium has an atomic number of 48 and mass number of 112. This mean that the Cadmium atom has.
  1.              48 protons, 64 neutrons, 48 electrons
  2.               64 protons, 48 neutrons, 64 electrons
  3.               48 protons, 112 neutrons, 48 electrons
  4.              112 protons, 112 neutrons, 112 electrons
  1. The reaction between Silver nitrate and Sodium chloride to form Silver chloride and Sodium nitrate is an example of a ………………. Reaction.
  1.              Direct combination
  2.               Simple displacement
  3.               Double displacement
  4.              Decomposition.
  1. Which of the following pairs of oxide are gaseous at room temperature?
  1.              Carbon dioxide and copper (II) oxide
  2.               Sulphur dioxide and copper (II) oxide
  3.               Carbon dioxide and Sulphur dioxide
  4.              Copper (II) oxide and Iron (II) oxide
  1. Ammonium chloride reacts with sodium hydroxide solution on warming. The net ionic equation for the reaction is.
  1.              H+(aq) + OH-(aq) → H2O(l)
  2.               NH+(aq) + OH-(aq) → NH3(aq) + H2O(aq)
  3.               Na+(aq) + Cl-(aq) → NaCl(aq)
  4.              2NH4+(aq) + 2Cl-(aq) → NaCl(aq) + Cl(g) + H2(g)
  1. Which of the following is not a property of Hydrogen gas?
  1.              It support combustion
  2.               It is slightly soluble in water
  3.               It is less denser than air
  4.              It is colorless and odorless

 

2. The following are the matching items .Match the correct item in LIST B corresponding one from LIST A. Write the letter in answer sheet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Metalloids
  2. Periodicity
  3. Alkali metal
  4. Alkaline earth metals
  5. Transitional elements

 

  1.              The properties of elements are periodic function of their relative atomic masses.
  2.               The regular periodic changes of elements due to their atomic number.
  3.               The properties of an elements change systematically according to their atomic number.
  4.              The metallic elements in group I.
  5.               The metallic elements in group II.
  6.                Are the elements which element form colored compound.
  7.              The elements which tend to display both metallic and non-metallic characteristics.
  8.              The element in group VII
  9.                 Fluorine
  10.                 Sodium
  11.              The vertical column in the periodic table.
  12.               The horizontal column in the periodic table.
  13.             The elements which do not react to form compounds. 

 

 

SECTION B ( 70 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1.                a) i. What is an air?

    ii. Is air a compound or mixture? Give four (4) reasons to support your answer.

b) State the methods of separating the following mixture. Give a reason to support your answer.

  1. Kerosene and water
  2. Muddy water
  3. Ethanol and milk.
  1.                a). Define the following terms
  1. First Aid
  2. First aid kit.

b) Give five (5) items found in the First aid kit and their uses.

c) What First aid do you give to a person who has fainted?

  1.                a) Differentiate between the following terms.
  1. Chemical reaction and chemical equation.
  2. Reactants and products
  3. Displacement reaction and Double displacement reaction.

b) Complete and balance the following reaction.

  1.              +                   → Mg(NO3) (aq) + Zn(s)

 

  1. Pb(NO3)2 (s) + Na2SO4 (aq) 

 

  1. Pb(NO3)2 (s)         Heat

 

  1.                a) Explain the meaning of the following terms.
  1. Mole
  2. Molarity

b) i. State the Avogadro’s law.

ii. Mention two (2) applications of Avogadro law

  1.                a) By using a well labeled diagram explain the preparation of oxygen using hydrogen peroxide.

b) List three chemical properties of oxygen.

  1.                a) Name the following compounds according to the IUPAC system of nomenclature
  1. Fe2(SO4)3
  2. KMnO4
  3. H2SO4

b) What is fuel? 

c) State four (4) the characteristics of good fuel.

  1.                a) Define
  1. Atom
  2. Isotopes

b) i. What is an electronic configuration? 

ii. Give three (3) applications of electronic configuration.

  1.             a) Distinguish between the following terms
  1. Corrosive and irritant
  2. Radioactive and explosive
  3. Solution and suspension

b) i. What is flame?

ii. Differentiate between luminous and non-luminous flame. Give four (4) points. 

  1.            a) Explain the meaning of the following terms
  1. Empirical formula
  2. Molecular formula
  1.                The compound of carbon and hydrogen has the empirical formula CH3. Find its molecular formula if its relative molecular mass is 30 (r.a.m carbon = 12).

 

  1.            a) State four (4) natural sources of water.

b) Explain four (4) economic importance of water.

SECTION C (  15 Marks)

Answer one (1) question from this section.

 

  1.            a) Explain the meaning of  each of the following terms
  1. Concentration of the substance
  2. Molar mass
  3. Stoichiometry

b) Calculate the number of moles in each of the following substances

  1. 1.064g of Magnesium nitrate
  2. 1.397g of Copper (II) sulphates
  3. 3.67dm3 of Sulphur dioxide at s.t.p

c) Calculate the number of ions present in 30g of Aluminum sulphates.

14.  With the aid of a chemical equation, describe how you would prepare pure solid sodium chloride by the action of an acid and a base.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 83

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY 1 TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2022

Time: 3Hours

INSTRUCTIONS.

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fifteen (15) questions.
  2. Answer all the questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C of which question number 13 is compulsory.
  3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B sixty (60) marks and section C carries twenty five (25) marks.
  4. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  5. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

  1.              A structure which allows air to enter the trachea and prevent food from entering the wind pipe known as;
  1.             Glotics
  2.             Tongue
  3.             Soft palate
  4.             Mouth
  5.              Epiglotics
  1.           Study the following sequence of organism ;

Grass                         Rabbit                   wolves’                       fleas

The sequence is example of;

  1.             Food web
  2.             A pyramid
  3.             Food chain
  4.             Abiotic
  1.         Lipase enzymes are mainly contained in;
  1.             Hydrochloric acid
  2.             Gastric juice
  3.             Saliva
  4.             Intestinal juice
  5.              Pancreatic juice
  1.         A person who is admitted in hospital after an operation, is most likely be advised to feed on food rich in ;
  1.             Vitamin C
  2.             Vitamin A
  3.             Protein
  4.             Lipids
  5.              Water
  1.            Which of the following is a vector for sleeping sickness?
  1.             House fly
  2.             Mosquito
  3.             Tsetse fly
  4.             Tick
  5.              Cockroach
  1.         The outermost living structure to identify a plant cell is;
  1.             Cytoplasm
  2.             Vacuole
  3.             Cell wall
  4.             Nuclear membrane
  5.              Cell membrane
  1.       One distinctive features of fungi is;
  1.             Gill structure
  2.             Hyphae
  3.             Cellulose
  4.             Cap
  5.              Exoskeleton
  1.    The main product of photosynthesis process is;
  1.             Sun light energy
  2.             Carbohydrate
  3.             Carbon dioxide
  4.             Water
  5.              Oxygen
  1.         True ribs are the first;
  1.             7 pairs
  2.             5 pairs
  3.             8 pairs
  4.             6 pairs
  5.              11 pairs
  1.            Absence of flowers  and fruits is a characteristics of;
  1.             Monocots
  2.             Dicots
  3.             Conifers
  4.             Vascular plant
  5.              Cambium

2: Match the responses in LIST B with the phrase in LIST A by writing the letter of the correct response from LIST B besides the item number of LIST A in your answer sheet.

LIST A  

LIST B

  1.                 Receives impulses and gives  appropriate response to stimuli
  2.               A gap through which impulses pass  when travelling from one neuron  to  another
  3.            Receives impulses from the external  stimuli and transmit it to the spinal  cord.
  4.            Control and co-ordinate body  balancing organs, thus making  accurate movement possible.
  5.               The nervous path way taken by  impulses in reflex action
  1.             Synapse
  2.             Effectors
  3.             Hypothalamus
  4.             Biceps muscles
  5.              Motor neuron
  6.               Peripheral nervous system
  7.             Central nervous system
  8.             Medullar oblongata
  9.                 Reflex arc
  10.                Relay neuron
  11.             Cerebellum
  12.              White matter
  13.           Cerebrum
  14.             Sensory neuron
  15.             receptors

 

SECTION B (60 MARKS)

Answer ALL questions in this section

 3.  (a)  Define what is accommodation?

             (b) Describe the image formation

   (a) Distinguish digestion from egestion as used in human biology

             (b) Explain why during digestion, the food is:

                 (i) Alkaline when in duodenum

                 (ii) Acidic when in the stomach

                  (iii) Alkaline when in the ileum

 

 5  (a) List any four characteristics of members of kingdom Plantae.

              (b)  (i) State the division in the kingdom in (a) above

                  (ii) Name one representative member for each division in (b) above. 

6   State any three principles of waste disposal and give three importance of proper               waste disposal.

7   Describe the long-sightedness disorder and how is corrected  

8.  Explain how the parts of the mammalian heart are adapted to their function.

 9.  (a) Explain the general effect of drug abuse and drug addiction

            (b) List five ways of preventing drug abuse and addiction

 

10:  Describe the symptoms of a person who is infected by Vibrio cholera and suggest               six preventive measures and treatment for cholera outbreak.

 11:  (a) state any four functions of a human skeleton

              (b)  Describe the components of mammalian appendicular skeleton.

12.Describe the neuronic pathway taken by reflex actions in human being.

SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question number 13 is a compulsory.

13. Explain two factors affecting gaseous exchange in animals.

14. Elaborate the causes of drug abuse to young people and advise the Tanzanian Government on the ways of combating drug abuse in the country.

15. (a) State the function of the following parts of the brain:

  1. Medulla oblongata
  2. Hypothalamus
  3. Cerebellum
  4. Cerebrum

(b) (i) Define the term “drug use”

  1. Explain three effects of drug abuse
  2. Explain two ways in which drug abuse can be controlled

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 82

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAM SERIES

FORM 3 BASIC MATHEMATICS

SECTION A (60 MARKS)

Answer ALL questions from this section

1(a) Write 0.007357 correct to three significant figures

(b)Express  inform  where 

(c)Simplify  hence write your answer in percentage.

2.(a)Solve for x in the following equation 

(b)Rationalize the denominator 

3(a)In a school of 200 students 90like mangoes, 70 like oranges and 50 like Apples; 26 like oranges and mangoes, 20like oranges and apples, 16like Apples and mangoes while 10 like all three fruits.

Represent this information in a well labeled Venn diagram

How many students do not like mangoes?

(b)If , Find b in terms of A and C

4. Use the graph below, then find; 

Gradient

Equation of the line in the form of y=mx + c

5.(a)ABC is an isosceles triangle in which and are equal and if D is the mid-point of BC. 

Prove that 

(b)A regular polygon has an exterior angle of 72° find

  1. The size of the interior angle
  2. How many sides does this polygon have?

6.(a) If y varies directly as x2 and inversely as  when x=8, y=16 and z=25. 

Find y when x=5 and z=9

(b)Sixty people working 8 hours a day take 4 days to cultivate a village farm. How long will it take twenty people to cultivate the same farm if they work 15 hours a day?

7(a)Three people share a property in a ratio 2:x:y. It is known that y=x +2, if the largest shareholder had shs 780,000/= in monetary terms, find the value of this property.

(b)Mr.Mayube of Makole village shop made 60% loss by selling a bag of sugar for Shs. 80,000.00. What would be his percentage profit if he sold the bag of sugar for Shs 240,000.00?

8(a)Write down the next two terms in the sequence; 

(b)The first four terms of an A.P are 2,(m – n), (2m + n + 7 and (m – 3n) respectively where m and n are constants. Find the values of constant m and n

9(a)Given that Tan A=2.4 and A is an acute angle. Find in the simplified form the value of 

(b)From the top of a wall 8.8m above horizontal ground, the angle of depression of a stone lying on the ground 31°. Calculate the distance of the stone from the foot of the wall.

10(a)Find the factors  and hence use it to solve 

(b)The operation x*y denotes the number. Find the value of x if x*4=x*3

SECTION B –(40 MARKS)

Answer any four (4) questions from this section

11.(a)In the following figure  shorter than . Find the length of 

(b)In figure below O in the center of the circle. AB=6cm and ON=4cm show that  

12. The score of 50 candidates a mathematics examination were recorded as shown below.

26, 17, 42, 40, 40, 74, 26, 34, 34, 47, 52, 42, 69, 52, 43

67, 38, 52, 24, 34, 48, 73, 64, 55, 43, 67, 38, 56, 18, 53, 26

62, 32, 78, 17, 45, 34, 54, 24, 36, 34, 18, 48, 52, 73, 37, 64, 45, 54, 37

  1. Prepare a frequency distribution table with class mark 17, 22, 27 …………
  2. Draw histogram and use it to estimate mode
  3. Calculate mean, using assumed mean of 52

13.(a)Find the distance between A(20°N, 135°E) and B (35°N, 135°E) in

(i)Nautical miles  (ii) Kilometer 

(b)A ship sails from P(0°, 30°W) to Q(10°N, 30°W) at 15 knots. If it leaves P at 8:00am on Tuesday when will reach Q?

14.You are required to use the trial balance below to prepare trading, profit and loss Account and extract the balance sheet of Mwanahela as at 31-12-2012

S/NO

NAME OF ACCOUNT

DR

CR

Cash

1,907,000

Capital

2675000

Purchases 

2267000

Rent 

114000

Furniture 

305000

Shelves 

270000

Sales 

2309000

Salary

67000

Wages 

54000

4984000

4984000

15.(a)The sum of the first three terms of a geometric progression is 19 and their product is 216. Find the terms

(b)The third term of an arithmetic progression 9 and the common difference in 2. Find the sum of the first 20terms.

(c)If p, q and r are successive terms of a geometric progression. Find the value of q in terms of

p and r

16.Given that 

  1. Sketch the graph of f(x)
  2. State the domain and range of f(x)
  3. Find f(-5), f(10), f(3?) and f(0)
  4. Is f(x) one to one to one function?

1

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 81

 THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE COMMERCE MID-TERM EXAMINATION

TIME: 2:30 HOUR April, 2022  

INSTRUCTIONS;- 

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
  2. Answer all questions from section A, B and only two (2) questions from section C
  3. Non programmable calculator may be used.
  4. Write your names on every page of your answer sheet. 

SECTION A: (20 MARKS)

Answer ALL questions in this section

  1. For each of the items (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside on the items number;
  1. Which one of the following functions of commerce in satisfying human needs and wants is to close the gap between:
  1. Wholesalers and retailers
  2. Producers and consumers
  3. Producers and retailers
  4. Retailers and consumers ( )
  1. When choosing the media of communication to use, the user should not have to consider:
  1. Cost
  2. Distance
  3. Reliability
  4. Speed ( )
  1. The means of transmitting information electronically is called;;
  1. Telecommunication
  2. E-communication
  3. E-mail
  4. Website ( )
  1. Under which classification the services provided by teachers, doctors, lawyers and policemen to their customers are categorized?
  1. Auxiliary services
  2. Personal services
  3. Direct services
  4. Public services ( )
  1. What is the correct name for a middleman considered as a producer’s representative to the consumer?
  1. Retailer.
  2. Merchant.
  3. Broker.
  4. Auctioneer ( )
  1. Containerization involves the;
  1. Attracting packing of goods
  2. Standard sizing of transport unit
  3. Preparation of goods for deep freezer storage
  4. Simplifying transport of goods ( )
  1. The communication process can be described as;
  1. Sender, message, channel, receiver and feedback
  2. Sender, channel, message, receiver and feedback
  3. Sender, message, channel, feedback and receiver
  4. Message, sender, channel, receiver and feedback ( )
  1. A businessman Said Bakhresa introduced a new Ukwaju Ice-Cream which in turn attracted more customers at Soweto in Mbeya. In this case Bakhresa is;
  1. Innovator
  2. Businessman
  3. Creator
  4. Organizer ( )
  1. The process of giving a particular name to the product is known as;
  1. Trade name
  2. Trade mark
  3. Branding
  4. Packing ( )
  1. Which one of the following given characteristics has not been associated with an entrepreneur’s success?
  1. Commitment
  2. Creativity
  3. Risk bearing
  4. Motivation to fail ( )
  1. Most entrepreneurs in Tanzania especially the Machinga view changes in economy as:
  1. Problematic.
  2. Threatening.
  3. Inconvenient.
  4. Opportunity. ( )
  1. Guaranteeing spare parts when required by customers is an aspect of;
  1. Advertising
  2. After –sales services
  3. Personal selling
  4. Sales promotion ( )
  1. By using the theory of demand which factor influences the buying decision of a customer?
  1. Price of a commodity
  2. Preferences and tastes
  3. Cost of production
  4. Level of production ( )
  1. Three types of advertising a firm might use are informative, collective and competitive. What is another type of advertising?
  1. Media
  2. Persuasive
  3. Point of sales
  4. Sales promotion ( )
  1. Aims at finding out opinions of the public about a particular product is referred to as;
  1. Communication
  2. Transport
  3. Advertising
  4. Marketing research ( )
  1. Match the explanations of the marketing functions in Column A with Marketing functions concepts in Column B by writing the letter of the correct response besides the item number.

COLUMN A

COLUMN B

  1. Legal protection given to the product exclusively to its owner.
  2. Part of the branding which can be recognized but cannot be pronounced.
  3. A major quality of good branding.
  4. Dividing the product based on its quality and size.
  5. Name, term, symbols or design given to a product to distinguish it from other similar products.
  1. Branding
  2. Grading
  3. Trademark
  4. Standardization
  5. Brand mark
  6. Brand name
  7. Distinctiveness

SECTION B (50 MARKS)

Answer ALL questions in this section

  1. Your best friend Mr uongo mbaya has presented you with the following information related to his business of selling bananas for the period ended 28th.April.2021;

Sales …………………………………………………………100,000/=

Opening stock ………………………………………………..10,000/=

Closing stock ………………………………………. 25% of sales

Gross profit margin ……………………………………20%

By using the above given information help your friend to calculate the following;

  1. Gross profit
  2. Cost of sales
  3. Purchase
  4. Rate of stock turnover
  5. Gross profit mark-up
  1. Being a self-employed businessman is better rather than being an employed worker of other business people. Using a knowledge that you have obtained from entrepreneurship competence based course, give five (5) points to convince your parents to allow you to employ yourself rather than being employed in various business companies.
  1. Differentiate between the following commercial terms:
  1. Commerce and business.
  2. Buying and selling
  3. Advertising and sales promotion
  4. Oral communication and written communication
  5. Land transport and air transport
  1. (a)For a business communication to be effective there must be clear communication between the organization and its customers. This will allow the business to communicate with the customers about any changes that have happened in the business. By using the knowledge of business communication describe five (3) barriers to effective communication to the business organization.

(b) How the government benefits from bonded warehouses? Give only two (2) reasons.

  1. (a) Standardization and grading is one of the marketing functions. With three (3) points, briefly explain how grading become necessary in marketing the product.

(b) Suppose Mr. Kwetu pazuri had assigned you to prepare the class presentation about the essential elements of business communication. Briefly explain five (5) essentials of effective business communication that you will consider in your presentation.

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer only TWO questions in this section

  1. Explain six (6) benefits that would accrue to a business person who transports goods by liners rather than by tramps in sea transport.
  1. Promotion mix is the use of various methods and techniques of influencing, informing and persuading customers to increase sales of product in the business. Describe five (5) elements of promotion mix in order to form up the promotion strategy of a business firm.
  1. “Personal selling is the method of selling goods and services conducted by a salesperson through face to face interaction with consumers”. Examine six (6) qualities which a salesperson should possess

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 80

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM-1 EXAMINATION

PHYSICS FORM-3

2022- MARCH/APRIL

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

  1.   This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11)  questions.
  2.    Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions  from section C.
  3.    Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in  the examination room.
  4.    Non-programmable calculators may be used.
  5.    Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer  booklet(s).
  6.   Where necessary the following constants may be used:
  1.  Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s 2
  2. Density of water = I .0 g/cm3
  3. Pie= 3.14.
  4.  Coefficient of linear expansivity of the brick 1.2 x 10 -5-1
  5.  Speed of light in air = 3 x 108 m/s. 
  6. Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) Which pairs of instruments would you use to correctly measure the diameter of a small ball bearing?

  1.  Measuring tape and vernier caliper
  2.  Slide rule and micrometer screw gauge
  3.  Vernier caliper and slide rule
  4.  Micrometer screw gauge and vernier caliper
  5. Metre rule and micrometer screw gauge

(ii)Which one is a characteristic of a plane mirror?

  1. It forms image which is real and opaque.
  2. It forms an image which is larger than the object.
  3. It forms an image which is real and laterally inverted
  4. It forms an image which has the same size as the object.
  5. It forms an image which is smaller in size than the object.

(iii) The correct arrangement of metals in ascending order of their linear expansivities is?

  1. Iron, Copper, Invar, Brass and Nickel
  2. Nickel, Brass, Invar, Copper and Iron
  3. Brass, Copper, Nickel, Iron and Invar
  4. Invar, Iron, Nickel, Copper and Brass.
  5. Nickel, Brass, Iron, Invar and Copper.

(iv) Which of the following is the correct weight of a body of mass 48 g when placed on the moon surface?

  1.  0.48 N 
  2.  4.8 N
  3.  0.80 N
  4.  0.048 N
  5.  80.0 N. 

(v)The correct formula to find the elastic force constant (k) of a spring is

  1. Tension/extension
  2. mass/extension
  3. extension/mass
  4. extension/tension
  5. tension/mass

(vi) Why is oil used as a lubricant?

  1. It has low density.
  2. It is highly viscous.
  3. It is flammable.
  4. it is inflammable    
  5. It is less viscous. https://myfiles.space/user_files/30996_4958b541bbe404eb/1567953102_phy2018_files/image005.jpg

(vii) A bar of copper is heated from 293 K to 333 K. Identify a false statement among the following:

  1. Its density will increase slightly
  2. Its length will increase slightly
  3. Its electrical conduction will decrease slightly
  4. Its mass will not change
  5. Its weight will remain unchanged.

(viii) Which among the following is not a property of magnetic lines of force due to a bar magnet?

  1. They have a direction from North Pole to South pole outside the magnet
  2. They do not exist inside the magnet
  3. They have a direction from South pole to North pole inside the magnet
  4. They tend to be close inside the magnet but are wider apart outside the magnet 
  5. They form complete loops.

(ix) When an object moves around a horizontal circle of centre O with a constant speed, its acceleration will be

  1. zero
  2. towards the centre
  3. away from the centre
  4. along the tangent to the circle
  5. along the direction of rotation.

(x) Which statement about a wet-and-dry bulb hygrometer is correct?

  1. Wet bulb thermometers measure the temperature of the surrounding air.
  2. The temperature recorded by a wet-bulb thermometer is always larger than that recorded by a dry-bulb thermometer.
  3. When the difference in temperature recorded by wet and dry-bulbs is larger no water evaporates.
  4. The value of relative humidity is low when the temperature of wet and dry bulbs is the same.
  5. Wet-bulb is cooled by the process of evaporation of water.

2. Match the items in List A with responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Ability of liquids to rise or fall in a narrow tube.
  2. Tendency of an object to fall or drop to lower level in a fluid.
  3. Capacity of an object to float in a fluid.
  4. Attraction force between molecules of the same substance.
  5. Movement of particles from high concentration to low concentration.
  6. Tendency of matter to be in a state of random 
  1. Osmosis
  2. Surface tension
  3. Matter
  4. Buoyancy
  5. Cohesive
  6. Diffusion
  7. Plasticity
  8. Brownian motion
  9. Capillarity
  10. Viscosity
  11. Adhesive
  12. Elasticity
  13. Sinking


SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) Write down the second and third equations of motion in a straight line.

(b) Explain the following terms as they are applied in motion in a straight line:


(c)A stone is thrown vertically upwards with an initial velocity of 50 m/s.

(i) Calculate the time that the stone will take to return back to the thrower.

(ii) What will be the maximum height reached?

4. Three resistors of 2 ?, 4 ?   and 6 ?   are connected in series to a battery of e.m.r 24 V and have negligible internal resistance.

(a) Draw the circuit diagram including the battery, ammeter, switch and the three resistors.

(b) Find the current flowing in the circuit drawn in 4 (a) above.

(c) Find the potential difference at the ends of each resistor in 4 (a).

5. (a) (i) What is meant by the term thermal expansion?

      (ii) Mention two applications of thermal expansion of solids.

(b)    (i) List three areas where bimetallic strips are used.

  (ii) Why a bimetal strip made of brass and invar is curved outside with brass?

(c)    Describe how simple fire alarm system operates.

6.  (a) State Pascal’s principle of pressure 

 
(b)  What are the three factors that affect the liquid pressure?

(c)  Calculate the area of an object if the pressure exerted is 0.2 N/m2 and its force is 2 N.

7.  (a) What are the uses of the following devices?

(i)  Manometer 

(ii)  Hare’s apparatus (inverted U-tube)

(iii)  U-tube 

(iv)  Barometer 

(b) Why a big Elephant manages to walk comfortably in muddy soil without sinking while a human being may sink easily?


8.  (a) Mention three uses of current electricity

(b) Why is it advised to connect bulbs in parallel arrangement during installation of electricity in most buildings?

SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section

 

9.(a) State two conditions for a body to be in equilibrium.

(b) Distinguish between centre of mass and centre of gravity.

(c) A uniform metre rule AB is balanced horizontally on a knife edge placed 5cm from B with a mass of 60g at B. Find the mass of the ruler.

 

10.(a) Define the following terms as applied in Physics:

(i)Machine

(ii)Load

(b) Why is efficiency of machine less than 100%? Explain briefly.

(c) Simple machine was used to raise a load of weight 4000 N through a height of 0.8 m using an effort of 800 N. If the distance moved by effort was 4.8 m, calculate the: (i) Mechanical advantage. (ii) Velocity ratio.

11. (a) (i) Distinguish between primary and secondary cells, giving one example of each.

(ii) Identify two defects of a simple cell.

(b) (i) Explain why lead – acid accumulators are used in car batteries rather than dry cells?

(ii) A cell of unknown e.m.f, E and internal resistance 2? is connected to a 5? resistance. If the terminal p.d, V is 1.0V. Calculate the e.m.f, E of a cell.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 79


THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY MID TERM-1 EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-MARCH/APRIL- 2022

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.                 This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 9 questions
  2.                 Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3.                 Section A carries 20 marks, section B 35 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4.                 Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5.                 Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

  1.                The first creature to walk in an upright fashion was called
  1.               Homo Erectus.
  2.               Primates.
  3.               Homo Sapiens. 
  4.               Hominids.
  5.                Homo Habilis. 
  1.              Archaeological findings whose ages are beyond 5,000 years are determined by
  1.               using archives.
  2.               using carbon 14.
  3.               remembering events. 
  4.               using time charts.
  5.                 narration of past events. 
  1.            Which one of the following was the immediate consequence of the development of Triangular trade?
  1.               Decolonization of African countries
  2.               Disruption of trans-Saharan trade
  3.               Scramble and partition of Africa
  4.               Adaptation of the Open Door Policy
  5.                Implementation of indirect rule policy
  1.            Who commanded the respect of all and acted as a unifying force among the Maasai?
  1.                Kabaka.
  2.                Omukama.
  3.                Morani.
  4.                Warriors.
  5.                 Laibon.
  1.              The most crucial changes in the evolution of man were 
  1.                bi-pedalism and development of the brain
  2.               domestication of crops and animals
  3.                division of labour and expansion of agriculture
  4.               establishment of settlements and domestication of crops
  5.                 discovery of stone tools and fire.
  1.            The period which man was able to make chopping and pebble tools is known as 
  1.                Late Stone Age
  2.               Old Stone Age
  3.                Middle Stone Age
  4.               Iron Age
  5.                Industrial age.
  1.          The main participants in East Africans long distance trade were
  1.               Viumbundu, Arabs and Kamba.
  2.               Yao, Kamba and Nyamwezi.
  3.               Imbangala, Yao and Barbaig.
  4.               Nyamwezi, Ngoni and Arabs.
  5.                Dinka, yao, ndobolo.
  1.        Scramble for Africa took place in the 19th C as a result of
  1.               Merchantilism.
  2.               Slave trading activities.
  3.               Commercial capitalism.
  4.               Industrial revolution in Europe.
  5.                Trade
  1.            The abolition of slave trade in 19th C was followed by
  1.               Berlin Conference.
  2.               Formation of UNO.
  3.               Introduction of legitimate trade.
  4.               Bilateral agreements.
  5.                World war
  1.              The people of West Africa had interaction with people of North Africa through
  1.               Trans-saharan trade.
  2.               Atlantic slavetrade.
  3.               Wars
  4.               Trans-continental trade.
  5.                Culture.
  1.            The professional traders in the Trans-saharan trade were called
  1.               Barbaig.
  2.               Bisa
  3.               Galla and Segeju.
  4.               Berbers.
  5.                Tuaregs
  1.          Which of the following is not a major source of history in Tanzania
  1.               Written records
  2.               Archives.
  3.               Music.
  4.               Museums.
  5.                archeology
  1.        The family from which man evolved is known as
  1.                Zinjanthropus
  2.                Homo Habilis
  3.                Primates
  4.                Homo Sapiens
  5.                 Homo Erectus.
  1.        Which one among the following factors contributed to the rise of states in Africa?
  1.                Low level of productive forces.
  2.                Presence of chartered companies.
  3.                Hunting and gathering activities.
  4.                Absence of classes among the people.
  5.                 Availability of iron technology.
  1.          Which one of the following best explains the reason which made Mozambique to use force during her struggle for independence?
  1.               A It was a mandated territory.
  2.                It was a trusteeship territory.
  3.                It adopted the Open Door Policy.
  4.                It was a settler colony.
  5.                 It was under indirect rule policy.

2.Match the following items in List B with those provided in List A.

LIST A

LIST B

  1.                      Death of Zwangendaba.
  2.                      Seyyid Said shifted his capital from Oman to Zanzibar.
  3.                      Merchantilism
  4.                      Christopher Columbus
  5.                      Berlin Conference
  1.               1884 to 1885
  2.               1845
  3.               Discovery of America
  4.               1840
  5.                Division of Africa through bilateral agreements.
  6.                A label given to international trade based on trade and commerce abroad.
  7.               Second stage of capitalism.
  8.               1830

3. Briefly answer the following questions:

(i)Differentiate between the tools made and used during the Old Stone Age and the Late Stone Age.

(ii) How medicine stimulated the interaction among the African people?

(iii) How did the people along the coast of East Africa use their natural environment to make salt?

(iv) Why did Portugal lead the search for the sea route to India?

(v) How did Asian goods reach Europe before the sea route was discovered by the Portuguese in the 15th century?

(vi) Why Carl Peters is regarded as an important person in the History of Tanganyika?

 


4.    Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number.

  1.                      Portuguese were expelled from Fort Jesus.
  2.                      Vasco Da Gama reaches East Africa.
  3.                      Bartholomew Diaz reaches the Cape of Good Hope.
  4.                      Tanganyika becomes a mandate colony under the British.
  5.                      Britain becomes the first nation to undergo industrialization.

5.  Draw a sketch map of East Africa and locate the following:

  1.                The headquarters of East African Community
  2.              The capital city of a country whose president was overthrown in a coup in 1971.
  3.            The East African great slave market which was closed in 1873.
  4.            The headquarters of the Portuguese rule.
  5.              The region in Tanganyika which was the best reservoir of labour during the colonial period.

 

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries fifteen (15) marks.

6.    With concrete examples, assess six problems facing the current East African Community.

7.  Access six contributions made by discovery of fire to the development of human being.


8. “Missionaries prepared Africa for European colonization.” Discuss.

9. With examples show how the establishment of colonial economy affected the African societies. (Give six points).

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 78

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM-1 EXAMINATION

PHYSICS FORM-3

2022- MARCH/APRIL

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

  1.   This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11)  questions.
  2.    Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions  from section C.
  3.    Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in  the examination room.
  4.    Non-programmable calculators may be used.
  5.    Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer  booklet(s).
  6.   Where necessary the following constants may be used:
  1.  Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s 2
  2. Density of water = I .0 g/cm3
  3. Pie= 3.14.
  4.  Coefficient of linear expansivity of the brick 1.2 x 10 -5-1
  5.  Speed of light in air = 3 x 108 m/s. 
  6. Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) Which pairs of instruments would you use to correctly measure the diameter of a small ball bearing?

  1.  Measuring tape and vernier caliper
  2.  Slide rule and micrometer screw gauge
  3.  Vernier caliper and slide rule
  4.  Micrometer screw gauge and vernier caliper
  5. Metre rule and micrometer screw gauge

(ii)Which one is a characteristic of a plane mirror?

  1. It forms image which is real and opaque.
  2. It forms an image which is larger than the object.
  3. It forms an image which is real and laterally inverted
  4. It forms an image which has the same size as the object.
  5. It forms an image which is smaller in size than the object.

(iii) The correct arrangement of metals in ascending order of their linear expansivities is?

  1. Iron, Copper, Invar, Brass and Nickel
  2. Nickel, Brass, Invar, Copper and Iron
  3. Brass, Copper, Nickel, Iron and Invar
  4. Invar, Iron, Nickel, Copper and Brass.
  5. Nickel, Brass, Iron, Invar and Copper.

(iv) Which of the following is the correct weight of a body of mass 48 g when placed on the moon surface?

  1.  0.48 N 
  2.  4.8 N
  3.  0.80 N
  4.  0.048 N
  5.  80.0 N. 

(v)The correct formula to find the elastic force constant (k) of a spring is

  1. Tension/extension
  2. mass/extension
  3. extension/mass
  4. extension/tension
  5. tension/mass

(vi) Why is oil used as a lubricant?

  1. It has low density.
  2. It is highly viscous.
  3. It is flammable.
  4. it is inflammable    
  5. It is less viscous. https://myfiles.space/user_files/30996_4958b541bbe404eb/1567953102_phy2018_files/image005.jpg

(vii) A bar of copper is heated from 293 K to 333 K. Identify a false statement among the following:

  1. Its density will increase slightly
  2. Its length will increase slightly
  3. Its electrical conduction will decrease slightly
  4. Its mass will not change
  5. Its weight will remain unchanged.

(viii) Which among the following is not a property of magnetic lines of force due to a bar magnet?

  1. They have a direction from North Pole to South pole outside the magnet
  2. They do not exist inside the magnet
  3. They have a direction from South pole to North pole inside the magnet
  4. They tend to be close inside the magnet but are wider apart outside the magnet 
  5. They form complete loops.

(ix) When an object moves around a horizontal circle of centre O with a constant speed, its acceleration will be

  1. zero
  2. towards the centre
  3. away from the centre
  4. along the tangent to the circle
  5. along the direction of rotation.

(x) Which statement about a wet-and-dry bulb hygrometer is correct?

  1. Wet bulb thermometers measure the temperature of the surrounding air.
  2. The temperature recorded by a wet-bulb thermometer is always larger than that recorded by a dry-bulb thermometer.
  3. When the difference in temperature recorded by wet and dry-bulbs is larger no water evaporates.
  4. The value of relative humidity is low when the temperature of wet and dry bulbs is the same.
  5. Wet-bulb is cooled by the process of evaporation of water.

2. Match the items in List A with responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Ability of liquids to rise or fall in a narrow tube.
  2. Tendency of an object to fall or drop to lower level in a fluid.
  3. Capacity of an object to float in a fluid.
  4. Attraction force between molecules of the same substance.
  5. Movement of particles from high concentration to low concentration.
  6. Tendency of matter to be in a state of random 
  1. Osmosis
  2. Surface tension
  3. Matter
  4. Buoyancy
  5. Cohesive
  6. Diffusion
  7. Plasticity
  8. Brownian motion
  9. Capillarity
  10. Viscosity
  11. Adhesive
  12. Elasticity
  13. Sinking


SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) Write down the second and third equations of motion in a straight line.

(b) Explain the following terms as they are applied in motion in a straight line:


(c)A stone is thrown vertically upwards with an initial velocity of 50 m/s.

(i) Calculate the time that the stone will take to return back to the thrower.

(ii) What will be the maximum height reached?

4. Three resistors of 2 ?, 4 ?   and 6 ?   are connected in series to a battery of e.m.r 24 V and have negligible internal resistance.

(a) Draw the circuit diagram including the battery, ammeter, switch and the three resistors.

(b) Find the current flowing in the circuit drawn in 4 (a) above.

(c) Find the potential difference at the ends of each resistor in 4 (a).

5. (a) (i) What is meant by the term thermal expansion?

      (ii) Mention two applications of thermal expansion of solids.

(b)    (i) List three areas where bimetallic strips are used.

  (ii) Why a bimetal strip made of brass and invar is curved outside with brass?

(c)    Describe how simple fire alarm system operates.

6.  (a) State Pascal’s principle of pressure 

 
(b)  What are the three factors that affect the liquid pressure?

(c)  Calculate the area of an object if the pressure exerted is 0.2 N/m2 and its force is 2 N.

7.  (a) What are the uses of the following devices?

(i)  Manometer 

(ii)  Hare’s apparatus (inverted U-tube)

(iii)  U-tube 

(iv)  Barometer 

(b) Why a big Elephant manages to walk comfortably in muddy soil without sinking while a human being may sink easily?


8.  (a) Mention three uses of current electricity

(b) Why is it advised to connect bulbs in parallel arrangement during installation of electricity in most buildings?

SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section

 

9.(a) State two conditions for a body to be in equilibrium.

(b) Distinguish between centre of mass and centre of gravity.

(c) A uniform metre rule AB is balanced horizontally on a knife edge placed 5cm from B with a mass of 60g at B. Find the mass of the ruler.

 

10.(a) Define the following terms as applied in Physics:

(i)Machine

(ii)Load

(b) Why is efficiency of machine less than 100%? Explain briefly.

(c) Simple machine was used to raise a load of weight 4000 N through a height of 0.8 m using an effort of 800 N. If the distance moved by effort was 4.8 m, calculate the: (i) Mechanical advantage. (ii) Velocity ratio.

11. (a) (i) Distinguish between primary and secondary cells, giving one example of each.

(ii) Identify two defects of a simple cell.

(b) (i) Explain why lead – acid accumulators are used in car batteries rather than dry cells?

(ii) A cell of unknown e.m.f, E and internal resistance 2? is connected to a 5? resistance. If the terminal p.d, V is 1.0V. Calculate the e.m.f, E of a cell.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 77


 

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS MID TERM-1 EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-MARCH-APRIL-2022

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries 15 marks, section B 40 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4. Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 

 

SECTION A: (15MARKS)

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct among the given alternatives and write it letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided.

(i)The ability of a person to feel and share another person’s emotion is known as


  1. Self-esteem
  2. Self-worth
  3. Empathy
  4. Self-assertive
  5. Love


(ii)Which among the following institution is a social security scheme?


  1. NMB
  2. CRDB
  3. NBC
  4. PSPF
  5. TPB


(iii)After Nyaburuma researching democratic practices in his country established that citizens, stands for election, vote to select leader, attend, political meeting join private organism and protest against the government to which principle of democracy does this evidence point?


  1. Respect of human rights
  2. Citizen, participation
  3. Separation of power
  4. Free and fair election
  5. Rule of law


(iii)The following are the responsibilities of the president of Tanzania as prescribed by the constitution except

  1. Head of ruling political party
  2. Head of the public services
  3. Head of the state
  4. Head of the government affairs
  5. Commander in chief of the Armed forces.

(v)Many Tanzanians to get loans from the banks due to 

  1. Lack of entreprenew skills and security
  2. Lack of proper identification
  3. Lack of enough financial institution
  4. Ignorance
  5. Most Tanzania to do not need loans

(vi)Many Tanzanians societies believe that boys are supervisor than girl. By using this statement which concept of Gender is this?


  1. Gender discrimination
  2. Gender mainstreaming
  3. Gender blindness
  4. Gender analysis
  5. Gender stereotyping


(vii)The Member of Parliament for Mkwajuni constituency passed away seven months after the general election. What can be done to get another representative?

  1. Call for general election
  2. Wait for the next general election
  3. Calls for by election
  4. The president nominates another person
  5. The National Electoral Commission nominate another person

(viii)Soon after being registered every political party formulate its own 


  1. Cabinet
  2. Vision, mission and policies
  3. Couples
  4. National constitution
  5. The government within the country


(ix)Selecting the best option after learning the consequence of each option is called

  1. Problem solving skills
  2. Self awareness
  3. Creative thinking
  4. Rational Decision making
  5. Self esteem

(x) Which of the following are the major pillars of the stated?

  1. Executive, armed forces and legislature
  2. The president the speaker and the Prime Minister
  3. The president, the prime Minister and Chief Justice
  4. Executive, armed force and Judiciary
  5. Executive, legislature and Judiciary

 

2. Match the items in List A with correct response in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer sheet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A set of rules which set standard for the accepted behaviors in a society
  2. Pattern of conduct shared by the people in a given community but always change with time.
  3. Practices that persisted in a society for a long time and do not change.
  4. Ability of using imagination to express ideas through writing and sculpturing
  5. Simple technology or skill producing things such as pottery and basketry
  1. Crafts
  2. Customs
  3. Traditions
  4. Material culture
  5. Norms
  6. Antiquities
  7. arts

 

SECTION B: (40MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Read the following passage carefully ad answer the questions which follow.

 Suicide is one of the critical problems of adolescents today. This disastrous act is committed for different reasons. Some adolescents often feel that death is the only way out of intolerable situations. Those terminally ill and those in capacities by serious illness or injuries commit suicide to avoid further pain. Yet others commit suicide to draw attention, to teach those who hurt them a lesson and punish themselves for the shame they might have caused to others.

 Most adolescents who commit suicide do as a reaction to previous distressing events. Such common events include conflicts within the adolescent’s families, their failure to live up to the parents’ or guardians’ expectations and the adolescent’s failure to develop adequate interpersonal relationships within their families. These events often lead to suicide signals such as threatening to commit suicide or displaying actual tendencies to suicide and serious suicide attempts where by the adolescent survives or leads to actual suicide.

 The signals of suicide among adolescent includes previous attempts, threat to commit suicide, feeling of alienation and loneliness and the presence of mental illness sever and prolonged stress and negative emotions.

 

QUESTIONS:

  1. Provide a suitable title for the passage
  2. What is the altitude of some adolescents toward death?
  3. Mention any two factors from the passage that compel some of the youth to commit suicide.
  4. List down any two suicide signals the adolescents
  5. What is the altitude of the author towards suicide tendencies among the adolescents?

 

4. In five points signify the effect of poverty in any society.

5. Suppose you are the community development officer, explain to the community the role of the government in      the provision of social services to Tanzanians. (Five points)

6. Provided five points, showing the non-union matters of the Unite Republic of Tanzania to Tanzanians.

7.In five points mention the institutes responsible for promoting and preserving the national culture.

8.In five points, identify the problems that face woman in Tanzania 

9. If you are deliver a talk to your community of responsible decision making, which five merits of making responsible decision will consider?

10. Suppose you have graduated O’ level studies at Mchapakazi secondary school. You have now employed as a Permanent Development Office. What advice would you give to the students on the importance of work to self-development?

 

SECTION C (45 MARKS)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries 15marks

11. Discuss five (5) strategies that can be used to alleviate poverty to the third world countries like Tanzania.

12. Tanzania is a signatory of the 1984 United Nations Declaration of Human Rights. To what extent are human right protected in Tanzania? Provided five points.

13.Proponents of globalization argue that “globalization is a catalyst of development while the opponents contend that it is a new form of ne-colonialism to developing countries. Discuss six demerits of globalization to developing country like Tanzania.

14. In five points explain the challenges facing the government of Tanzania in the provision of social services.

 

1

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 76

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY 1  MID TERM  EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2022

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.    This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 15 questions.
  2.    Answer all questions in section A and B and TWO  (2) question from section C in which question 13 compulsory.
  3.    All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  4.    Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.    Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (20 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

(i)The following are examples of water – borne diseases:

  1.      Malaria and bilharzia.
  2.      Yellow fever and typhoid
  3.       Diarrhoea and malaria.
  4.      Cholera and plague.
  5.       Cholera and typhoid

(ii) One of the distinctive features o f kingdom fungi is possession of:

  1.      Plasma membrane
  2.      Cytoplasma
  3.       Chitin materials
  4.      Cell membrane
  5.       Cellulose materials.

(iii) A grasshopper ventilates its gaseous exchange surfaces by:

  1.      Moving the diaphragm
  2.      Beating of cilia
  3.       Rhythmic body movement
  4.      Opening of spiracles
  5.       Moving its rib cage.

(iv) The taxonomic category of organisms belonging to the same class but not to the same family is?

  1.      Species
  2.   Genus
  3.    Order
  4.   Phylum
  5.   Kingdom.

(v) The function of sunlight energy in the human skin is to stimulate the synthesis of?

  1.   Vitamin A
  2.   Vitamin C
  3.    Vitamin D
  4.   Vitamin K
  5.   Vitamin B.

(vi) Night blindness in human body is avoided by eating? 

  1.   Oranges
  2.   Carrot
  3.    Red meat
  4.   Green vegetables
  5.   Chicken

(vii) A blood vessel which conveys deoxygenated blood away from the heart is called?

  1.   Capillaries
  2.   Artery
  3.    Veins
  4.   Pulmonary vein
  5.   Pulmonary artery.

(viii) Which of the following structure is a site of respiration?

  1.   Chloroplast
  2.   Ribosome
  3.    Nuclear
  4.   Nucleic acid
  5.   Mitochondria.

(ix) The structures found in bacteria are:

  1.   Plasmid, flagella and cilia
  2.   Cytoplasm, cilia and plastids
  3.    Cell wall, plasmid and flagella
  4.   Cell membrane, flagella and hairs
  5.   Plasmid, capsule and cilia.

(x) The by – products in photosynthesis process are:

  1.   Carbohydrate and water
  2.   Carbon dioxide and oxygen
  3.    Oxygen and water
  4.   Carbohydrate and carbon dioxide 
  5.   Oxygen and air.

 

 

 

 

2. Matching items questions.

LIST A

LIST B

  1.       Supplies blood to the heart
  2.       Loss of mineral in which they move deeper beyond plant roots
  3.       An organism that cause typhoid
  4.       Classification based on few external features.
  5.       Has same origin but different function.
  6.       Locomotary structure in amoeba
  7.       A disease that breaks out from time to time in different region.
  8.       Modification of cells to carry out certain functions.
  9.       Organisms with similar nutritional habits.
  10.       Secretes Bile.
  1.            Epidemic disease
  2.            Sporadic disease
  3.             Niche
  4.            Trophic level
  5.             Cell specialization
  6.             Cell differentiation
  7.            Coronary artery
  8.            Septum
  9.               Leaching
  10.               Eutrophication
  11.            Salmonella typhi
  12.             Typhoid coli
  13.           Cytoplasmic streaming
  14.            Pseudopodia
  15.            Taxonomy
  16.             Artificial classification
  17.            Natural classification
  18.            Homologous structure.
  19.             Analogous structure.

 

SECTION B: 60 MARKS.

4. (a) Define the following terms.

  1.                     Ecology
  2.          Environment
  3.       Community
  4.         Ecosystem.

 (b) (i) State the difference between natural and artificial ecosystems

 (ii) Explain why food webs are more representative of feeding relationship than food chains.

5. (a) (i) What is a tissue

(ii) Name three animal and plant tissues.

    (b) State the structural differences between cell wall and a cell membrane.

    (c) Describe the function of blood plasma.

6. (a) Explain the function of the following parts of compound microscope.

  1.      Stage
  2.    Eyepiece

(b) Name four (4) human diseases caused by viruses.

 (c) Mention four ways of helping a person who has been bitten by a snake.

7. (a) What is meant by the following terms.

  1.            Digestion
  2.          Malnutrition
  3.       Balanced diet
  4.        Nutritional disorder.

 (c) Explain why;

  1.            One can swallow food while upside down?
  2.          Digestion of starch does not continue in the stomach?
  3.       Food in duodenum is alkaline
  4.        One is advised to eat roughage although they do not have any nutritional value.

8. (a) Draw a large labeled diagram of villus found in the digestive system.

 (b) Name digestive juice produced by the liver and state the content of that juice.

 (c) Differentiate between the following terms.

  1.            Breathing and respiration
  2.          Inhalation and exhalation

 

9. Describe five distinctive features of kingdom plantae

10.  a) Mention two members of division coniferophyta

     b) State the distinctive features of conifers

11.  a) Briefly explain how fertilization takes place in conifers

     b) Outline the advantages and disadvantages of confers

 

SECTION C:

12. Write an essay on malaria using guidelines below.

  1. Causes
  2. Transmission
  3. Signs and symptoms
  4. Ways of prevention
  5. Treatment of the diseases.

13. Discus the advantage and disadvantage of artificial and natural classification.

  14.  a) What is alternation of generation?

     b)    Explain how alternation of generation takes place in bryophytes.

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 75

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-MARCH/APRIL-2022

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and ONE (1) question from section C.
  3. Section A and C carries 15 marks, while section B 70 marks
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Non programmable calculators may be used.
  6. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.
  7. Where necessary the following constants may be used;

Atomic masses; H=1, C=12, N=14,O=16, Na=23, S,=32, Ca =40, Cl =35.5, Cu=64, Zn=65.

Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm3

1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs.

Standard temperature = 273K

Standard pressure = 760mmHg.

1 Litre = 1 dm3 = 1000cm3

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

  1. For each of the items (i – x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter in the table provided
    1.      Kinetic nature of matter describe
  1. The shape of three states of matter
  2. The movement of particles in the three state of matter
  3.  The process of treating solid, liquid and gas
  4. Describe the meaning of matter
  5. Make up of matter

 

  1.  Nitrogen (III) oxide has a formula
  1. N2 O5
  2. NO3
  3. NO2
  4. NO3
  5. N3O2

 

  1.                           A pair of the following substances from a miscible liquid
  1. Paraffin and water
  2. Paraffin and benzene
  3. Water and glycerin
  4. Water and kerosene
  5. Water and milk

 

     (vi)        Which one of the following sets of elements is arranged in order to increase  

            electro negativity starting with the least one?

  1. Chlorine, fluorine, nitrogen, oxygen, carbon
  2. Fluorine, chlorine, oxygen, nitrogen, carbon
  3. Carbon, nitrogen, oxygen, chlorine, fluorine
  4. Nitrogen, oxygen, chlorine, carbon, fluorine
  5. Nitrogen, oxygen,sodium, carbon, fluorine

 

  1. “Striking back” means
  1. Luminous flame
  2. Flame burning inside the barrel when the air hole is open
  3. Non-luminous flame
  4. Flame burning inside the barrel when the air hole is closed
  5. Excess gas
    1. Element Q of atomic number 15 is found in
  6. Group V and period 3
  7. Group I and period 2
  8. Group III and period 4
  9. Group IV and period 1
  10. Group 15 period 5

 

  1. Which of the following natural processes is not a chemical change?
  1. Photosynthesis
  2. Respiration
  3. Rain formation
  4. Corrosion of iron
  5. Souring of milk

 

  1.  This mixture of substances can extinguish fire
  1. Oxygen and nitrogen
  2. Carbon and sand
  3. Carbondioxide and hydrogen
  4. Carbondioxide and sand
  5. Hydrogen and oxygen

 

  1.   The physical test for oxygen is
  1. Support the burning splint
  2. Colourless, no smell and tasteless
  3. Produces “POP” sound
  4. Turns lime water blue
  5. Has sweet aroma

 

  1.        An element ‘A’ of element configuration 2:8:3 combines with an element ‘B’of configuration 2:6. The chemical formula of the compound is 
  1. B6 A3
  2. A3 B6
  3. A2 B3
  4. A3 B2
  5. B2A3

 

 

SECTION B.

  1.  Match the item in list A with the responses in list B by writing the letter of the correct response in list the box below.

List A.

  1. Octet state
  2. Fossil fuels
  3. Rusting of iron
  4. Desiccators
  5. Solvent extraction

      List B.

  1. Hardening of oil
  2. Aqueous
  3. Full of eight electrons in the outermost shell
  4. Water and kerosene
  5. Inert state
  6.  Electronic configuration
  7. Coal, natural gas
  8. Used to obtain oil from groundnuts
  9. Potassium, sodium
  10. Enzymes
  11. For drying substance
  12.  Condensation
  13. Ionic equation
  14. Catalyst
  15. Chemical change
  16. Physical change

 

 

 

SECTION B (70 Marks) 

Answer all questions in this section

  1.  (a) Define the following terms:
    1. Fuel ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
    2. Calorific value of a fuel ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
    3. Energy value of a fuel ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Give two examples of each of the following:

(i) Solid fuel ………………………………….., ……………………………..

(ii) Liquid fuel…………………………………..,……………………………...

(iii) Gaseous fuel ……………………………….., …………………………….

(c) Name four characteristics of a good fuel 

(i) ………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) ………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) ……………………………………………………………………………..

(iv) ……………………………………………………………………………..

 

  1. (a) Water is said to be a compound. Verify this statement
    1. …………………………………………………………………………
    2. ………………………………………………………………………….
    3. ………………………………………………………………………….
    4. ………………………………………………………………………….

 

(b) Study the apparatus arranged below and answers the questions below.

 

 

 

 

  1. Name the apparatus labeled
  1. ……………………………………………………………………
  2. ……………………………………………………………………
  3. …………………………………………………………………..

E…………………………………………………………………..

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the function of the apparatus labeled E? …………………………………………………………………………
  2. What is the role of manganese (IV) oxide (MnO2) in the above experiment? ………………………………………………………………………......
  3. How can you test the presence of oxygen …………………………………………………………………………..
  4. What was the aim of the above experiment? …………………………………………………………………………..
  5. Write a balance chemical equation of the reaction which occurred in apparatus C above …………………………………………………………………………

 

  1. (a) (i) Define valence ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Write down the valence of the following elements: 

Magnesium …………………………………. Lithium ……………………………

 

(iii) Name the following radicals and state their valences

 

Radical

Name

Valence

NH4+

 

 

CO 32 -

 

 

HCO3-

 

 

SO32

 

 

SO2  4-

 

 

NO 3-

 

 

 

(b) Write the following compounds 

(i) Aluminium oxide ………………………………………………………………

(ii) Lead (II) nitrate ……………………………………………………………..…

(iii) Ammonium carbonate …………………………………………………………

(iv) Lead (II) sulphide ……………………………………………………………..

(v) Copper (II) hydroxide …………………………………………………………

 

  1. (a) Define:
    1. Empirical formula ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
    2. Molecular formula ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

 

(b) A certain gaseous compound contains 82.8% of carbon and 17.2% of hydrogen by mass. The vapour density of the compound is 29. Calculate its molecular formula (C = 12, H = 1)

 

  1. (a) By giving one example define the following terms
    1. Suspension ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
    2. Electroplating ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
    3. Galvanizing ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
    4. Element …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
    5. Matter ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

 

(b) Give four uses of hydrogen gas 

(i) ……………………………………………………………………………….

(ii) ………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) ……………………………………………………………………………..

(iv) ……………………………………………………………………………..

 

  1. (a) What do you understand by the term isotope? ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Chlorine has two isotopes of chlorine – 35 3517 Cl, which constitutes of 75% in the mixture and chlorine – 37 3717 Cl, which constitutes of 25%. Calculate the relative atomic mass of chlorine. 

 (c) One of the methods of preventing iron from rusting is sacrificial protection,   

                  why it is called so  ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

      9. (a) Give the meaning of the following terms 

     (i) Solution ……………………………………………………………………………..

     (ii) Emulsion …………………………………………………………………………… 

               ……………………………………………………………………………………

     (iii) Potable water ………………………………………………………………………

              …………………………………………………………………………………….

      (b) State the modern periodic table     

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

        (c) Name heat sources used in the laboratory 

        (i) ………………………………………………………………………………

        (ii) ……………………………………………………………………………..

        (iii) ……………………………………………………………………………

        (iv) …………………………………………………………………………… 

 

     10. (a) Show how the following change in the periodic table:

      (i) Electronegativity ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Ionization energy ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

 

(iii) Atomic size ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

 

(b) “Chemistry is the useless subject” Discuss the above statement with reasons

(i)……………………………………………………………………………………………      

     …………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) …………………………………………………………………………………………..

     …………………………………………………………………………………………..

(iii) …………………………………………………………………………………………

      ………………………………………………………. ………………………………..

(iv) …………………………………………………………………………………………

      …………………………………………………………………………………………

 

11.      a) What is the hardness of water?

b)  Briefly explain types of hard of water.

c)   State the causes of hardness of water for each type mention in (b) above.

d)  Explain how you would remove the hardness of water according to its type.

e)  Give three (3) advantages and three (3) disadvantages of the hard water.

12.   Balance the following equations: 

  (i)Ca + H3PO4→ Ca3(PO4)2 + H2

  1.                      Cu + HNO3 → Cu (NO3 )2 + NO2 +H20
  2.                      SnCi2+FeC13→SnC14+FeCI

13.     Give the name of the types of reaction represented by each of the following chemical equations.

  1.                      C3H8(g) +50,(0)→ 3CO2 + 4H20(1)
  2.                      2Pb (N 03),(,)→2Pb0(,) + 4NO2 +02(g)

(iii)Zn(s)+CuS04(aq) —>ZnSO4(aq) +CU(S)

14.     Complete the following equations and determine the type of chemical reaction involved in each case.

(i) Zn(s)+ H2SO4(aq)

(i) AgN 03(aq) + NaCl(aq)

(iii) N2(g) + H2(g) 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 74

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE MID TERM EXAMINATION

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

 (For both school and private candidates)

Time 3Hours

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of twelve (12) questions
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions in section C.
  3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B, forty (40) marks  and section C carries forty five (45) marks

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. Choose the most correct answer from the items (i) – (x) and write its letter beside the item number
  1. “I am so happy today, my team has won” The correct question tag for this should be ___
  1. Amn’t I?
  2. Am I?
  3. Aren’t I? 
  4. Isn’t it?
  5. Are I?
  1. Which statement is the correct expression of, “Fredrick and Johnson are all guilty”
  1. Either Fredrick or Johnson are innocent
  2. Neither Fredrick nor Johnson is guilty
  3. Neither Fredrick nor Johnson is not guilty
  4. Neither Fredrick nor Johnson are innocent 
  5. Neither Fredrick nor Johnson is innocent
  1. When writing an official letter, the first address belongs to _____
  1. The sender  
  2. The receiver
  3. The company you are writing to
  4. The secretary who will open this letter first 
  5.  Whoever will be the first to open the letter
  1. The statement “The lady has a big heart” basically means _____
  1. The lady has many friends
  2. The lady is expensive
  3. The lady is sick
  4. The lady is considerate
  5. The lady is hearty
  1. Identify the group of words which are often used when writing argumentative essay
  1. Contrary to that, inasmuch as, however, 
  2. Moreover, similarly, increasingly 
  3. Interestingly, contrary to that, however
  4. On the other hand, on this very hand, conclusively 
  5. Argumentatively, in contrast to that, however
  1. What is the verb form of the noun composition
  1. Compose
  2. Decompose
  3. Impose
  4. Composite
  5. Impose
  1. Your teacher asks you to write a narrative whereby, a known person’s name is not directly going to be mentioned, however, “Mwamba” is a coined name for this person. “Mwamba” is therefore going to be ___ in the story
  1. Persona 
  2. Person 
  3. Character 
  4. Author 
  5. Comedian    
  1. Which one of the following is not a type of tense in English language
  1. Present simple, simple past, future tense
  2. Present continuous, present perfect, simple future
  3. Simple past, past participle, past perfect
  4. Future continuous tense, future perfect tense, past tense 
  5. Present continuous tense, present perfect tense, present tense 

(ix) Anna is a clever girl. The adjective clever has been used so as ______

  1. To give a detailed information about Anna
  2. To compare Anna to other girls in her class
  3. To give  a detailed description of Anna
  4. To show what Anna is capable of
  5. To describe other qualities of Anna

(x) If by chance it happens that your classroom teacher has picked you to represent your class in a competition titled “A boarding school is better than a day school”. What possibly could this competition be all about? 

  1. Formal competition 
  2. Non formal competition 
  3. Public speech 
  4. Impromptu speech 
  5. Debate  

i

ii

iii

iv

v

vi

vii

viii

ix

x











2. Match each sentence in List A with its correct answer in List B by writing its letter beside the corresponding item number in the answer booklet provided 

List A

List B

  1. If I had money I would buy a house
  2. No sooner had the rain stopped than the dogs started barking
  3. The boy was taken to the hospital because his body was heating up
  4. This is your dress. Isn’t it?
  5. We do not like listening to amapiano songs
  1. Question tag
  2. Conditional sentence
  3. Negative sentence
  4. Correlative conjunction
  5. Subordinating conjunction


i

ii

iii

iv

v






SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. Change the following sentences into passive voice
  1. He loves me
  2. The young man bought two cows
  3.  He is leaving his two young sisters behind
  4.  The contractor painted the house blue
  1. Re arrange the following sentences to make a logical meaning
  1. And that is the sad life story of Simon Makonde
  2. Baptized on Tuesday and married on Wednesday
  3.  Simon Makonde was born on Sunday, named on Monday
  4. He fall sick on Thursday, died on Friday and was buried on Saturday
  1. Construct one sentence showing actions as the guidelines provides.
  1. Action that is ongoing
  2. Action that happened in the past but only once
  3. Two actions happening together
  4. An action that just occurred a while back
  1. Re write the following sentences according to instructions given after each
  1. She was not only beautiful but also intelligent (Begin: Not only …..)
  2. “I will report to work tomorrow”, John said (Change into reported speech)
  3. Had the head boy informed the students on time, they would not have committed the crime (Begin: The students….)
  4. If you work smart, you will be successful in the future (Begin: Unless……)
  1. Fill in the spaces in the dialogue below with appropriate words 

Hashim: Hallo Asha, I like the perfume you use, it smells good 

Asha: Oh! Really, __(i)___ you! I ordered it from Dubai

Hashim: (Laughing) you must be funny, this brand is sold locally, I can show you around. Anyway, __(ii)__ you paid for the academic trip? 

Asha: Hashim! When will you ever give compliments when it is due? _(iii)_ I appear cheap? Well, I may not go for the trip, I am afraid of wild animals

Hashim: At least I am not the only one _(iv)__ going for the trip. We shall have enough time and read the new set books. 

Asha: You really know my weakness, I love reading books, and I will be ready then 

  1. Write the correct meanings of the following idioms. The first one has been done as an example for you
  1. The little man let the cut out of the bag, amidst our conversation. Meaning he revealed the secret
  2. We eat rice once in a blue moon
  3.  The headmaster announced that through thick and thin, our school was to be among top ten best schools in the country
  4. The ball is now on your court, I can rest my case
  5. It is raining cats and dogs outside at the moment

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three questions from this section

  1. Give clear definitions of the following terms as used in literary works
  1. Art
  2. Society
  3. Figures of speech
  4. Playwright
  5. Characterization
  6. Theme
  7. Poetry 

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 10-12

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES

A Wreath for Fr. Mayer – S.N Nduguru (1977) Mkuki na Nyota 

Unanswered Cries – Osman Conteh, Macmillan 

Passed Like a Shadow – B. M Mapalala (2006) DUP

Spared – S. N. Nduguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota 

Weep Not, Child – Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1987); Heinemann 

The Interview – P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan 

PLAYS

Three Suitors, One Husband – O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen 

The Lion and the Jewel – W. Soyinka (1963), OUP 

This Time Tomorrow – Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1972), Heinemann 

The Black Hermit – Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1968), Heinemann

POETRY

Songs of Lawino and Ocol – O. P. Bitek (1979), EAPH

Growing Up with Poetry – D. Rubadiri (ed), (1989), Heinemann

Summons – R. Mabala (1960), TPH 

  1. Mention three poets and their respective works, and from each, identify two messages that can be learnt from their work
  2. Pick one play that you have read and explain what lessons you come out with after reading it
  3. Show how themes from any one novel that you have attempted relates to our daily life

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 73

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE MID TERM EXAMINATION

LITERATURE IN ENGLISH

TIME: 2:30 HOURS YEAR 2022

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.

2. Answer all questions from sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C of which questions 7 and 8 are compulsory.

3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B forty (40) marks and section C carries forty five (45) marks.

4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 marks)

Answer ALL questions from this section

  1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the alternatives given and write and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided
  1. Which one of the following explanations best defines literature?
  1. The use of language to express social realities
  2. The use of language artistically to educate the society
  3. The use of language to express people’s culture
  4. The use of language skillfully in expressing social realities
  5. The expression of social realities
  1. One of the following examples is a figure of speech, identify it
  1. Onomatopoeia
  2. Conflict
  3. Persona
  4. Scene
  5. Stanza
  1. Caleb read a play whereby the main character’s life was endangered/died. This kind of narrative must be
  1.  Comedy
  2. Tragedy
  3. Tragic comedy
  4. Melodrama
  5. Sad play
  1. Which of the following express alliteration?
  1. Potential power play
  2. He fell asleep
  3. Mike likes his new bike
  4. Hurray! It happened
  5.  Honest person  
  1. Oral literature is
  1. A work of art whereby expressions are written to express experiences of people
  2. A literary genre which expresses events and activities that took place in the past
  3. A work of art that involves a lot of creativity in its creation
  4. Anything imaginary where animals are chiefly used as characters to present humans
  5. A work of art where expressions are made by using the word of mouth
  1. Which one of the following group of words make up a literary genre
  1. Play, novel, drama
  2. Conflict, prose, drama
  3. Poetry, imaginations, story books
  4. Play, novel, poetry
  5. Poetry, short stories, narratives
  1.  One of the following characteristics best explains what fable is. Which one is it?
  1. An example of oral literature where animals are used as main characters to give morals to human beings
  2. An example of oral literature whereby lifestyle and history of heroes are presented to audience for judgment
  3. A type of literary genre whereby actions and mime dominates in making expressions
  4. A story with a very sad ending
  5. A story which expresses the past events in the present
  1. The following statements define functions of literature except
  1. Literature educates the society
  2. Literature warns the society
  3. Literature expresses people’s culture
  4. Literature liberates the society
  5. Literature tells people’s past
  1. Suppose you have a literary idea whereby conversation between characters and their emotions should be expressed throughout. You should write
  1. Novel B. Play C. Short story C. Poetry D. Prose E. Literary genre
  1. Which one of the following are sets of novels which are read under this program
  1.  The Old man and the Medal, Houseboy, The Concubine
  2. Three Suitors, one Husband, The Concubine, Freedom Song
  3. Atieno yo, The Old man and the Medal, Houseboy
  4. The Old man and the Medal, Kinjekitile, The Concubine
  5. A Walk in the Night, Secret Lives, Houseboy
  1. Match the descriptions in List A with the corresponding type of character in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided 

List A

List B

  1. Are puzzling questions meant to test the cleverness of an individual 
  2. A traditional/old narrative that tells us about great heroes, warriors and kings who supposedly lived before history was written down.
  3.  A story about imaginary beings and events containing some supernatural powers or elements of magic
  4.    A lengthy fictitious narrative
  5.  A literary genre characterized with emotions and economic use of language and figures of speech
  1. Legend
  2. Myth
  3. Riddle
  4. Play
  5. Novel
  6. Poetry
  7.  Written literature
  8. Fairy tales

SECTION B (40 marks)

  1. Write very short notes on the following literary terms
  1. Literary genre
  2. Written literature
  3. Character
  4. Poet
  5. Author 
  1. Read the following poem and answer the questions that follow

Eat more fruit! The slogan say

More fish, more beef, more bread

But I’m on an unemployment, no pay

My third year now and wed

And so I wonder when I’ll see 

The slogan when I pass 

The only one that would suit me

Eat more bloody grass!

  1. What is this poem about?
  2. Who do you think the persona is? Briefly explain your answer
  3. Mention two themes from the poem
  4. Comment of the structure of the poem 
  5. What message do you get from this poem?
  1. Give one word for the following literary explanations 
  1. A situation whereby there is a disagreement between two or more people
  2. writing technique that presents earlier scenes or events from the past that appears in a narrative out of chronological order to fill in information or explain something in the present
  3. Is the environment in which the events in literature take place, it can be geographical
  4. Someone who writes a play
  5. The central idea which is communicated in a literary work
  1. Compare and contrast the following literary terms
  1. Play and novel
  2. Author and poet
  3. Character and persona
  4. Oral literature and written literature

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer ALL questions from this section

  1. Explain how play is different from novels. Give five reasons
  2. Give and explain five reasons that make poetry different from prose
  3. Mention three examples of
  1. Play
  2. Poetry

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE LITERATURE EXAM SERIES 72

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

   ANNUAL   EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-NOVEMBER 2021 

PHYSICS 1

 

Instructions

l. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.

2.  Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.

3.  Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B sixty (60) marks and section C carries twenty five (25) marks.

4.  Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.

5.  Non-Programmable calculators may be used.

6.  Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

 

  1. Where necessary the following constants may be used:

(i)Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s2 or 10 N/kg

(ii)Specific heat capacity of mercury is 1395 J/kg°C

(iii) 1g of water is equivalent to 1 cm3 

(iv)    Pi = 3.14.            

SECTION A (30 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)The correct formula to find the elastic force constant (k) of a spring is

  1. Tension/extension
  2. mass/extension
  3. extension/mass
  4. extension/tension
  5. tension/mass

(ii) Why is oil used as a lubricant?

  1. It has low density.
  2. It is highly viscous.
  3. It is flammable.
  4. it is inflammable    
  5. It is less viscous. https://myfiles.space/user_files/30996_4958b541bbe404eb/1567953102_phy2018_files/image005.jpg

(iii)Which one is a characteristic of a plane mirror?

  1. It forms image which is real and opaque.
  2. It forms an image which is larger than the object.
  3. It forms an image which is real and laterally inverted
  4. It forms an image which has the same size as the object.
  5. It forms an image which is smaller in size than the object.

(iv) In a light experiment, the results showed that less light was transmitted and the image was distorted. Which type of material was used?

  1. A translucent material
  2. An opaque material
  3. A luminous material 
  4. A transparent material
  5. A non-luminous material

 (v)  What quantity of heat is required to raise the temperature of 25 kg sample of mercury from 20°C to 30°C?

  1. 1,743,750J
  2. 348,750J
  3. 345,750J
  4. 413,750J
  5. 1,550,750J

(vi) Why is Mercury preferred in clinical thermometers as a thermometric of a liquid to water and alcohol?

  1. It is denser than other liquids.
  2. It is opaque and does not need colouring.
  3. It is more sensitive to temperature.
  4. It is active and does not wet the glass. 
  5. It is a poor conductor of heat.

 (vii) Which of the following is an example of a scalar quantity?

  1. Electric current 
  2. Force
  3. Velocity
  4. Displacement
  5. Acceleration

(viii)What role does the iris play in the human eye?

  1. To hold the lens in position.
  2. To prevent internal reflection.
  3. To control the size of the pupil.
  4. To control the thickness of the lens.
  5. To protect the eye from light.

(ix) A launderer was thinking about a proper day for washing and drying clothes. Which day would he prefer most among the following?

  1. Dry day 
  2. Hot day 
  3. Windy day
  4. Still day 
  5. Cold day

 (x) What will be the resistivity of a wire 2 metres long with a cross-sectional area of 0.50 mm2 and a resistance of 2.20? 

  1.  5.5 x 10-7 ?m 
  2.  6.5 xlO-7?m 
  3. 2.3 x 10-7 ?m 
  4.  1.1 x 10-6?m
  5.  5.5 x 10-6?m.

2. Match the items in List A with responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Materials that can strongly be magnetized.

(ii) Substance which are made up of soft iron.

(iii) Materials that cannot be affected by magnets.

(iv) Objects which are made up of steel.

(v) Groups of magnetic dipoles arranged themselves in a magnetized object.

 

  1. Paramagnetic
  2. Temporary magnets
  3. Zinc and Copper
  4. Permanent magnets
  5. Magnetic domains
  6. Earth’s magnetic field
  7. Induced magnetism
  8. Magnetization
  9. Demagnetization
  10. Permeable
  11. Neutral point
  12. Ferromagnetic
  13. Magnetic field


 

 


SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

 

3. (a) Briefly explain why hydrometer 

(i) is weighed with lead shots.

 (ii) has a narrow stem.

(b)    A piece of rubber of volume 100 cm3    and the density of 0.45 g/cm3 floats in water. Calculate:

(i) The volume of rubber that partially immersed in water.

(ii) The force required to immerse the rubber completely.

4.       (a) List four factors which affect the rate of evaporation of liquids.

(b)    (i)  Define relative humidity.

(ii)  Calculate the relative humidity given that the reading on dry bulb hydrometer is 24°C and the wet bulb temperature reading is 16°C.

(c)    With the aid of a sketched graph, explain how temperature affects the saturated vapour pressure of water.

5. (a) Briefly explain why hydrometer 

(i) is weighed with lead shots.

 (ii) has a narrow stem.

 (b)    A piece of rubber of volume 100 cm3    and the density of 0.45 g/cm3 floats in water. Calculate:

(i) The volume of rubber that partially immersed in water.

(ii) The force required to immerse the rubber completely.

6. (a) How does the increase of length and cross-section area of a conductor affect its resistance?

(b) (i) State the function of a circuit breaker in a wiring system.

(ii) Determine the ratio of resistance of wire A to that of wire B which are made up of the same material such that wire A has half the length and twice the diameter of wire B.

7. (a) Give two examples which illustrate the rectilinear propagation of light.

(b) (i) The refractive index of light passing from water to air is 3/4. Calculate the critical angle. (ii) Outline two differences between primary and secondary rainbows.

(c)    In Figure 1, identify the names of colours labeled A, B, C, D, E, F and G.

https://myfiles.space/user_files/30996_4958b541bbe404eb/1582015012_physics2018_files/image002.png 

11. (a) Mention two practical examples in our daily life in which the principle of conservation of energy is applied.

(b)(i) What is a simple pendulum.

(ii) Describe the energy changes that take place when a simple pendulum swings from one side to another.

(c)Name a machine or an apparatus used to change the following forms of energy.

  1. Heat energy to mechanical energy.
  2. Mechanical energy to electrical energy.
  3. Electrical energy to sound energy.
  4. Sound energy to electrical energy.
  5. Heat energy to electrical energy.

 

 

SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section

9. (a) State the following rules: 

(i)  Cork screw rule.

 (ii)       Dynamo rule.

(b)    (i) Give one structural difference between A.C. and D.C. generators. 

(ii)      Mention one application of induction coil.

(c)    Figure 2 shows a transformer used to step down power. Assuming that there are no power losses, what will be the ammeter reading on the output part?

https://myfiles.space/user_files/30996_4958b541bbe404eb/1582015012_physics2018_files/image003.png 

10. (a) (i) What is meant by the term thermal expansion?

      (ii) Mention two applications of thermal expansion of solids.

(b)    (i) List three areas where bimetallic strips are used.

  (ii) Why a bimetal strip made of brass and invar is curved outside with brass?

(c)    Describe how simple fire alarm system operates.

11.(a) (i) What are sustainable energy sources?

(ii) State four applications of energy generated from water.

(b)(i) Define geothermal energy.

(ii)Briefly explain how geothermal energy can be harnessed.

(c)(i) What is a windmill?

(ii)Mention three disadvantages of energy caused by wind. (iii) Does wind itself possess energy? Explain.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 71

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY    ANNUAL   EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-NOVEMBER 2021 

 

Instructions

  1.                This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2.                Answer all questions in sections A and B and one (1) question from section C.
  3.                Sections A and C carry fifteen (15) marks each and section B carries seventy (70) marks.
  4.                Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.                Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).
  6.                The following constants may be used.

 H 1,    C = 12,  0=16,    N = 14,  Cu = 64,   Pb = 108.

                  A vogadros number = 6.02 x 1023.

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4 dm3.

1 Faraday = 96,500 coulombs.

Standard pressure = 760 mm Hg.

Standard temperature = 273 K.

1 litre = 1 dm3 = 1000 cm3.


 

SECTION A (20 Marks) 

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) (x), choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number.

 (i) Which of the following is an agricultural chemical products made by the application of chemistry?

  1.              Drugs           
  2.              Pesticides        
  3.              Clothes 
  4.              Yeasts 
  5.               Cement.

 (ii) A current of 0.2 A was passed through an electrolyte for 16 minutes and 40 seconds. What is the quantity of electricity produced in coulombs?

  1.               2000 C  
  2.              1000 C 
  3.               200 C 
  4.               0.20 C 
  5.                7686 C.

(iii) Substance X liberates chlorine gas from acidified potassium chloride. The behaviour of X is described as:

  1.   an oxidising agent    
  2.   an oxidising and reducing agent
  3.   catalyst   
  4.   a reducing agent
  5.   bleaching agent.

(iv) Which carbonate is the most stable to heat?

  1.               Calcium carbonate   
  2.               Copper (II) carbonate
  3.               Lead (II) carbonate 
  4.               Zinc carbonate 
  5.               .Iron (II) carbonate.

(v)  Aluminium does not react with water and does not corrode much in air because

  1.               it is below hydrogen in the reactivity series
  2.               it forms a stable carbonate which prevents reactions
  3.               the metal is covered with a protective coating of an oxide 
  4.               aluminium ions have positive charges
  5.                it is very stable.

(vi) Which of the following compounds does NOT belong to the alkenes homologous series?

  1.               C2H4 
  2.               C3H6  
  3.               C4H 8 
  4.               C5H10 
  5.                C6H 14.

(vii) In the following equilibrium equation, 2S02(g) +O2(g) https://myfiles.space/user_files/30996_4958b541bbe404eb/1581488537_chem2018_files/image001.png 2S03 The forward reaction is exothermic. Which change would increase the production of sulphur trioxide at equilibrium?

  1.               Increasing temperature
  2.               Decreasing temperature
  3.               Decreasing sulphur trioxide concentration 
  4.              Decreasing pressure 
  5.               Adding a catalyst.

(viii) When a burning fuel produces blue color it means there is

  1.    adequate supply of oxygen with production of soot.
  2.     inadequate supply of oxygen without production of soot. 
  3.     inadequate supply of oxygen with production of soot.
  4.     adequate supply of oxygen with production of less heat.
  5.      adequate supply of oxygen with production of more heat.

(ix)  Which of the following equations represents the combustion of methane with the products collected at 120oC?

  1.               CH4(l) +2O2(g) →CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)
  2.               CH4(g) +2O2(l) →CO2(s) + 2H2O(l)
  3.               CH4(g) +2O2(g) →CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)
  4.               CH4(l) +2O2(l) →CO2(l) + 2H2O(g)
  5.                CH4(l) +2O2(g) →CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)

   (x) Which of these can be reduced when heated with carbon?

  1.               Aluminium  
  2.              Calcium carbonate
  3.              Iron (III) oxide 
  4.              Magnesium oxide 
  5.                Sodium oxide.

 


2.   Match the items in List A with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided. Match the items in List A with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct            

List A

List B

  1.  A gas with pungent choking smell and forms misty.
  2.   A compound used in domestic water - softening.
  3.  The hardest allotrope of carbon.
  4.  A gas which turns lime-water milky.
  5.  A substance which is amorphous form of carbon.
  1.               Carbon dioxide
  2.               Carboxylic acids
  3.               Iron (III) oxide
  4.               Nitrogen
  5.                Diamond
  6.                Sodium carbonate
  7.               Hydrogen chloride
  8.               Sulphur
  9.                  Graphite 
  10.                 Ethanol
  11.               Chlorine
  12.                Calcium
  13.             Ammonia gas
  14.               Plastic sulphur
  15.               Coke


SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) Define the following terms: 

  1. Neutralization.
  2. Unsaturated solution.
  3. Thermal decomposition.

(b) State three main physical properties of water and show the usefulness of each property.

(c)   State three industrial application of electrolysis.

 

4.   (a) Copper obtained from copper pyrites (CuFeS2) is impure for electrical wiring and has to be purified by electrolysis.

(i) Name the electrolyte and the electrodes used during electrolysis. 

(ii) Write the observations that can be made during the electrolysis.

(b) The following flow diagram shows the stages in the contact process

https://myfiles.space/user_files/30996_4958b541bbe404eb/1581488537_chem2018_files/image002.jpg

 (i)     Give the names of element A, catalyst B and an acid C.

 (ii)  Write  a balanced chemical equation for the formation of sulphur trioxide in stage 2

5. (a) Suggest one method of separating each of the following:

(i)             Green solution from leaves. 

(ii)      Alcohol from water.

 (b)   Elements K, L, M and N have atomic numbers 6, 8, 9 and 20 respectively. Classify each element into its respective period and group.

6.  (a) Give one example in each of the following:

 (i) Alkali earth metals.

(ii)  Noblegases .

(iii) Transition elements.

(b) Write the names of the following processes of changing matter from one state to another.

(i) Gas to liquid. 

(ii) Ga s to solid. 

(iii) Solid t o gas .

7 (a) Define the following:

   ( i ) Mole .

 ( i i ) Molarmass .

(b) 112 dm3 of oxygen gas was collected at s.t.p when a sample of lead nitrate was completely decomposed by heat. Calculate the volume of nitrogen dioxide gas produced.

8. (a)   Identify and state the environmental problem caused by the gas which is released from the blast furnace in the extraction of iron from its oxide.

(b)  The following equation shows the reaction between hydrogen and iodine gas to form hydrogen iodide gas,H2(g)  + I2(g)  ↔ 2HI (g) ?H= -800Kj/mol.                   Giving a reason, explain what would happen to the position of equilibrium if 

(i) temperature is lowered.

(ii) hydrogen iodide gas is pumped into the system.

9.  (a) Name two elements which are expected to show similar chemical reaction with magnesium. What is the basis for your choice?

(b) State the main raw material and the process involved in the manufacture of the following products.

  1. Wood charcoal
  2. Coke
  3. Lampblack.

 

(c) (i) Name the compound which causes temporary hardness of water and the compound which causes permanent hardness of water.

(ii) Write one balanced chemical equation in each case to show how to remove temporary and permanent hardness of water.

10. (a) Suggest one best method for separating each of the following mixtures:

(i)  Common salt and water

(ii) Iodine and sand.

(iii) Pieces of iron and sand.

 (b) Carbon dioxide can be prepared by adding an acid to calcium carbonate.

(i) Using a named acid, write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction. (ii) Name all the products formed in (b) (i).

 11 . ( a ) With the aid of a chemical equation, describe how you would prepare pure solid sodium chloride by the action of an acid and a base.

  (b) (i) Why petroleum and coal are non-renewable sources of energy?

(ii) Give three alternatives to non-renewable sources of energy. 

 12. Three moles of nitrogen gas combine with five moles of hydrogen gas to form ammonium gas by Haber process.

  1.                 Which reactant is present in smaller amount?
  2.                 Calculate the grams of the reactant left in the container.
  3.                 How many moles of NH3 are produced?
  4.                 How many litres of NH3 are produced at STP?

 


SECTION C (15 Marks)

Answer one (1) question in this section.

13.(a) Give three advantages of using chemical equations over word equations.

(b) You are provided with a compound composed of 22.2% zinc, 11.6% sulphur, 22.3% oxygen, and the rest percentage is water of crystallization. Calculate the molecular formula of the compound if its molecular mass is 283.

14. Explain six measures for minimizing the environmental degradation caused by extraction of metals in Tanzania.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 70

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS   ANNUAL   EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-NOVEMBER 2021

CODE  011                                                       CIVICS

 

TIME: 3:00  HOURS 

 

INSTRUCTIONS:

 

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B & C.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only three questions in section C.
  3. Section A carry 15 marks, section B carry 40 marks and section C carry 45 marks
  4. Cellular phones are not allowed in the Examination Room
  5. Write your Examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

 

 

 

SECTION A: (15 MARKS)

 

  1. For each of the items (i)-(x). choose the correct among the given alternatives and write it letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided:
  1. The ability of a person to feel and share another person’s emotion is known as:

 A: Self-esteem    B: Self-worth

 C: Empathy    D: Self-assertive

 E: Love

 

  1. Which among the following institutions is a social security scheme?

 A: NMB  B: CRDB          C: NBC  

 D: PSPF  E: TPB

 

  1. After Nyaburuma researching democratic practices in his country established that citizens, stands for election, vote to select leader, attend, political meeting join private voluntary organization and protest against the government to which principle of democracy does this evidence point?

 A: Respect of human rights  B: Citizen, participation

 C: Separation of power   D: Rule of law

 D: Free and fair election

 

 

 

  1. The following are the responsibilities of the president of Tanzania as prescribed by the constitution except:

 A: Head of ruling political party 

 B: Head of the public services

 C: Head of the state

 D: Head of the government affairs

 E: Commander in chief of the Armed forces

 

  1. Many Tanzanians fail to get loans from the banks due to:

 A: Lack of entrepreneur skills and security

 B: Lack of proper identification

 C: Lack of enough financial institution

 D: Ignorance

 E: Most Tanzanians to do not need loans

 

  1. Many Tanzanians societies believe that boys are superior than girls. By using this statement which concept of Gender is this?

A: Gender discrimination  B: Gender mainstreaming

C: Gender blindness  D: Gender analysis

E: Gender stereotyping 

 

  1. The member of Parliament for Mkwajuni constituency passed away seven months after the general election. What can be done to get another representative?

 A: Call for general election

 B: Wait for the next general election

 C: Calls for by election

 D: The president nominates another person

 E: The National Electoral Commission nominate another person

 

  1. Soon after being registered every political party formulate its own:

 A: Cabinet   B: Vision, mission and policies

 C: Couples   D: National constitution

 E: The government within the country

 

  1. Selecting the best option after learning the consequences of each option is called:

 A: Problem solving skills  B: Self awareness

 C: Creative thinking  D: Rational Decision making

 E: Self esteem

 

 

  1. Which of the following are the major pillars of the state?

 A: Executive, armed forces and legislature

 B: The President the speaker and the Prime Minister

 C: The President, the Prime Minister and the Chief Justice 

 D: Executive, armed forces and Judiciary

 E: Executive, Legislature and Judiciary

 

  1. Match the items in List A with the correct response in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer sheet provided:

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A set of rules which set standards for the accepted behaviors in a society.

 

  1. Pattern of conduct shared by the people in a given community but always change with time.

 

  1. Practices that persisted in a society for a long time and do not change.

 

  1. Ability of using imagination to express ideas through writing and sculpturing.

 

  1. Simple technology or skill of producing things such as pottery and basketry.

 

  1. Crafts
  2. Customs
  3. Traditions
  4. Material culture
  5. Norms
  6. Antiquities
  7. Arts

 

SECTION B: (40 MRKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

 

  1. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions which follow:

 

 Suicide is one of the critical problems of adolescents today. This disastrous act is committed for different reasons. Some adolescents often feel that death is the only way out of intolerable situations. Those terminally ill and those in capacities by serious illness or injuries commit suicide to avoid further pain. Yet others commit suicide to draw attention, to teach those who hurt them a lesson and to punish themselves for the shame they might have caused to others.

 

 Most adolescents who commit suicide do so as a reaction to previous distressing events. Such common events include conflicts within the adolescent’s families, their failure to live up to the parents’ or guardians’ expectations and the adolescent’s failure to develop adequate interpersonal relationships within their families. These events often lead to suicide signals such as threatening to commit suicide or displaying actual tendencies to suicide and serious suicide attempts whereby the adolescent survives or lead to actual suicide.

 

 The signals of suicide among adolescent includes previous attempts, threat to commit suicide, feeling of alienation and loneliness and the presence of mental illness especially depression. Other signals are lack of adequate impulse control, unexpected severe and prolonged stress and negative emotions.

 

 QUESTIONS:

  1. Provide a suitable title for the passage
  2. What is the attitude of some adolescents toward death?
  3. Mention any two factors from the passage that compel some of the youth to commit suicide.
  4. List down any two suicide signals the adolescents
  5. What is the altitude of the author towards suicide tendencies among the adolescents?

 

  1. In five points signify the effect of poverty in any society.

 

  1. Suppose you are the community development officer, explain to the community the role of the government in economic development  to Tanzanians. (Five points)

 

  1. Provide five points, showing the non-union matters of the Unite Republic of Tanzania to Tanzanians.

 

  1. In five points, identify the problems that face women in Tanzania.

 

  1. If you are to deliver a talk to your community on life skills, which five merits of life skills will you consider?

 

  1. Suppose you have graduated O’ level studies at Mchapakazi secondary school. You have now employed as a Permanent Development Office. What advice would you give to the students on the importance of work to self-development.

 

 

 

SECTION C: (45 MARKS)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries 15 marks.

 

  1. Discuss five (5) strategies that can be used to alleviate poverty to the third world countries like Tanzania.

 

  1. Tanzania is a signatory of the 1984 United Nations Declaration of Human Rights. To what extent are human rights protected in Tanzania? Provide five points.

 

12.  What evidence would you use to show the importance of social development in a society? Give five points,

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 69

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

ENGLISH LANGUAGE  ANNUAL   EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-NOVEMBER 2021

(For both School and Private Candidates)

CODE 022

TIME: 3:00 HOURS_________________________________________________________

 

INSTRUCTIONS:

 

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C
  2. Answer ALL questions in section A and B and three (03) questions from section C
  3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B carries forty (40) marks and section C forty- five (45) marks.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  5. Write your examination number of every page of your sheet/booklet(s)

 

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

 

  1. For each of the following items (i-x), choose the must correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet(s)

 

(i) She is the_________ in form four class

 A: Tall  B: Tallest  C: Taller

 D: More tall E: Most tall

 

(ii) We have _______ rice

 A: Eat  B: Eaten  C: Eating

 D: Had eat E: Eats

 

(iii) Her mother suffered ______ malaria

 A: From  B: Of  C: with

 D: at  E: off

 

(iv) He ______ to do it now

 A: Is wanting B: Wanted C: Has wanted

 D: Wants  E: want

 

(v) The earth_______ round the sun

 A: Moves  B: move  C: Is moving

 D: Moved  D: was move

 

 

(vi) Aneth _________ the school compound

 A: Clean  B: Cleans  C: Cleaning

 D: Cleaned E: Is cleaning

 

(vii) Salome ________ working in the garden when you came:

 A: Are             B:    Is             C:    was           D:   were           E:    Has

 

(viii) If were you, I __________ this examination

 A: won’t fail   B: Don’t fail 

 C: I am not going to fail

 D: would not fail   E: will not fail

 

(ix) Her performance is ________ than it was a year ago

 A: Good   B: Best  C: very better

 D: More better  E: Better

 

(x) When the light went off, I ___________ my super 

 A: Has eaten  B: Have eating  

 C: Was eating  D: I am eating     E:    Had eaten

 

 

  1. Match each expression in List A with the correct word in List B by writing, its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided:

 

LIST A

LIST B

  1. The teacher with his pupils
  2. Virus
  3. A place where books are kept in school
  4. A box like in which the dead is put
  5. Many people will die of hunger
  1. Grave
  2. Were playing tennis
  3. Library
  4. A very small living thing that causes disease
  5. Were cheap in price
  6. Coffin
  7. But he is careless
  8. Unless the government stakes quick measures
  9. Is playing football
  10. Class

 

 

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

 

  1. Add the question tags to the following sentences:
  1. You posted my letter
  2. Juma drinks too much
  3. The bus left early
  4. He was tired of waiting

 

 

 

 

  1. Write sounds of the following creatures
  1. The sound of a dog__________
  2. The sound of a lion__________
  3. The sound of a cow___________
  4. The sound of a snake __________

 

  1. Assign the nouns with the correct explanations below:
  1. A piece of furniture on which people sleep________
  2. A piece of furniture with back and four legs which one person sits___
  3. A piece of furniture that consists of a flat top supported by legs_____
  4. A backless seat with legs consists of small flat top _____________

 

  1. Change the following direct speed sentences into indirect speech
  1. “They will sing tomorrow”, Mr. Jabu said
  2. “Have you ever see these men”? I asked Mama Aisha.
  3. We said “We ate all the meat”
  4. My mother ordered, “sweep the floor at once”

 

  1. The following is the timetable showing daily activities done by Alex. Complete the sentence A – During the information given in the time table.

5:00am  - Wake up

5:00am – 5:15 - praying

5:15am – 5:45 - do general cleaning and take breakfast

6:00am  - go to school

4:00pm - go back home

Example:  Alex wake up 5:00am every day

 

a. _________________________________

b. _________________________________

c. _________________________________

d. _________________________________

 

  1. With example list down four (4) uses of article `THE`

 

SECTION C (45 MARKS)

Answer any three (03) questions from this section

 

9. Argue against the statement "Digital revolution has spoilt the world". Use six points in not more than 250 words.

 

LIST OF READINGS

 

NOVEL AND SHORT STORIES

A Wreath for Fr. Mayor -S.N. Ndunguru (1977) MkukinaNyota

Unanswered Cries  - Osman Conteh, Macmillian

Passed Like a Shadow  - B.M. Mapalala (2006) DUP

Spared    - S. N. Ndunguru

Weep Not child  - NgugiwaThiong’o (1977) Heinmann

The Interview   - NgugiwaThiong’o (2002) Macmillian

 

PLAYS:

Three suitors One Husband - O. Mbia (19940 Eyre Methuren

The Lion and The Jewel - Ole Soyinka (1963) DUP

The Black Hermit  - NgugiwaThiong’o  (1968) Heinmann

This Time Tomorrow  - NgugiwaThiong’o (1972) Macmillian

 

 

POETRY

Song of Lawino and Ocol - O.p`Nitek (1979) EAPH

Growing Up with Petry - D. Rubadiri (ed)(1972) Heinmann

Summons   - R.S. Mabala (1960) T.P.H

 

 

10. Figures of speech are used not only to make the work of art beautiful, but also to convey the message intended by the playwright to the readers. Validate this statement using two plays that you have studied in this section. Give four points from each reading.

11. Analyse the causes of conflicts in the two plays that you have studied in this section. Give four points from each reading.

12. With reference to two poems you have studied in this section, comment on the poet’s use of language. Give four points from each poem.                                                                                    

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 68

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY   ANNUAL   EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-NOVEMBER 2021 

(For both School and Private Candidates)

CODE 012

TIME: 3:00 HOURS______________________________________________________

 

INSTRUCTIONS

 

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of nine (09) questions
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and three (03) questions from section C.
  3. All drawings should be in pencil
  4. Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheet provided.

 

SECTION A (20 MARKS)

Answer All questions in this section

 

  1. For each of the items (i-xv) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided:
  1. Human activities against nature and production relations are fully understood through the study of:

 A: Archaeology  B: Literature

 C: History  D: Museums

 E: Archives

 

  1. Man started to be skillful and tool maker at the stage of:

A: Homo sapiens   B: Homo erectus

C: Homo habilis   D: Modern apes

E: Zinjanthropus

 

  1. Dr. Robert Moffat worked as a missionary in one of the following stations:

A: Salisbury   B: Kuruman

C: Blantyre   D: Maposeni

E: Rabai

 

  1. The Portuguese conquest of East Africa Coast was led by:

A: King Emmanuel  B: Ahmed Ibin Majid

C: Henry the Navigator  D: Vasco Salgado

E: Francesco D’ Almeida

 

 

  1. The leader of Chimulenga Uprising of 1896-1897 in Rhodesia were

A: Mkwati and Kinjikitile

B: Singinyamatish and Lobengula

C: Mkwati and Singinyamatish

D: Mkwati and Lobengula

E:   Lobengula and Rumunguru

 

  1. One of the notable United Nations failures in its objectives is its inability to:

A: Control food shortage

B: Eradicate colonial rule

C: Establish tributes for war criminals

D: Prevent big powers from violating its principles

E: Control poverty in Africa

 

  1. The core ideas of French Revolution were:

A: Slave trade, colonialism and Neo-colonialism

B: Market, raw materials and Cheap labour

C: Communalism, slavery and feudalism

D: Fratenity Liberty and Equality

E:   Scramble, Partition and Bogus treaties

 

  1. Asante was one of the forest states which resisted against the:

A: French   B: Germans C: Belgians

D: Dutch   E: British

 

  1. One of the features of Monopoly capitalism was:

A: The emergency of financial capital

B: The emergence of new small capitalist

C: A tremendous decline of commercial activities

D: Export of raw materials

E: Import of manufactured goods

 

  1. African countries have tried to bring about real independence through:

A: Setting new factories and political instabilities in Africa

B: Improving communication systems and military coups

C: Expanding Education and Agricultural practices

D: Establishing heavy industries and free market economy

E: Expanding agricultural production and administering trust territories

 

  1. Which of the following societies in West Africa were famous in using copper alloys for making various ornaments?

A: Ibo and Yoruba  B: Venda and Mashona

C: Maganja and Fulani  D: Yoruba and Mandika

E: Mandika and Ibo

 

  1. What is the most supreme organs of United Nations Organization?

A: Trusteeship council  B: Secretariat

C: Security Council  D: General Assembly

E: International court of Justice

 

  1. The period which man was able to make chopping and pebble tools s known as:

A: Late Stone Age  B: Old Stone Age

C: Middle Stone Age  D: Iron Age

E: Industrial Age

 

  1. Which among the following places did people extract salt from salt bearing rocks?

A: Uvinza and Taghaza  B: Taghaza and Bilma

C: Axum and Taghaza  D: Meroe and Egypt

E: Uvinza and Bilma

 

  1. The British colonial rule in East Africa constructed the Uganda railway in order to:

A: Attract more Europeans settlers to Kenya

B: Compete with the Imperial German East African rule

C: Provide cheap means of Transport for the East Africa People

D: Gain Easy access to resources surrounding the interlacustrine area

E: Facilitate Transportation of suppressive soldiers against the rebel Buganda

 

  1. Match the items in List a with those in B by writing the letter of the correct answer in the able provided:

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Khoi khoi
  2. 1806
  3. SamoriToure
  4. Mashoeshoe
  5. Vasco da Gama
  1. Mandika empire
  2. Founded Oyo Empire
  3. Introduced new method of fighting in Sotho kingdom
  4. The British and control of the cape
  5. Earliest inhabitants of southern Africa.
  6. Founded so the kingdom
  7. Linked Africa to Portuguese merchantalism
  8. Introduced barter system in south Africa
  9. Facilitated indirect rule in Uganda

 


SECTION B

 

  1. Briefly explain the following historical information

(i) Association

(ii) Mfecane ware

(iii) The Boer trek

(iv) Trans-Saharan trade

(v) Common wealth

(vi) Why Indirect rule was direct rule

 

 

  1. Arrange the following statements into chronological order by writing number 1 to 6 beside the item number:
  1. In 1964, Nelson Mandela was arrested and sent to jail.

 

  1. In 1949 the youth league launched its “programme of action” which aimed at attainment of freedom white domination.

 

  1. 3 National congress (SANNC) in 1912.

 

  1. African National Congress (ANC) led by Nelson Mandela established its armed wing known as “Umkonto we Swize” (spear of the nation) which immediately embarked upon military operations within south Africa.

 

  1. The imposition of capitalist relations of production in south Africa unlike other parts of the continent is underlined by racism. This made nationalist struggles in South Africa to be more complicated and long.

 

  1. The leaders who were not imprisoned such as Oliver Thambo fled into exile and tried to set up an ANC wing in friendly countries like Tanzania and Zambia.

 

  1. Draw a sketch of Africa on it locate the sites of African resistance.

 (i) A resistance fought between the African and German in South West                                           Africa

(ii) A resistance that African managed to fight for a long time with French in               West Africa

 (iii) A resistance that took place in in un colonized African nation in North                                           East of Africa.

(iv) Resistance between African and German with took place in 1891

(v) Shona and Ndebele fought against British on 1896 – 1897.

  

SECTION C 

  1. Explain six techniques used by colonialist to obtain labour during colonial period.

 

  1. Analyse six methods that were used by the imperialists in imposing their rule in Africa.

 

  1. The inherited problems from the colonial past are the hindrances to the development of African societies after independence. Justify this statement by giving six points.

 

  1. “It is historically understood that, the last country to attain her political independence was South Africa” With six (6) points explain the methods that were employed by black society in South Africa in the struggle for their liberation

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 67

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY   ANNUAL   EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-NOVEMBER 2021 

(For both School and Private Candidates)

 

CODE 033/1

TIME: 3:00 HOURS ___________________________________________________________                                                                                 

 

INSTRUCTIONS:

 

 

  1.                This paper consists of sections A, B and C.
  2.                Answer All questions in section A, B and two (2) question from section C, question (13) is compulsory.
  3.                Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

 

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

  1.                Choose the correct answer

(i) Disease which spread quickly and affect the large number of people for a short  time is:

 A: Pandemic disease  B: Endemic disease

 C: Epidermic disease  D: AIDS

 E: Typhoid

 

(ii) On the microscope the STAGE is a part which:

 A: Direct the light to the object under observation

 B: Hold the object to be observed

 C: Move fine adjustment knob so as to obtain a clear mage of the object

 D: Magnify the object under observation

 E: Support the objective lens

 

(iii) Which of the following are hormone concerned with regulation of sugar

 in the blood 

 A: Adrenaline hormone, thyroxine hormone

 B: Auxins hormone and insulin hormone

 C: Prolaction, oxytocin

 D: Insulin, glucagon

 E: Oestrogen, progesterone

 

(iv) Oxygenated blood is found in arteries except:

 A: Aorta    B: Subclaria artery

 C: Pulmonary artery  D: Pulmonary vein

 E: Vein

 

(v) Blood group in genetics is an example of:

 A: Dominance   B: Continuous variation

 C: Gametogenesis  D: Epistosis

 E: Discontinuous variation

 

(vi) The word cell is derived from the Latic word “cellula” which means a:

 A: Unit of life    B: Little room

 C: Cork from the bark of the tree  D: Living thing

 E: Robert Hook

 

(vii) Organisms can either be:

 A: Unicellular or Prokaryote  B: Living thing or Eukaryote

 C: Living thing or Non-living thing D: Multicellular or Unicellular

 E: Multicellulalr or Unicellular  

 

(viii) Pick up the wrong statement

 A: All organisms respire   

 B: Some fungi are edible

 C: Protoctista have photosynthetic and heterotrophic mode of nutrition

 D: Cell wall is absent in Animalia

 E: Nuclear membrane is absent in Animalia

 

(ix) One of the major component of the cell was of most fungi is:

 A: Chitin   B:     Cellulose                      C:   Starch   

 D: Lipids   E:      Phospholipid bilayer

 

(x) Group of sporangia borne on the underside of fern leaves are called:

 A: Tholus   B: Protholus  C: Fronds

 D: Fiddle head  E: Sori

2. Match the functions of components of the skeleton in List A with their corresponding components of the skeleton in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1.                       Axial component which protects the delicate internal organs such as lungs and the heart.
  2.                       Axial component which protects the brain and provide area for attachment of the neck.
  3.                       Appendicular component which provide large surface area for muscle attachment and a base for articulation with hind limbs.
  4.                       Axial component which protects the spinal cord.
  5.                       Appendicular component which provide large surface area for muscle attachment and a base for articulation with upper arm bones.

 

  1.              Pivot 
  2.              Vertebral column
  3.              Lumbar
  4.              Pelvic girdle
  5.              Cervical
  6.               Rib cage
  7.              Skull
  8.              Pectoral girdle

 

 

 

SECTION B:

 

  1.                (a) Define the following terms as used in Biology

 (i) An accident

 (ii) Burning

 (iii) Safety

 (iv) First aid kit

 

(b) Explain shortly why is important to dispose waste properly

 

  1.                It has been observed that some people dispose waste around the lake which supply water to the surrounding community. Briefly explain three problems which are likely to happen to the area.

 

  1.                Study carefully the following food chain then answer the questions that follow:

 

(a) Which of the above organisms are:

 (i) Herbivores                        (ii)     Consumers

 

(b) (i) Name other organisms that can replace the bacteria from the food chain in                              5 above

 (ii) Outline two advantages of food chain

 

  1.                Alex complain of having burning sensation around the chest region

 (a) What digestive order is the facing?

 (b) Give three measure he should take to treat the disorder

 

  1.                (a) What is the difference between first aid and first aid kit?

(b) Outline five (5) importance of first aid to a victim

 

  1.                (a) Differentiate between responsible behaviour and risky behavior

(b) State two behaviors which may lead to the following risks

 (i) STD’s

   (ii) HIV infections

   (iii) Drug abuse

   (iv) Unplanned pregnancies

(c) Suggest two (2) ways on how to care and support a victim of HIV/AIDS.

 

8. (a) List any four macro-elements in plant nutrition.

 

(b) Explain the causes of any three common disorders and diseases of the human digestive system.

 

 

  1.                Consider that you are medical doctor and you have received a patient whose investigation a diagnosed kidney stone.

Suggest to the patient three possible causes and three control measures for kidney stones.

 

  1.            Reptiles are organisms whose body temperature is affected by environmental temperature. Briefly explain two ways that help reptiles to survive in different weather condition.

 

         12. (a) Briefly explain three importance of movement in plants and animals.

(b) State any five functions of the skeleton.

SECTION C

Answer two questions from this section, question number 13 is compulsory

 

  1.            Briefly explain the HIV/AIDS basing on the following guidelines
  •                  Meaning
  •                  Mode of transmission
  •                  Symptoms
  •                  Preventive measures
  •                  Effects
  •                  Treatment/cure

 

  14. (a) (i) List the five kingdoms into which organisms are placed.

             (ii) List the distinctive features of members of the kingdom to which a malaria vector belongs.

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 66

JAMHURI YA MUUNGANO WA TANZANIA

OFISI YA RAIS

TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

KIDATO CHA TATU 2021

MSIMBO: 021 KISWAHILI

MUDA: SAA 3:00                                                             AUG 2021

 

MAELEKEZO

  1.                Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B and C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na mbili (12)
  2.                Jibu maswali yote katika sehmu A na B na maswali matatu (03) kutoka sehemu C
  3.                Zingatia maagizo ya kila sehemu na kila swali
  4.                Andika namba yako ya mtihani katika kila ukurasa wa karatasi

SEHEMU A {Alama 15 }

Jibu maswali yote

  1.                Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika vipengele (i) hadi (x) kisha andika herufi ya jibu hilo katika karatasi yako ya kujibia.
  1. Tuimbe sote ni


  1.                 Wingi nafsi ya kwanza
  2.                Wingi nafsi ya pili
  3.                 Umoja nafsi ya kwanza
  4.                Umoja nafsi ya pili
  5.                 Wing nafsi ya tatu


 

  1. Kusoma kwake kwa bidii kumempatia mafanikio, Neno lililopigiwa mstari ni:


  1.                 Kitenzi
  2.                Kitenzzi kisaidizi
  3.                 Kitenzi jina
  4.                Kitenzi kikurupushi
  5.                 Nomino


 

  1. Jozi ipi ina vipengele sahihi vinavyounda umbo la ndani la kazi ya fasihi simulizi
  1.                 Falsafa, muundo, ujumbe, wahusika
  2.                Mandhari, msimamo, ujumbe, dhamira
  3.                 Ujumbe, mtizamo, migogoro, dhamira
  4.                Ujumbe, msimamo, dhamira, wahusika
  5.                 Lugha, migogoro, falsafa, mtindo

 

  1. Mpangilio sahihi wa vipashio vinavyounda lugha ya kiswahili ni upi
  1.                 Mofimu, kishazi, kirai, neno na sentensi
  2.                Mofimu, neno, kirai, sentensi na kishazi
  3.                 Neno, kirai, kishazi,  sentensi na mofimu
  4.                Neno, mofimu, kirai, kishazi na sentensi
  5.                 Mofimu, neno, kirai, kishazi na sentensi
  1. Ni jambo gani linalodhihirisha upekee wa kazi Fulani ya kifasihi


  1.                 Muundo wa kazi husika
  2.                Wahusika wa kazi husika
  3.                 Jina la kazi husika
  4.                Jina la mtunzi husika
  5.                 Mtindo wa kazi husika


  1. Ipi ni sehemu Ndogo sana ya lugha?


  1.                 Mofimu
  2.                Neno
  3.                 Herufi
  4.                Silabi
  5.                 Mofoloji


 

  1. Ni taratibu zipi zinazofuatwa na lugha fasaha:
  1.                 Kimaana, kimatamshi, kilafudhi, kimuundo
  2.                Kimatamshi, kimofolojia, kiufundi, kimaana
  3.                 Kimatamshi, kimaana, kimuundo, kimantiki
  4.                Kimantiki, kifonolojia, kimaana, kilafudhi
  5.                 Kilafudhi, kimuundo, kiufundi, kimaana

 

  1. Kwa nini lugha ni sauti za nasibu____________
  1.                 Kwa sababu inatumia ishara
  2.                Kwa sababu intumia sauti
  3.                 Kwa sababu inabeba maana
  4.                Kwa sababu inatumiwa na wanyama
  5.                 Kwa sababu inatumiwa na binadamu

 

  1. Ni sifa ipi hutofautisha fasihi simulizi na fasihi andishi?


  1.                 Ukubwa
  2.                Ueneaji
  3.                 Uwasilishaji
  4.                Uhifadhi
  5.                 Utamkaji


 

  1. Mhakiki wa kwanza katika kazi ya fasihi simulizi mfano wa igizo ni:


  1.                 Mtunzi
  2.                Mtazamaji
  3.                 Msomaji
  4.                Mwigizaji
  5.                 Mfasili


 

 

  1.                Oanisha maana za dhana za uandishi zilizo katika orodha A kwa kuchagua herufi ya dhana husika katika Orodha B, Kisha andika herufi husika katika karatasi yako ya kujibia:

ORODHA A

ORODHA B

  1. Irabu
  2. Sarufi
  3. Sentensi sahili
  4. Kidahizo
  5. Chagizo
  1.              Kiwakilishi cha a – unganifu
  2.               Tanzu ya lugha
  3.               Maana ya msingi
  4.              Inaotamkwa huwa hakuna kizuizi chochote kwenye mkondo wa hewa
  5.               Ina hadhi ya kishazi huru
  6.                Kitomeo na taarifa zake
  7.              Ni maneno yanayotokea baada ya kitenzi na kufanya kazi kama kielezi.

 

 

 

SEHEMU B (Alama 40)

 

  1.                Kwa kutumia mifano dhabiti fafanua dhana zifuatazo
  1.                 Urudufishaji
  2.                Uambishaji
  3.                 Kutohoa maneno
  4.                Ngeli

 

  1.                Maneno huweza kubadilika kutoka aina moja na kuwa aina nyingine “Dhihirisha kaulli hii kwa kubadili maneno yafuatayo kwa kuzingatia maelekezo yaliyo katika mabano
  1.                 Kwenda (Badili kuwa nomino)
  2.                Ogopa (Badili kuwa kivumishi)
  3.                 Mzazi (Badili kuwa kitenzi)
  4.                Linda (Badili kuwa nomino)
  5.                 Bisha (Badili kuwa kivumishi)
  6.                 Bora (Badili kuwa kitenzi)
  7.                Refu (Badili kuwa kitenzi
  8.                Kabati (Badili kuwa kielezi)

 

  1.                Kwa kutumia mifano kuntu fafanua tabia zisizopungau nne (4) za vitenzi vya kiswahili

 

  1.                Wewe na msaidizi wako mmehudhruria kikao cha kupanga mahafali ya kidato cha nne.  Andika kumbukumbu ya kikao kilichofanyika katika shule yenu.

 

  1.                Baada ya kiswahili kuteuliwa kuwa lugha ya Taifa vyombo mbalimbali viliundwa kwa lengo la kukuza na kueneza kiswahili dhibitisha dai hilo kwa kutumia asasi tatu (03)

 

  1.                Soma shairi lifuatalo kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata

 

  1.                Korona ugonjwa gani umezua taharuki;

Chanjo haipatikani Ulaya hakukaliki,

Tiba haijulikani, Dunia haifurukutu,

Korona ni maafa kujikinga lazima,

 

  1.                Hofu kubwa imetanda, wakubwa kwa wadogo;

Mafua, homa kupanda utaona uki”gugo”,

China mpaka mpanda, korona haina vigo,

Korona ina maafa kujikinga lazima

 

  1.                Walakini juu ya yote, mapenzi yameoteshwa,

Karantini kwa wotee, makapera wameoa,

Mabinti wasiopenzini, huu msimu wa ndoa

Korona ina maafa kujinginga lazima

 

 

 

  1.                Hakika baniani mbaya Kiatu chake dawa,

Wanandoa walishane penzi bila taabu,

Nao wapenzi wachanga, wasubiri janga lipite

Korona ina maafa kujikinga lazima

 

  1.                Mungu atasaidia Korona itaisha,

Elimu tazingatia Wizara wanakumbushia,

Tunawe yetu mikono, epuka msongamano

Koroana ina maafa kujikinga lazima

MASWALI

  1.                 Pendekeza kichwa cha habari kisichozidi maneno matatu
  2.                Unafikiri kwa nini mshairi anatuasa kuwa Korona ina maafa kujikinga lazima?
  3.                 Mashairi wa shairi hili anawashauri nini wanafunzi kuhusiana na suala la mapenzi?
  4.                Kutokana na shairi ulilosoma eleza njia tano unazozijua utakazotumia kuepukana na ugonjwa wa Korona

 

SEHEMU C (Alama 45)

Jibu maswali matatu (3) kutoka katika sehemu hii

  1.                Fasihi simulizi ndio fashihi ya awali iliyoanza wakati binadamu alipoanza kutumia lugha mara kwa mara inapowasilishwa kwa hadhira huchukua sifa muhimu ambazo sirahisi kuziona katika fasihi Andishi.  Dhibitisha ukweli huu kwa kutumia hoja tano.

 

  1.            Nyimbo ni mbinu ya kifasihi ambayo wasanii wengi hutumia ili kufikisha ujumbe uliokusudiwa kwa hadhira.  Dhibitisha usemi huu kwa kutumia waandishi wawili wa riwaya ulizosoma.

 

  1.            Taswira ni kibebeo cha ujumbe wa mwandishi katika jamii.  Jadili kauli hii kwa kutumia thamthiliya mbili ulizosoma.

 

  1.            “Mshairi siku zote hukemea uonevu katika jamii “dhibitisha kauli hii wa kutoa hoja tatu kutoka katika kila diwani kati ya Diwani mbili (2) ulizosoma.

 

ORODHA YA VITABU

USHAURI

Wasakatonge    - M.s Khatibu (DUP)

Malenga wapya  - Takiluki (DUP)

Mashairi ya chekacheka - T. A Mvungi (EP & D. LTD)

RIWAYA

Takadini   - Benj. Hanson (MBS)

Watoto wa mama ntiliye - E. Mbogo (H.P)

Joka la mdimu   - A.J Safari  (H.P)

TAMTHILIYA

Orodha Steven Reynolds (MA)

Ngoswe penzi kitovu cha uzembe -E. semzaba

Kilio chetu     -Medical Aid foundation 

Page 1 of 4

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 65

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE 
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT AUTHORITY 

BASIC MATHEMATICS EXAMINATIONS- AUG 2021
FORM THREE

TIME: 3:00HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

  •         This paper consists of Sections A and II
  •         Answer ALL questions in both sections
  •         Mathematical table and graph paper may be used unless otherwise stated.
  •         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer sheet(s) provided.

SECTION A (60MARKS)

  1.   (a) A school trip of 32 people went to a tour which costs a transport fee of 580/= each person. What was the approximate total transport cost?

b) Rajabu is making some small metal rods.He has three peaces of metals of length 432cm, 648cm,540cm.What is the largest length of a rod he can make if the rods have the same length and no metal is wasted.

  1.   (a) Without using mathematical table simplify √63+√72 

√32+√28

(b)Find the value of x in log( - 1) + 2 = log(3 + 2) + log 25

  1.   a)(i) List all the subsets of the following set A = {3, 6, 8} 
    ( ii) Work out the number of subsets in a set containing 6 elements.

b) In a class of 45 students, 19 study commerce but not physics, 16 study physics but not commerce and 3 studies neither commerce nor physics, find the number of students who study (i) Physics or commerce (ii) Both subjects

  1.   (a) The line joining (2,-3) and (k,5) has a gradient -2, find k

b) ?PQR is such that PQPR and PQ:QR is equal to 3:4.If the perimeter of the triangle is 60cm. Calculate the value of QR.

  1.   (a) Calculate to 1 decimal place the area of an equilateral triangle of side 10cm.


(b) In the figure below find MK and MP


  1.        (a) A man is paid 6000/= for 8 hours work (i) What is his rate of pay? (ii) At this rate how long must he work to receive 30,000/=

b) In working for 10 hours a day, 12 men can do a certain piece of work in 6 days. For how many hours a day must 20 men work in order to do the same amount of work in 14 days?

  1.     a) By selling an article at Tsh 225,000 shopkeeper makes a loss of 10%.At what price must the shopkeeper sell the article in order to get a profit of 10%?

b) Find the total amount of money received if Tsh 800,000 is deposited in a bank at the rate of 9% compounded semi anually in one year.

  1.   (a) Given ?

~

=,

L is a mid point of KM .Prove that L ≡ L

 

(b) Given the angles A? C = 2x+30° and C? D = (x+15)°. If two angles are complementary find the value of x and the size of each angle

  1.        (a) Given the right angled triangle below with sides marked x , y , z ,


Prove that cos2 + sin2=1

b) A pole 7.45m high casts a Shadow 4.05m long on horizontal ground. Find the angle of elevation of the sun.

10. (a) Expand the expression (ax + c) (bx  d)

(b) A boy bought some packets of biscuits for 120/=.If the biscuits had been 3/= a packet cheaper he would have received 2 more packets for his money. How many packets did he buy?

SECTION B (40MARKS)

11. In a mathematics Examination the following marks were obtained:

27 57 57 40 70 48 59 60 42 44 47 44 44 59 35 48 43 52 36 48 Group the marks in class interval of 20-29, 30 -39 , . . . Then

  1. Construct the frequency distribution table
  2. Calculate the mean marks by using assumed mean method (Take A =44.5)
  3. Calculate the mode
  4. Draw the cumulative frequency curve then estimate the median

12. (a)Four positive numbers are consecutive elements of geometric progression (G.P).The product of the first and the third number is 36 while the product of the second and fourth number is 324. Find the sum of nine terms of the G.P

(b) The second , fourth and eighth terms of an Arithmetic Progression form a Geometric progression and the sum of the third and fifth terms of AP is 20. Find the first four terms of the geometric progression.

13. (a) A function is defined as f(x ) = √4 - 2 find (i) Domain and Range of f(x) (b) Sketch the graph of function f(x)= { + 3 ?  < 1

2 ? > 1

Hence (i) state its domain and range (ii) Find f(6) , f(-2) (iii) State whether the graph is one to one function ?

14. The relation is defined as R={(, ): ≥ —4, 3 - 4 ≤ 12  5 + 4 ≤ 20}

  1. Draw the graph of R
  2.  State the domain and range of R

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 64

 Candidate’s Examination Number…………………

 

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

 

FORM THREE MID TERM  EXAMINATIONS 2021

CODE: 022 ENGLISH LANGUAGE

                           AUG 2021

Time: 3 Hours

 

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with total of 12 (twelve) questions.

2. Answer all questions in section A and B, and only three questions in section C.

3. All answers must be written clearly in the answer sheets provided.

4. Write your name on every page of your answer sheets.

5. All writings should be in blue or black ink pen and all drawings by a pencil

 

 

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

QUESTION NUMBER

SCORE

INITIALS OF EXAMINER

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TOTAL

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

This paper consists of 5   printed pages

 

 

 

SECTION A: (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. Choose the letter of the most correct answer among the five alternatives given and write its letter against the question number in the answer sheets provided.

  1.       Jacqueline is the girl ______________ father works at IPP median 
  1. Whom           (b) who his       (c) whose        (d) who her   (e) where

 

  1.      I have been waiting for this examination ________________ four years now
  1. During        (b) since      (c) mean while      (d) for           (e) on    
  1.      It seems that we will have to differ on the amount of money to be spent for the graduation Ceremony. As used in the sentence the word differ means___________ 
  1. Disagree       (b) quarrel       (c) speak             (d) think       (e) forget   
  1.      Simon is tall, Jangala is taller but Muhongo is ________________   
  1. Taller than all       (b) tallest one      (c) more tallest of all     (d) the tallest of all   (e) most tall of all

 

  1. Juma and Mary used to be good friends, but now they have ________________
  1. Fallen off        (b) turned off        (c) given in        (d) fallen out     (e) put out  
  1. When the light went off, I _____________my supper
  1. Have eaten          (b) have been easting      (c) was eating      (d) had ate        (e) am eating

 

  1. There is ___________ water in Indian Ocean.
  1. Much          (b) many         (c) lot of      (d) a              (e) an

    

  1. If the boat had been maintained properly, it ______________ sunk into the river  
  1. Will not have          (b) would not have      (c) will not            (d) would not       (e) Might not

 

  1.      He was accused _____________ stealing
  1. For          (b) of           (c) about        (d) on            (e) at     
  1.  They have lived here ___________________1993
  1. Until             (b) since          (c) for            (d) unless             (e) from  

2. Match the items in column A with their corresponding items in column B by writing its letter against the question number in the answer sheets provided.

 

COLUMN A

COLUM B

  1.  The thieves would have left
  2. It rained so much that
  3.  They will fail exams
  4. She would have been late
  5. She was not married
  1.              Unless they study hard
  2.               Despite of her beauty
  3.               Had it not been for the arrival of the police
  4.              Despite her beauty
  5.               Had it not been for the alarm clock
  6.                By the time she wake up
  7.              The roads  got flooded
  8.              If you had woke her up
  9.                 As soon as the police arrived

 

  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  

 

 

 

 

 

 

SECTION B: (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

 

3. State whether each of the following is a FACT or OPINION

 (i) Soil erosion destroys the soil_________________

(ii) Newspapers are more important than radios__________________

(iii) The East African Community offices are in Arusha__________________

(iv) Food crops are more useful to farmers than cash crops ________________

4. In each of the following sentences one word is wrong, identify it and correct it.

  1.   I packed my car under the tree.
  2. My uncle has long bead which is not shaved.
  3.  These are not your equipments.
  4.  His behavior caused enemity between his aunt and him

 

5. Give out the word which is not part of the list of words provided below.

  1. He, they, eat, you, we.
  2. Tiger, cat, rhinoceros, Lion, cheetah, Leopard
  3.  On, above, among, at, and.
  4.  Uganda, Togo, Nigeria, Zambia, Nairobi.
  5. Corruption, bribery, dishonesty, nobility, embezzlement.
  6.  May, could, come, might, will.

(vii) Maize, mango, pineapple, pawpaw, passion.

(viii) Good, tall, expensively, clever, handsome.

6. Re-write the following sentences according to the instructions given after each

(i) He has never paid school fees for his children. (Begin: Never__________)

(ii) A cat likes drinking some milk every time. (Put a correct question tag)

(iii) Joel is handsome. Jude is handsome. (Use: both)

(iv) They are intelligent. They can pass the examination. (Join using: enough to)

(v) He was sick but he managed to go to school. (Begin: however)

(vi) The driver had negotiated with the passengers as the accident occurred. (Begin: hardly_______)

(vii) They killed a thief. (Change into passive voice)

(viii) If he comes, he will enjoy life. (Begin: Unless____________)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

7. Imagine you are Doctor Tabia Njema. Reply the invitation below by giving reasons for your regret for the event through a telephone message.

The family of Mr. & Mrs. Chindende

Of Upper Residential area

Mwananyamala Komakoma

Is greatly honoured to invite the family of

Prof/Dr/Sheikh/Mr & Mrs/Miss

Tabia Njema

To the special graduation party of their beloved daughter Adolfina Mwanauchumi

on 25th November, 2019 that will be held at their residence from 05:00 p.m to 11:30 p.m.

You are most welcome

R.S.V.P

P.O.Box 90, Dar es Salaam

Mobile: 0768-999999 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  

8. Prepare a Brief Curriculum Vitae (CV) to attach on an application letter for a teaching post. Assume your name is Dotto Chausiku and you are a degree holder.

SECTION C: (45 Marks)

Answer only (3) three questions from this section

LIST OF READINGS

 

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES:

 

A wreath for Fr. Mayer     S.N Ndunguru (1977), Mkuki na Nyota.

Unanswered Cries      Osman Conteh, Macmillan.

Passed like a Shadow      B.M. Mapalala (2006), DUP

Spared        S.N Ndunguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota. 

Weep not Child      Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1987), Heinemann. 

 The Interview       P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan. 

 

PLAYS:

Three Suitors; One Husband     O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen 

The Lion and the Jewel    W. Soyinka (1963), OUP 

This time tomorrow      Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1972), Heinemann

The black Hermit     Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1968), Heinemann 

 

 POETRY:

 Songs of Lawino and Ocol     O’P’Bitek (1979), EAPH 

 Growing up with poetry     D. Rudadiri (ed) (1989), Heinemann 

 Summons       R. Mabala (1980), TPH 

 

9. Write a composition of not less than five paragraphs of the story ending with “That is how I acquired HIV/AIDS”

 

10. “Poetry is unique comparing to other genres of literature like novels and plays.” With vivid examples validate the statement. (Give six points)

 

11. With reference to two novels studied, show how the titles are related to the content. (3 points from each novel)

 

12. By using two plays studied analyse figures of speech used by playwrights to deliver the message(s) to Tanzanian society. 

Page 1

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 63

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATION

PHYSICSFORM-3

2021- AUG/SEPT

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

  1.   This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11)  questions.
  2.    Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions  from section C.
  3.    Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in  the examination room.
  4.    Non-programmable calculators may be used.
  5.    Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer  booklet(s).
  6.   Where necessary the following constants may be used:
  1.  Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s 2
  2. Density of water = I .0 g/cm3
  3. Pie= 3.14.
  4.  Coefficient of linear expansivity of the brick 1.2 x 10 -5K -1
  5.  Speed of light in air = 3 x 108 m/s. 
  6. Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) A bar of copper is heated from 293 K to 333 K. Identify a false statement among the following:

  1. Its density will increase slightly
  2. Its length will increase slightly
  3. Its electrical conduction will decrease slightly
  4. Its mass will not change
  5. Its weight will remain unchanged.

(ii) Which among the following is not a property of magnetic lines of force due to a bar magnet?

  1. They have a direction from North Pole to South pole outside the magnet
  2. They do not exist inside the magnet
  3. They have a direction from South pole to North pole inside the magnet
  4. They tend to be close inside the magnet but are wider apart outside the magnet 
  5. They form complete loops.

(iii) When an object moves around a horizontal circle of centre O with a constant speed, its acceleration will be

  1. zero
  2. towards the centre
  3. away from the centre
  4. along the tangent to the circle
  5. along the direction of rotation.

(iv) The image formed by plane mirrors are always

  1. real, magnified and laterally inverted
  2. virtual, laterally inverted and same in size
  3. magnified, virtual and erect
  4. laterally inverted, same in size and real
  5. erect, real and magnified.

(v) The battery in the circuit shown in the following diagram has an e.m.f. of 2 V and negligible internal resistance.

What will be the current flowing in the 6 ? resistor?

  1.  0.15 A
  2. 0.64 A
  3. 1.42 A
  4. 0.10 A
  5. 0.33 A

(vi) A body is said to be in equilibrium IF

  1. it moves with uniform speed
  2. the net force acting on it is zero
  3. the upward and downward forces are equal
  4. its centre of gravity is low positioned
  5. its centre of gravity is high.

(vii) Tow forces of 5 N and 8 N are acting at the same point and are inclined at an angle of 45° to each other. What will be their resultant force?

  1. 11.2 N
  2. 12 N
  3. 22.4
  4. 1.2 N
  5. 1.12 N

(viii) A solid metal cube has each side doubled to make a solid cube of the same metal eight times bigger in volume. The ration of resistivity of the new cube to resistivity of the old cube is

  1.  8:1
  2.  6:1
  3.  1:1
  4.  1:6
  5.  1:8 

(ix) A green card with red flowers when viewed in a red light will appear:

  1.  completely red
  2.  completely yellow
  3.  completely green 
  4.  yellow with red flowers 
  5.  green with red flowers. 

(x) Colours are produced when white light passes through glass prism because

  1.  light waves interfere
  2.  glass prism colours the light
  3.  in glass different colours travel at different speeds
  4.  different colours are filtered
  5.  diffraction of light occurs.

2. Match the following items.

List A

List B

(i)                Ability to oppose flow of current

(ii)              Path around which electrons can flow

(iii)            Wire with high potential difference relative to other wires in a cable

(iv)            Wire dipped into ground near home to protect appliances

(v)              Work done by moving unit of electricity from one point to another

  1. Current electricity
  2. Volt
  3. Potentialdifference
  4. Live wire
  5. Earth wire
  6. Coulombs
  7. Electric circuit
  8.  Ammeter
  9. Resistivity


SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) In a light experiment, a narrow beam of light directed onto a glass prism leaves the prism and falls on a white screen. Draw a labelled diagram to show the experimental set-up and observation seen on a screen. 

 (b)     Explain two ways in which lens cameras differ from human eye.

4. (a) Briefly explain why hydrometer 

(i) is weighed with lead shots.

 (ii) has a narrow stem.


(b)    A piece of rubber of volume 100 cm3    and the density of 0.45 g/cm3 floats in water. Calculate:

(i) The volume of rubber that partially immersed in water.

(ii) The force required to immerse the rubber completely.

5.       (a) List four factors which affect the rate of evaporation of liquids.

(b)    (i)  Define relative humidity.

(ii)  Calculate the relative humidity given that the reading on dry bulb hydrometer is 24°C and the wet bulb temperature reading is 16°C.

6. (a) (i) What peculiar property does the effort has in all classes of levers?

(ii) A metre rule of weight 1.0 N is supported horizontally on two knife edges each placed 10.0 cm from its ends. If the weight of 1.5 N is placed at its mid-point, calculate the reaction at the supports.

(b) (i) State the law of floatation.

(ii) Find the fraction of the cork that partially immersed when a piece of cork of density 0.25 g/cm3and a mass of 20 g floats in water.

7. (a) Write down the second and third equations of motion in a straight line.

(b) Explain the following terms as they are applied in motion in a straight line:

  1. Velocity.
  2. Retardation.

(c)A stone is thrown vertically upwards with an initial velocity of 50 m/s.

(i) Calculate the time that the stone will take to return back to the thrower.

(ii) What will be the maximum height reached?

8. Three resistors of 2 ?, 4 ?   and 6 ?   are connected in series to a battery of e.m.r 24 V and have negligible internal resistance.

(a) Draw the circuit diagram including the battery, ammeter, switch and the three resistors.

(b) Find the current flowing in the circuit drawn in 8 (a) above.

(c) Find the potential difference at the ends of each resistor in 8 (a).


SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section


9. (a) A beaker containing ice is heated from -5°C to 0°C and then from 0°C to 15°C. With the aid of a diagram, explain the variation of density with temperature. 


(b) A brick at 20°C has a dimension of 30 cm, 18 cm and 10 cm for length, width and height respectively. If a brick is heated to a new temperature of 150°C, calculate the new dimensions.

10.(a) State two conditions for a body to be in equilibrium.

(b) Distinguish between centre of mass and centre of gravity.

(c) A uniform metre rule AB is balanced horizontally on a knife edge placed 5cm from B with a mass of 60g at B. Find the mass of the ruler.

11. (a) Define the word coulomb.

(b) States Ohms law.

(c) Two resistors of 30 and 60 are connected in parallel to a 3V battery.

(i)Draw the schematic diagram.

(ii)Find the effective resistance of the circuit.

(iii)Calculate the current passing through the 60 resistor.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 62

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-AUG/SEPT 2021

 Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3.              Section A carries 20 marks, section B 35 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.


(i)The Jihad war in East Africa under Othman dan Fodio, Alhaj Omar and Ahmed Seku resulted into:

A. Formation of big empires like Mandinka and the Sokoto Caliphate

B. Formation of big empires like Mali and Songhai

C. Creation of small political entities 

D.  Formation of the state of Nigeria

E.  Disintegration of weaker states at the coast of West Africa.

(ii) Independent African states made attempt to increase food crops along cash crops of which Tanzania expressed the policy of:

A. Ujamaa villages

B. Musoma villages

C. Iringa resolution

D. Arusha declaration

E. Zanzibar resolution

(iii) Which of the following sectors of colonial economy favoured Europeans and Asians in Africa during colonial period? 

A.  Education, health, water, housing and roads.

B. Agriculture, mining, financial institutions, transport and commerce.

C. Agricultural schemes, labour bureaus and trade. 

D.  Industry, communication, harbours and banks.

E.  Transportation, health, mining, electricity and water services.


(iv) Man started to be skillful and tool maker at the stage of:

A. Homo Sapiens

B. Homo Erectus

C. Homo habilis

D. Modern apes

E.  Zinjanthropus


(v) The first British Governor in Kenya, Sir Charles Eliot, stressed on the:

A. constitution of the Uganda railway

B. establishment of settler economy

C.  creation of Kenya as the industrial centre for East Africa

D. introduction of steamers in Lake Victoria

E. integration of Kikuyu into plantation economy

(vi) The Portuguese conquest of the East African Coast was led by:

A. King Emmanuel

B. Ahmed Ibn Majid

C. Henry the Navigator

D. Vasco Salgado

E. Francisco D Almeida

(vii) The demise of the Portuguese in East African Coast could be explained as

  1. the Portuguese rivals overpowered them
  2. the Portuguese did not have enough soldiers and administrators to control their empire 
  3. Portuguese soldiers were corrupt and brutal
  4. the Portuguese control of the Indian Ocean trade and gold in Mwenemutapas empire was less profitable
  5. Portugal had already industrialised.

(viii) Written records as a source of history are more preferred to oral traditions because of the following reason.

  1. Written records do not require space
  2. Oral traditions can be exaggerated and it is difficult to reproduce the same contents
  3. Oral traditions are expressed in centuries
  4. Written records do not require language as a medium of communication
  5. Oral traditions are controlled by leaders of a given society.

(ix) The prominent groups of people in iron working in Africa included the 

  1. Venda people of Northern Africa and Mashona of Zimbabwe
  2. Mashona of Zambia and Manganja of Malawi
  3. Nubians of Sudan and the Venda of Northern Transvaal
  4. Nubians of Kongo and the Mashona of Zimbabwe
  5. Ibo and Yoruba in West Africa.

(x) One of the effects regarding the coming of Europeans to West Africa was 

  1. the introduction of iron technology
  2. establishment of heavy industries
  3. the growth of western Sudanic states
  4. the distortion of the Trans-Saharan Trade
  5. the decline of tribal wars.

(xi) Which of the following was not encouraged by the policies of Ujamaa in Tanzania? 

  1. The cooperative movement.
  2. Regional development for equity.
  3. Villagisation Camps.
  4. Peoples self projects.
  5. Peoples development through self reliance.


(xii) Which of the following statements is true about the ancient Empire of Mali? 

  1.        It first came into power with the defeat of Sundiata by Sumanguru.
  2.         It was overthrown by invasion from Ghana.
  3.         It extended its boundaries as far as Lake Chad.
  4.        It grew rich by controlling Trans Saharan trade.
  5.         It was formed after the collapse of Songhai Empire.


(xiii) The leader of Chimurenga uprising of 1896-1897 in Rhodesia were 

  1. Mkwati and Kinjekitile
  2. Siginyamatish and Lobengula.
  3. Mkwati and Siginyamatish.
  4. Mkwati and Lobengula.
  5. Lobengula and Rumunguru.

(xiv) Which is not true about History?

  1. History is a study of changes in the process of material production.
  2. History shows mans struggle against nature.
  3. History shows the changing relationship between human beings in the course of material production.
  4. History is a record of human activities.
  5. History is a study of great heroes.

(xv) The Unilateral Declaration of Independence (UDI) is the term used to denote: 

  1. independence given illegally by British to settlers in Rhodesia.
  2. the white settlers in Rhodesia declaring their independence. 
  3. British refusing to give independence to settlers in Rhodesia.
  4. Settlers in Rhodesia acquiring independence from Britain by force.
  5. Settlers rejection in Rhodesia to be given self-rule by the British.

2. Match the dates in Column I with the corresponding historical events in Column Il by writing the letter of the correct event beside the number of the date.

COLUMN I

COLUMN II

(i) 1919

(ii) 1957

(iii) 1963 

(iv) 1964

(v) 1975

A. The actual armed struggle began in Mozambique when FRELIMO guerrillas crossed into Niasa and Carbo Delgado Provinces.

B.Tanganyika got her independence. 

C. The Berlin Conference.

D. The Independence of Ghana under Kwame Nkrumah. 

E. End of German colonial rule in East Africa. 

F. End of British colonial rule in Zanzibar. 

G. Civil war erupted in Angola.

H. The Portuguese colonized Mozambique.

I. Tanganyika became a German mandate colony.

J. Maji Maji resistance against German colonial economy ended.

SECTION B (35 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Briefly explain the following terms

  1. The theory of evolution of man
  2. Famous iron sites
  3. Linguistics
  4. Mwene mutapa Kingdom
  5. Centralized state


4.  Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number.

  1. African nationalist politics in South Africa started with the formation of the South Africa Native National Congress (SANNC) in 1912.
  2. African National Congress (ANC) led by Nelson Mandela established its armed wing known as "Umkhonto we Sizwe" (Spear of the Nation) which immediately embarked upon military operations within South Africa.
  3. In 1949 the Youth League launched its "Programme of Action" which aimed at attainment of freedom from white domination.
  4. The imposition of capitalist relations of production in South Africa, unlike other parts of the continent, is underlined by racism. This made nationalist struggles in South Africa to be more complicated and long.
  5. In 1964, Nelson Mandela was arrested and sent to jail. Later in 1990 he was released and the majority rule was obtained in 1994
  6. Mandela died in 2013 after serving for one term

5.(a) Study the sketch map below and answer the questions that follow:

Name the city states numbered 1 to 5. Number 6 is done for you as an example.

  1. .
  2. .
  3. .
  4. .
  5. .
  6. Zanzibar.


SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries fifteen (15) marks.

6. Write a short essay about the Ghana Empire using the following hints or guidelines:

(i)Where and when was the Ghana Empire established?

(ii)Who was the founder of this empire?

(iii)What factors led to the decline or fall of the empire?

7. "Colonial social services consolidated colonialism in Africa." Justify this statement by giving six points.

8. Account for six reasons that led to the scramble for and partition of Africa in the second half of the 19th century.

9. Examine the reasons for the development of the Trans-Saharan Trade and the effects it brought in the Western Sudanic region.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 61

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

GEOGRAPHY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM THREE- AUG/SEPT -2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.                          This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 10 questions
  2.                          Answer all questions in section A and B and two questions from section C.
  3.                          Section A carries 15 marks, section B 55 marks and section C 30 MARKS
  4.                          Map extract sheet for Pangani is provided.
  5.                          Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  6.                          Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

(i) In the field study, students were told that, soil has certain biological, chemical and physical characteristics. What is the general term for these characteristics? 

  1.              soil profile 
  2.               soil particles 
  3.               soil properties 
  4.              soil fertility
  5.               soil formation.

(ii)A girl was crossing a river and accidentally dropped her school bag in the river. The girl cried as she observed her bag being pulled by the river water toward the river mouth. What could the bag named in relation to the river action?

  1.              River erosion 
  2.               River transportation
  3.               River load 
  4.              River meander 
  5.               River bed

(iii) Which of the following layers of the earths interior is made up of sima and sial?

  1.               Biosphere 
  2.               Hydrosphere 
  3.               Asthenosphere 
  4.              Lithosphere 
  5.               Barysphere


(iv)  Suppose you want to carry out a field study on atmospheric conditions suitable for growth of crops cultivated on a farm within your village. What are the best components of weather to be considered?

  1.              Rainfall and soil
  2.               Moisture and sunshine
  3.               Rainfall and clouds cover
  4.              Temperature and rainfall 
  5.               Humidity and rainfall

(v)Prediction of the state of atmosphere in a region for 24 to 48 hours is known as

  1.              weather elements
  2.               weather report
  3.               weather instrument
  4.              weather station
  5.               weather forecasting

(vi) The process of changing granite to gneiss rock is known as

  1.              sedimentation
  2.               vulcanism
  3.               denudation
  4.              metamophism
  5.               exfoliation.

(vii)Which of the following are features of ocean floor?

  1.              Basin, Ocean deep and Cliff. 
  2.               Trench, Continental shelf and Stump 
  3.               Trench, Ridge and Ocean deep.
  4.              Ocean deep, Continental shelf and Drumlin.
  5.               Basin, Continental shelf and Tombolo.


(viii) Liverpool team scored a goal at 5.00 pm in England (15° W). At what time the goal was scored in Dar es Salaam (45° E)?

  1.              1.00 p.m 
  2.               7.00 p.m 
  3.               9.45 p.m 
  4.              9.00 p.m 
  5.               6.30 a.m.

(ix) Which of the following planets have small celestial bodies in orbit a round them?

  1.               Mercury, Jupiter and Uranus 
  2.                Pluto, Earth a nd Mars 
  3.                Earth, Jupiter and Saturn 
  4.               Mercury, Venus and Earth
  5.                Venus, Earth and Saturn.

(x) Which of the following is associated with magnitude of an earthquake?

  1.               Richter scale 
  2.                Seismography 
  3.                Focus
  4.               Epicenter 
  5.                Tsunami.

2. Match the items in List A with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Residues that have decomposed and mixed with soil mass.

(ii) Status of soil with respect to amount of elements necessary for plants growth.

(iii) Removal of materials from surface of land.

(iv) Vertical section of the soil to the underlying rocks.

(v) Fineness and coarseness of soil particles.

  1.              Soil type
  2.               Soil profile
  3.               Loam soil
  4.              Soil texture
  5.               Soil structure
  6.                Soil fertility
  7.              Soil organic matters
  8.              Soil chemistry
  9.                 Soil erosion
  10.                 Soil water
  11.              Soil Air


SECTION B (55 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Study the map extract of Mkomazi (Sheet 109/1) and then answer the following questions:

  1.     By using the given RF scale, measure the distance of river Pangani in kilometres from grid reference 910771 to 910826.
  2.    Describe relief of the area.
  3.     With reasons, identify two types of rocks found in the map.
  4.     Name the major way used to show the height of the land in the mapped area.
  5.    Using a vertical scale of lcm to represent 50m, draw an annotated cross section from grid reference 960820 to 910880 and mark Ruvu river basin and the main trucks.

4. Read carefully the climatic data for station A presented in the Table and answer the questions that follow:

Month

J

F

M

A

M

J

J

A

S

O

N

D

Temp. in °C

26.6

26.6

26.6

26.6

26.6

26.6

27.2

27.7

28.3

28.3

27.7

27.7

Rainfall

mm

233

228

244

215

118

91

36

36

51

104

140

196

(i) Describe the climatic conditions of station A.

(ii) Name any two countries in the Great Lakes of East Africa which experience this type of climatic conditions.

(iii) Present the data graphically.

5. (a)  Show the features formed by intrusive land forms

(b) With vivid examples, explain what is lava plateau


6. Study carefully the photograph provided, then answer the questions that follow:

(a) Name the type of photograph provided.

(b) Name the crop shown in the foreground of the photograph.


(c) State the characteristics which favour the growth of the crop in (b) above.

(d) Comment on the stage which might have been reached by the crop mentioned in (b) above.

7. Study the following data showing the age of the Primary School pupils at Tumaini Primary School and answer the questions that follow: 15, 8, 7, 6, 12, 5, 14 and 13.

(i) Determine the range and median of the age of the pupils.

(ii) Calculate the standard deviation.


SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

8. Analyze six potentials of the Rufiji river basin.


9. Elaborate eight reasons indicating why the transportation sector is important to the economy of Tanzania.

10. Explain the main characteristics of nomadic pastoralism in East Africa and suggest the main ways of improving pastoralism in the region.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 60

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-AUG/SEPT-2021

 Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3.              Section A carries 15 marks, section B 40 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

(i) Assume you are planning to get married, for about a year now you have developed friendship with a person of the opposite sex whom you think is the right candidate. How can you describe such kind of relationship?

  1.  Premature marriage      
  2. Wedding
  3. Honeymoon                                     
  4. Courtship
  5. Marital relationship

(ii) Monas husband died and her in laws forced Mona to marry Tulizo, her late husbands young brother. Such a family decision demonstrates.

  1.  gender blindness. 
  2. gender stereotyping. 
  3. gender equality. 
  4. gender mainstreaming. 
  5. gender discrimination.


(iii) Which among the following root causes of poverty is beyond the control of the Government of Tanzania?

  1.  Unequal exchange in international trade
  2.  Communicable diseases
  3.  Rapid population growth rate
  4.  Mismanagement of public funds
  5.  Ignorance of the people

(iv) Which among the following institutions is a Social Security Scheme?

  1.  NMB    
  2.  CRDB  
  3.  NBC 
  4. PSPF 
  5.  TPB

(v) Why most Tanzanians cannot access credit facilities offered by commercial banks in Tanzania?

  1.  They lack a culture of saving.
  2.  They lack information on credit facilities.
  3.  They lack education.
  4.  They lack insurance cover.
  5.  They are discouraged by high interest rate.

(vi) In the United Republic of Tanzania, the Judiciary is headed by the

  1. Chief Justice
  2. Attorney General
  3. Director of Public Prosecution 
  4. Prime Minister
  5. Minister for Legal and Constitutional Affairs.


(vii)  The right to voluntarily belong to any organization is known as

  1. freedom of expression 
  2. the right to life 
  3. freedom of association
  4. freedom of assembly
  5. right to equality.

(viii) Inadequate provision of food, shelter, clothing and access to clean water is an indication of

  1.  poverty circle 
  2.  absolute poverty
  3.  relative poverty 
  4.  income poverty
  5.  poverty line.


(ix) The two categories of local government authorities are

  1.  street and town governments 
  2.  village and street authorities
  3.  districts and urban authorities 
  4.  village councils and village authorities
  5.  urban councils and village authorities.

(x)  Which of the following organ is responsible for planning and coordinating village activities?

  1.   Village Assembly. 
  2.  Village Committees.
  3.  Ward Committee. 
  4.  Ward development committee.
  5.  Village Council.

2. Match the role and/or power of the court in List A with its court type in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided. (05 marks)

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Arson

(ii) Parliament

(iii) NEMC

(iv) Namibia

(v) G.8

(vi) African Union

  1. Rule of Law
  2. Unbecoming behavior and actions of children under the age of 18 years.
  3. Unlawful setting of fire on immovable structures or buildings. 
  4. Head of state is elected or comes from the members of the Congress.
  5. Importance and preservation of surroundings.
  6. National Assembly and president.
  7. Limit and control government powers and actions.
  8. A system of federalism.
  9. The national organ responsible for environmental management.
  10. Unlawful sexual act by a man without woman's consent.
  11. Immunity from criminal and civil proceedings.
  12. UN monitoring group in the Democratic Republic of Congo. 
  13. Adopted member of the Commonwealth.
  14. Presidential system of government.
  15. Center nations.
  16. National symbol.
  17. Economic initiative for the development of Africa.
  18. Desertification.
  19. Multilateral organization.
  20. Intentional or threat to use violence to force government to do or not to do something.


SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. One of the potential consequences of international conflict is the “spill-over” of violence between two or more parties in to the territory or issue fields of third parties. We can imagine that several thousand years ago, the distribution of human population was so sparse that violent conflict between two tribes, rural communities, or city-states had little impact on surrounding areas. Anthropological and historical evidence indicates however, that, even in primitive political system, mediation by third parties was often practiced as a means of preventing involvement of additional parties in the conflict. In ancient China, India, Greece and elsewhere, governments commonly recognized that they had an interest in limiting the violent excesses of warring communities. Some societies coped with the problem by formulating rules of neutrality; others such as the Geeks, developed procedures for mediation and arbitration, whereby an eminent citizen of a non-involved city-state would bring representatives of the warring communities together and bargain with them until some sort of settlement could be fashioned.

Efforts to institutionalise mechanism for interacting third parties into crises and conflicts have been in the European historical setting, sporadic. Prior to the development of the nation-state, when Europe was carried into a patchwork of archives, free cities, city states, aspiring monarchies and semi-independent provinces, mediation services were often available and occasionally involved the pope. By the end of the seventeenth century the state of the European international system had achieved some measure of independence and through the legal doctrines of sovereignty, recognized no higher authority over their internal affairs or external relations. The international law of the period regarded force as a legitimate instrument for achieving or defending state objectives and no sovereignty would admit that a third party had any right to intervene diplomatically in a crisis of war. The only protection against drawing more parties was the specific rights and duties ascribed in central states.

During the nineteenth century a number of states concluded treaties that called for arbitration of disputes and almost 300 unimportant international disputes were resolved through ad hoc arbitral proceedings. In the latter part of the century, owing party to the influence of the successful arbitration of a dispute verging on conflict between the United Nations and Great Britain (the Alabama claims case, 1871) a number of private groups began to agitate for creation of permanent international institutions for handling conflicts and disputes. They argued that establishment of a permanent international tribunal armed with enforcement powers and supported by limitations on armaments, would give rise to a new era of peace. These sentiments eventually influenced some governments, and in 1899 and 1907 they reluctantly convinced an international conference at the Hague to discuss plans for such institutions.

QUESTIONS

(a) Propose the title for this passage.

(b) Mention two ways that the passage is advocating for settling disputes.

(c) How did the 17th century European sovereign states achieved their foreign goals?

(d) From your experience mention two conflicts which are currently being mediated in Africa.

(e) Is there any international tribunal formed for settling disputes in Africa? Mention it.


4. Examine the importance of introducing various taxes in Tanzania.

5. How does participatory democracy differ from representative democracy?

6. Analyze the importance of reproductive health education to the society.

7. Justify the contention that many political parties are a necessary element for a democratic state.


8.  Briefly explain giving five points why do you think the government of Tanzania is conducting campaign against Female Genital Mutilation (FGM)?

9. Describe the importance of union between Tanganyika and Zanzibar

10. Describe five gender issues in society

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.


11. Discuss the problems that hinder effective African Economic Cooperation.

12. Identify the advantages and disadvantages of privatization of public enterprises in Tanzania.

13. Despite the fact that Tanzania is endowed with many resources, it is economically underdeveloped. Discuss six factors needed for economic development of Tanzania to take off.

14. By using the knowledge you have obtained in Civics assess the benefits of being identified as a citizen of a particular country.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 59

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY 1MID TERMEXAMINATION

FORM THREE-AUGUST/SEPT-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and ONE (1) question from section C.
  3.              Section A and C carries 15 marks, while section B 70 marks
  4.              Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.              Non programmable calculators may be used.
  6.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.
  7.              Where necessary the following constants may be used;

Atomic masses; H=1, C=12, N=14,O=16, Na=23, S,=32, Ca =40, Cl =35.5, Cu=64, Zn=65.

Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm3

1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs.

Standard temperature = 273K

Standard pressure = 760mmHg.

1 Litre = 1 dm3 = 1000cm3

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)Why oxygen differs from other gases?

  1. It neither burns nor support combustion.
  2. It supports combustion but does not burn.
  3. It burns but does not support combustion.
  4. It burns and supports combustion.
  5. It explodes and support combustion.

(ii)  Why is hydrogen gas collected over water and by upward delivery method?

  1. It is insoluble in water and less denser than air.
  2. It is soluble in water and denser than air.
  3. It is insoluble in water and denser than air.
  4. It is soluble in water and less denser than air.
  5. It is soluble in both water and air.

(iii) The following are the uses of chromatography except:

  1. to analyse blood in crime scenes.
  2. to detect different fibres.
  3. to detect water pollution.
  4. to bleach dye/colour.
  5. to test purity of organic substances.

(iv) Which statement is the most correct about chemistry laboratory?

  1. Is a special room designed for conducting chemical tests.
  2. Is a special room designed for science practicals.
  3. Is a special room designed for keeping apparatuses. 
  4. Is a special room where data analysis is carried out.
  5. Is a special room where students learn chemistry.

(v) Which carbonate is the most stable to heat?

  1.   Calcium carbonate   
  2.   Copper (II) carbonate
  3.   Lead (II) carbonate 
  4.   Zinc carbonate 
  5.   .Iron (II) carbonate.

(vi) In the following equilibrium equation, 2S02(g) +O2(g) 2S03 The forward reaction is exothermic. Which change would increase the production of sulphur trioxide at equilibrium?

  1.                      Increasing temperature
  2.                      Decreasing temperature
  3.                      Decreasing sulphur trioxide concentration 
  4.                     Decreasing pressure 
  5.                      Adding a catalyst.


   (vii) Which of these can be reduced when heated with carbon?

  1.  Aluminium  
  2. Calcium carbonate
  3. Iron (III) oxide 
  4. Magnesium oxide 
  5.  Sodium oxide.


(viii)   Which of the following is the electronic configuration of an element Y found in period 3 and group II of the periodic table?

  1.  2:8 
  2.  2:8:2    
  3.  2:6
  4. 2:8:8:2   
  5. 2:8:4 


(ix) Which of the following is NOT among the composition of air?

  1. Noble gases 
  2. Carbon dioxide 
  3. Nitrogen 
  4. Hydrogen 
  5. Water vapour.

(x)  If a stead current of 2 amperes was passed through an aqueous solution of iron (II) sulphate for 15 minutes, then the mass of iron deposited at the cathode will be:

  1. 54 g.
  2. 56 g.
  3. 0.54 g.
  4. 28 g.
  5. 0.52 g.


2.  Match the items in List A which the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Its nitrate decomposes to the metal, nitrogen dioxide and oxygen. 
  2. Its chloride is used as a drying agent for most gases.
  3. Its carbonate is used to remove hardness of water.
  4. Has maximum valency of five.
  5. Burn with a lilac color flame.
  1. Copper
  2. Sodium
  3. Potassium
  4. Calcium
  5. Phosphorous
  6. Silver
  7. lead

SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.


3. An atom of element X having atomic number 11 combines with an atom of element Y haying atomic number 9 to form a compound.

(a) Write the formula of the compound and state the type of bond formed in the compound.


(b) Give four properties of the compound formed in 7(a).            (7 marks)

(b)

  • Soluble in water
  • High melting and boiling point
  • Contact electricity in molten state
  • Consists of ionic structure.

4. Explain how to handle chemicals having the warning signs of flammable, corrosive, harmful, explosive and toxic in the laboratory.

5.   (a) Copper obtained from copper pyrites (CuFeS2) is impure for electrical wiring and has to be purified by electrolysis.

(i) Name the electrolyte and the electrodes used during electrolysis. 

(ii) Write the observations that can be made during the electrolysis.

(b) The following flow diagram shows the stages in the contact process 

 (i)     Give the names of element A, catalyst B and an acid C.

 (ii)  Write  a balanced chemical equation for the formation of sulphur trioxide in stage 2

6. (a) Copper can be obtained from the ore, copper pyrites (CuFeS2). The ore is heated in a limited amount of air giving the following reaction:

 4CuFeS2 + 11O 2 ? 4Cu + 2Fe 2 O 3 + 8SO2 .

(i) Calculate the maximum mass of copper that can be obtained from 367 kg of copper pyrites.

(ii) State why the gaseous product from this reaction must not be allowed to escape into the atmosphere.

(b)   State three industrial application of electrolysis.

7. A student attempted to prepare hydrogen gas by reacting zinc metal with dilute sulphuric acid. In this experiment zinc metal granules of about 0.5 cm diameter and 0.20 moles of acid were used.

The rate of formation of hydrogen gas was found to be slow.

(a)Explain three ways in which the rate of formation of hydrogen gas could be increased.

(b)If the student wanted 36 cm3  of hydrogen gas at s.t.p, what amount of the acid would be required.


8.  (a) 20 cm3 of a solution containing 7 g dm-3 of sodium hydroxide were exactly neutralized by 25 cm3 of 0.10 M hydrochloric acid. Calculate the concentration of sodium hydroxide in moles per dm3.

(b)  Give two examples in each of the following solution.

(i)  Gaseous solution.

(ii) Solid solution.

9. The flow chart in Figure 3 shows the process of obtaining a sample of nitrogen gas. Study it and answer the questions that follow.

(a) Identify X (I mark)

(b) Write an equation for the reaction with heated copper turnings. (1 mark)

(c) Name an impurity in the sample of nitrogen gas. ( I mark)


10. (a) Name two ores in which sodium occurs.

(b) During extraction of sodium using the down's process, calcium chloride is added to the ore. Give a reason for the addition of calcium chloride. (1 mark)

(c) State two uses of sodium. ( I mark)

11. Figure 3 shows the apparatus used to burn hydrogen in air. Use it to answer the questions that follow.

https://www.advance-africa.com/images/burnhydrogen.png

State the role of substance X.

(ii) Give the name of the substance that could be used as X. (1 mark)

(iii) State the role of the suction pump. (1 mark)

(iv) Name the product Y formed. (1 mark)

(v) Give a simple physical test to prove the identity of Y. (1 mark)

(vi) State the difference between 'dry' and 'anhydrous'. (2 marks)

12. (a) Consider elements with atomic number 1, 11, 12 and 17.

(i) What are the types of oxides formed by elements with atomic number 11 and 12?

(ii)  Write an equation which represents a reaction between the element with atomic number 1 and 17.

(iii) Write a balanced chemical equation between the oxide of the element with atomic number 11 and aqueous solution of the compound formed in 4 (a) (ii).


 (b) Suggest one method for the separation of each of the following:

(i) Iodine and sand.

(ii) Green solution from leaves.

(iii) Alcohol and water.

(iv)  Iron fillings and powdered calcium carbonate.


SECTION C (15 Marks)

Answer one (1) question in this section.

13.  25 cm3 of 0.1 M HCl were neutralized by 23 cm3 of sodium hydroxide solution. Calculate the concentration of the alkali in grams per litre.


14. Describe four common stages for the extraction of metals. Does the extraction of gold follow all four stages? Give reasons.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 58

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY 1MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-AUG/SEPT 2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 15 questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and and TWO  (2) question from section C in which question 13 compulsory.
  3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (20 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) A biologist discovered a new cell in a culture. The new cell had a distinct cell wall but it did not have a definite nucleus. The cell is most likely to be:

  1. Fungi
  2. Prokaryote 
  3. Protozoa 
  4. Virus 
  5. Eukaryote


(ii)Oxygen debt occurs when:

  1. Too much carbon dioxide is present in the body. 
  2. The rate of respiration exceeds that of photosynthesis in green plants.
  3. Alcohol is formed in tissues. 
  4. There is insufficient oxygen in the muscle tissues during strenuous exercise. 
  5. There is insufficient lactic acid in muscle tissues.

(iii) Green plants are known as producers because they:

  1. produce chlorophyll in chloroplasts
  2. produce green leaves
  3. contain fruits and seeds
  4. grow in fertile soil
  5. make food from simple stibstances

(iv) Which of the following prevents surfaces of the articulating bones from being worn out by friction?

  1. Capsular ligament
  2. Synovial membrane
  3. Articular cartilage
  4. Tendon
  5. Synovial capsule

(v) The best distinction between diastolic and systolic blood pressure is that:

  1. Diastolic blood pressure is caused by contraction of ventricles while systolic blood pressure is caused by contraction of auricles.
  2. Diastolic blood pressure causes blood from contracting auricles to flow into ventricles while systolic blood pressure causes blood from contracting ventricles to flow into pulmonary artery and aorta.
  3. Diastolic blood pressure is the same as systolic blood pressure. Therefore there is no distinction.
  4. Diastolic blood pressure is lower than systolic blood pressure.
  5. Diastolic blood pressure is common.

(vi)In green grass there are usually large numbers of green grasshoppers than brown grasshoppers. The best explanation is that the:

  1. green grasshoppers feel the need of being green to give them protection.
  2. predators do not capture green grasshoppers as frequently as brown grasshoppers.
  3. green grass makes the brown grasshopper not to be seen by the predators.
  4. green grasshoppers obtain enough food from green grass than brown grasshopper.
  5. green grass stimulates green grsshoppers to reproduce and increase in number faster than brown grasshoppers.

(vii) Why are skeletal muscles usually found in opposing pairs?

  1.  One muscle alone cannot extend a joint
  2.  Muscles can only work by contraction
  3.  One muscle alone cannot flex a joint
  4.  Paired muscles are stronger
  5.  Muscles normally work in antagonistic fashion

(viii) When students were conducting private study at night, lights went off completely. Which of the following changes occurred in the eyes of the students?

  1.  The lens became thicker
  2.  The pupil became larger
  3.  The ciliary muscle relaxed
  4.  The lids close
  5.  The eyes opened wider

(ix) Which hormones produced by the pituitary gland promote ovulation?

  1. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and lutenizing hormone (LH)
  2. Lutenizing hormone (LH) and progesterone
  3. Oestrogen and progesterone
  4. Progesterone and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
  5. Prolactin and progesterone

(x) A mountaineer develops headache, breathlessness, nausea and vomiting on reaching an altitude of above 4000 metres. This is because: 

  1. his body system is not given time to adjust to the low oxygen pressure.
  2. the atmospheric pressure as well as the supply of oxygen decreases at higher altitude.
  3. the increase in the amount of oxygen results into breåthlessness.
  4. the atmospheric pressure increases at higher altitude and so does the supply of oxygen.
  5. his body system is not given time to relax due to the increase of atmospheric pressure.

2. Match the items in List A with the List B by writing the letter of the correct responsible beside the item number.

List A

List B

 (i)Blind spot

(ii)First trophic level

 (iii)The period of reduced activity during which growth does not occur

 (iv)Diaphragm flattened

(v)Birth control

  1. Intra-Uterine Devices
  2. Artificial insemination
  3. Inspiration
  4. Has no cones
  5. Expiration
  6. Producers
  7. Consumers
  8. Produces polysaccharides
  9. Produces disaccharides
  10. Dormancy
  11. Death
  12. Retina
  13. Vitreous humour
  14. Passive immunity
  15. Active immunity 
  16. Wait for a doctor


SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

4. In an experiment to investigate a factor affecting photosynthesis, a potted plant which had been kept in the dark overnight was treated as shown in the diagram below and exposed to light.

https://www.advance-africa.com/images/KCSE-Past-Papers-Biology-2015.12.jpg

(a) Why was the potted plant kept in the dark overnight? (1 mark)

(b) Which factor was being investigated in the experiment? (1 mark)

(c) (i) Which test did the students perform to con?rm photosynthesis in the leaves labelled P and Q? (1 mark)

(ii) State the results obtained in the leaves labelled P and Q.

P (1 mark)

Q (1 mark)

(iii) Explain the results obtained in the leaves labelled P and Q.

P .........................(1 mark)

Q..........................(l mark)

(d) What was the purpose of leaf Q in the experiment? (1 mark)

4.How do plants get rid of excretory products? Briefly explain three ways.

5.  Give four differences that exist between insect pollinated flowers and wind pollinated flowers.


6. (a) How could the body remove or destroy a bacterium that lands:

(i) on the cornea?

(ii) on the hand?

(iii) in the bronchus? (iv) in the stomach?

7. (a) (i) Define the term mitosis.

(ii) Outline the significance of mitosis to organisms.

8. (a) Explain the adaptation of the lungs for gaseous exchange.

(b) What is the biological importance of shivering during cold weather?

(c) Explain why some trees are killed when a ring of bark is removed from their stems.

9. Explain the effects of increased physical activity on the following organ systems:

  1. Heart
  2. Lung
  3. Skin
  4. Kidney

10.  Describe the role of hormones in the human menstrual cycle.

11. Below are diagrams of a cell organelle obtained from different organs of an animal.

(a) (i) For each organelle state an organ in the urinary system where it is likely to be found.

(ii) Give a reason for your answers in (a) (i) above (2 marks)

(b) Name the part of the chloroplast where the following reactions occur:

(i) Carbon(IV) oxide fixation(1 mark)

(ii) Photolysis (1 mark)

12. Explain the survival values of the following tropic responses to plants.

(a) Geotropism (2 marks)

(b) Phototropism. (1 mark)

SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question 13 is compulsory.

  1.   Explain the functions of the major components of the human skeleton and their adaptations.
  2. Explain two differences between artificial and natural classification systems and indicate the two merits and demerits for each system..


15. (a) Differentiate between responsible behaviours and risky behaviours.

(b) State two behaviours which may lead to the following risks:

(i) STDs

(ii)HIV infections

(iii)Drug abuse

(iv)Unplanned pregnancies

(c) Suggest how victims of HIV/AIDS can be cared and supported.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 57

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

FORM III BASIC MATHEMATICS TERMINAL EXAMINATION

Time: 3 Hours Year: 2021

Instructions

1.This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.

2.Answer all questions in sections A and B.

3.Each question in section A carries six (06) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.

5.NECTA mathematical tables and non-programmable calculator may be used.

6. All communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

SECTION A (60 MARKS)

1.(a) Express the numbers 1470 and 7056 each as a product of its prime factors.

Hence evaluate and simplify

image

if m = 1470 and n = 7056.

(b)Express 0.00152 correct to: (i) two (2) significant figures

(ii)three (3) decimal places

(iii)in standard form

2.(a) Express x and y into fraction and hence find x + y, given that

image and image

(b)Solve for x in the following equation

image

3.(a) Solve for n

image

(b) Given that x2 + 8x +Q = (x + K)2

4 .In a certain school, 40 students were asked about whether they like tennis or football or both. It was found that the number of students who like both tennis and football was three times the number of students who like tennis only. Furthermore, the number of students who like football only was 6 more than twice the number of students who like tennis only. However, 4 students like neither tennis nor football.

(a)Represent this information in a Venn diagram, letting x be the number of students who like tennis only.

(b)Use the results obtained in part (a) to determine number of students who likes;

(i)Football only.

(ii)Both football and tennis.

5.(a) Find the equation of the line through the point (2,?2) crossing the image-axis at the same point as the line whose equation is y=2x- 4

(b) Express y in terms of x; 3x + 2y = 6 and Without drawing the graph, state the gradient, the y – intercept and x – intercept in the equation.

6.(a) The length of a rectangular field is 20m longer than the width. Find an expression for the perimeter of the field in terms of its length.

(b) In the figure below, Find angle x, y and z

image

7.(a) The parallel sides of a trapezium are 8cm and 12cm respectively. If the distance between the parallel sides is 9cm, calculate its area.

(b) A lady buys a printer for sh.26000 and when she sells it she realizes a loss of 40%. How much did she sell the printer for?

8. (a) If y2 varies directly as x-1 and inversely as x+d and if x=2, d=4 for y=1, then find x when y=2 and d=1.

(b)If 8 students in a typing pool can type 210 pages in 3 days, how many students will be needed to type 700 pages in 2 days?

9.(a) If image

Find

i) Cos A

(ii)

image

(b) Given the following figure, find the value of h, correct to one decimal place

image

10.(a)Compute the sum of the first ten terms of the series 1+5+9+....

(b)The 5th term of A.P is 23 and the 12th term is 37. Find

(i)The eleventh term

(ii)The sum of the first eleventh terms by using the values computed above without using the common difference for this progression.

SECTION B(40%)

Answer All Questions In This Section

11.Given the relation;

image

(i)Sketch the graph of R.

(ii)State its domain and range.

(iii)Find inverse of relation R

12. Given that

imageimage

(a) (i) Sketch the graph of f(x)

(ii) State its domain and range (iii) Is f(x) a one - to – one function?

(b) Find:

( i ) f(-4)

( ii ) f(2)

( iii ) imageimageimageimage

13. The masses of 40 parcels handled at transport office were recorded as shown in table below

Mass(kg)

1.0- 1.9

2.0-2.9

3.0-3.9

4.0 - 4.9

5.0 - 5.9

6.0 - 6.9

Number

Of

Parcels

6

2x

10

x

2

1

a)Find value of x

b)Determine modal class and its corresponding class mark

c)Find Median

14.( a) Given f(x) = x2 - 4x + 2. Find

i) Axis of symmetry ii) Maximum or minimum value

iii) Turning point

(b)Draw the graph of f(x) in 14(a) and use it to solve the equation x2 - 4x -2 =3

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 56

  OFISI YA RAIS TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

MTIHANI WA MWISHO WA MUHULA WA KWANZA

KIDATO CHA TATU

021KISWAHILI

(Kwa watahiniwa Walioko na Wasiokuwa Shuleni)

MUDA: SAA 3 MEI 2021


Maelekezo

1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na mbili (12).

2. Jibu maswali yote kutoka sehemu A, Bna chagua maswali matatu (03)kutoka sehemu C.

3. Zingatia maagizo ya kila sehemu na kila swali.

4.Andika kwa kutumia kalamu ya wino wa bluu au nyeusi

5. Simu za mkononi na vitu vyote visivyoruhusiwa haziruhusiwikatika chumba cha mtihani.

6. Andika namba yako ya mtihani katika kila karatasi yako ya kujibia.

  1. Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika vipengele i-x kisha andika herufi ya jibu sahih katika kisanduku.
  1.  Ni neno lipi linalotoa taarifa kuhusu Nomino?

A: Kitenzi  B: Kielezi  C: Kivumishi

D: Kiwakilishi  E: Kiunganishi

(ii) Katika lugha ya Kiswahili kuna aina ngapi za Vitenzi.

 A: Mbili  B: Tano  C: Sita

 D: Tatu  E: Nne

(iii) Maneno yapi kati ya haya yafuatayo yametokana na lugha ya Kibantu.

  A: Kitindamimba ba bendera   B: Hela za mtoto

  C: Kitivo na ngeli    D: Godoro na sharubati

  E: Bunge na Shule

(iv) Ni mambo gani muhimu ya kuzingatia katika kuteua maneno na miundo 

    ya tungo wakati wa mazungumzo.

   A: Mada, muktadhia wa mazungumzo ya aina kwa nia

    B: Mada, mazungumzo na uhusiano wa wazungumzaji

   C: Mada, mzungumzaji na muktadha wa mazungumzo 

   D: Mada, mzungumzaji na uhusiano wa wazungumzaji

   E: Mada, muktadha na uhusiano wa wazungumzaji.

(v)  Bainisha kauli unayoonyesha dhima muhimu za vitendawili katika jamii za 

    vitendawili katika jamii.

     A. Kuhimiza umoja na mshikamano.

    B. Kupanga watu katika marika yao.

    C. Kuchochea udadisi wa mambo

  D. Kuchochea uwongo wa mambo.

  E. Kukosoa wadadisi wa mambo.

(vi) Njia mojawapo ya kuzuia utata katika lugha ya mazungumzo ni ipi kati ya zifuatazo?

 A. Kuepuka makosa ya kisarufi na kimantiki

 B. Kutumia neno lenye maana zaidi ya moja 

 C. Kutumia kiwakilishi kiambata katika neno 

 D. Kuweka msisitizo au ufafanuzi zaidi

 E. Kutumia misimu sahihi za wakati.

(vii) ‘’Wanafasihi hutumia wahusika wenye mienendo hiyo’’ katika tamthiliya ulizosoma, ni wahusika wapi kati ya wafuatao wana mienendo isiyokubalika?

 A. Joti, Ngoswe na Mama Furaha

 B. Padri James, Ngoswe na Baba Anna.

 C. Mazoea, Mama Furaha na Joti

 D. Ngoswe, Baba Anna na Suzi

 E. Ngoswe, Joti na Padri Jamaes

(viii) Kati ya sababu zifuatazo ni ipi si sahihi kuhusu matumizi ya Kamusi?

 A. Kujifunza Lugha ya Kigeni

 B. Kusanifisha maneno mapya

 C. Kubaini kategoria ya neno

 D. Kujua maana za maneno

 E. Kujua tahajia za maneno.

(ix) Ni methali ipi inayokinzana na methali ‘’Umoja ni nguvu, utengano ni udhaifu.’’

 A. Manahodha wengi, chombo huenda mrama.

 B. Palipo na wengi, hapaharibiki neno

 C. Haba na haba, hujaza kibaba.

 D. Kidole kimoja, hakivunji chawa

 E. Fimbo ya mnyonge, ni umoja 

(x) Upachikaji wa Viambishi katika mzizi wa neno huitwaje?

 A. Mnyambuliko  B. Utohoaji  C. Uambishaji

 D. Viambishi   E. Kukopa maneno  

  1. Oanisha maana za maneno kutoka orodha A kwa kubainisha dhama zilizoko katika

Orodha B na uandike herufi ya jibu sahihi pembeni na swali.

ORODHAA

ORODHAB

(i) Tungo shurutia ukwasi

A. Rejesta ya Tanga

(ii) Kimtang’ata

B. Angeliniita ningeitika

(iii) Malaika, Shetani, Mzimu

C. Lahaja ya Kiswahili

(iv) Juzi asubuhi

D. Nomino za mguso


E. Njeo ya ya wakati wa mazoea


F. Nomino za dhahania


G. Kirai kielezi


H. Utajiri

SEHEMU B: (ALAMA 40)

Jibu maswali yote kutoka sehemu hii

  1. Bainisha mzizi asilia kwa kila neno katika maneno yafuatayo.

(a) Anawaandikisha

(b) Mkimbizi

(c) Mlaji

(d) Muumbaji

(e) Nisingelipenda

(f) Kuburudika

(g) Sadifu

(h) Aliokota

(i) Walichopoka

(j) Kipambanuliwe.

  1. Bainisha matumizi mbalimbali ya ‘’KWA’’ katika sentensi zifuatazo

(a) Amejificha kwa kuwa hapendi anione

(b) Kukataa kwa Mwajuma kumesababisha matatizo mengi.

(c) Amelima shamba kwa jembe

(d) Ameenda kwa Mwalimu

(e) Amesafiri kwa ndege

  1. Kwa kutumia mfano taja njia tano za uundaji wa maneno.
  2. Toa maana mbili katika tungo tata zifuatazo?

(a) Pili alimwandikia barua Asha

(b) Wizi wa Silaha umeongezeka

(c) Mwalimu ameijia fedha yake

(d) Mtoto amelalia uji

(e) Mama amenuena Mbuzi

  1. Taja mambo matano ya kuzingatia wakati wa utunzi wa Insha na ueleze umuhimu wa kila jambo.
  2. Eleza tofauti za msingi tano, zilizopo baina ya varua ya kikazi na barua za kindugu.

SEHEMU C: (ALAMA 45)

Jibu maswali matatu tu toka sehemu hii

  1. Eleza sababu tano zilizosaidia kuenezza Kiswahili wakati wa utawala wa Wajerumani.
  2. Fasihi ni Chuo chenye kufundisha kila mwanajamii husika. Thibitisha hoja hiyo kwa kutumia vitabu viwili vya riwaya ulivyosoma. Toa hoja tatu kwa kila Kitabu.
  3. Mashairi huburudisha na kuliwaza pale yanapoimbwa au kusomwa lakini nayatoa mafunzo mazuri sana kwa jamii husika. Jadili kauli hii kwa kutumia Diwani mbili ulizosoma. Toa hoja nne kutoka kila diwani.
  4. Siku zote katika jamii, migogoro ndiyo inayoibua dhamira mbalimbali. Thibitisha dai hili kwa kutumia tamthiliya mbili ulizozisoma ukitoa hoja tano kwa kila kitabu.

1

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 55

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.             This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
  2.             Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3.             Section A carries 15 marks, section B 40 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4.             Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5.             Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

(i) Foreigners outside the Commonwealth countries may be granted Tanzanian Citizenship by

  1.  naturalisation
  2.  vital registration
  3.  presenting their passport
  4.  decent
  5.  filling the special forms.

 (ii) Peer groups, schools, religion, and mass media is an example of

  1.  pressure groups
  2.  socialization agents
  3.  civil societies
  4.  community based organizations
  5.  non governmental organizations

 (iii) In road safety the precaution signs

  1.  Warn the road users to take proper measures against any danger which may occur ahead
  2.  control the speed of passenger vehicles against any danger which may occur ahead
  3.  limit the speed of the big trucks against any danger which may occur ahead
  4.  are drawn on the road surface
  5.  are drawn in the same way as command signs.

 (iv) Reading, writing, listening and speaking are best known as:

  1.  Communication model
  2.  Elements of communication as a process
  3.  Basic communication skills
  4.  Non verbal communication
  5.  Modern forms of communication.

(v)  The constitution of the United Republic of Tanzania was amended to include provisions for the bill of rights in

  1.   1992 
  2.  1984 
  3.  1979
  4.  1977 
  5.  1967

 (vi)  Under normal circumstances, a marriage is preceded by friendship between a man and woman. Such friendship is called

  1.   honeymoon 
  2.  cohabitation 
  3.  early marriage
  4.  courtship 
  5.  infidelity.

 (vii)  One of the following encourages and cultivate values, knowledge and ability to perceive things

  1.   cooperative techniques 
  2.  problem solving
  3.  life skills promotion 
  4.  initiation and mediation
  5.  guidance and counselling.

 (viii)  Many Tanzanians cannot access credit from financial institutions due to

  1.   political strings attached to loans
  2.   lack of enough financial institutions
  3.   lack of entrepreneurial skills and security
  4.   lack of proper identification
  5.   lack of political influence.

(ix) The right of people to belong to an organization is called freedom of

  1.  expression 
  2.  association
  3.  property
  4.  press
  5.  movement.

 (x) Which of the following is not the source of national income in Tanzania?

  1.  development levy. 
  2.  income tax.
  3.  profits from parastatals
  4.  licence fees.
  5.  grants or aids.

2. Match the form of government  in List A with its correct name in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided. 

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A form of union government whereby member states preserve their full independence and sovereignty
  2. A form of government where power is shared between national government and state government
  3.                     A form of government where the source of all political authority is to be found in a supreme ruler
  4.                      A form of government where the head of the state is also the head of the government
  5. A form of government where the authority of king or queen is nominal.
  1. Secular state
  2. Constitutional monarch
  3. Trust territory
  4. Transitional government
  5. Confederation government
  6. Republic government
  7. A dominion
  8. Federal government
  9. Government of national unity
  10. Absolute monarch


SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Read the following passage and then answer the questions that follow.

Investing in the education of girls could be one of the investments with the highest returns in Tanzania. There is a widespread perception that better educated women are able to process information and to use goods and services more efficiently. Evidence from many studies demonstrate that in the long run, increased education for women could contribute to improved quality of life and enhances national development through increased economic production, improved hygienic practices, as well as reduced child mortality and better nutritional practices. Educated women are better prepared to provide healthcare, to educate their children and to reduce their fertility to desired levels.

In Tanzania, children acquire gender role identity as a consequence of the differential treatment, expectations, and reinforcement given to girls and boys by their parents, teachers, and the society. cultural factors have a pervasive influence on the situation of female education. The Tanzanian culture has an inherent gender bias which adversely affects females. These customary practices include early marriages and parental preference for a ‘wife and mother’ role for daughters. These strongly shape the aspirations of girls and they may drop out of formal schooling system prematurely, either physically or intellectually.

Among the strategies taken by the government to ensure that girls were enrolled in primary schools on equal number as boys include the enactment of the Education Act of 1969. The act provided legal backing to ensure that children were not withdrawn from school before completing the primary school cycle. Also important was the introduction of Universal Primary Education in 1974 and the Education Act No. 25 of 1978, which gave the government powers to enforce compulsory enrolment and attendance of girls and boys in schools. Through these efforts the gross enrolment ratio reached 93 percent in the late 1980s.

However, the quality of primary education in Tanzania has suffered from underfunding and pupil’s development of critical thinking has been undermined by class size and for girls particularly, by a curriculum which perpetuates gender stereotyping.

Questions

(a)  Why investment in the education of girls can have the highest returns in Tanzania?

(b)  Point out two cultural factors which affect the education of a girl child in Tanzania.

(c)  State three ways through which children acquire gender roles in Tanzania.

(d)  Outline two challenges facing primary education in Tanzania.

(e)  Give two reasons behind increased enrolment of girls and boys in the late 1980s.

4. Discuss the importance of life skills to you as a student

5. What is the role of national election commission in ensuring free and fair elections?

6. Describe the composition and function of the district council

7. What are the features of indirect democracy?

8. Elaborate five gender issues that affect women in society

9. Outline five traditions and customs which affect the reproductive health of women in Tanzania.


10. Explain the significance of the National Anthem by giving five points.


SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries 15 marks.

I l . A discipline master/mistress in your school has recently reported an increase in disciplinary cases due to student's misbehavior. In five points, explain the effect of improper behavior among students.

12. In five points, analyze the benefits of having effective government for economic development.

13. Despite the fact that Tanzania is endowed with many resources, it is economically underdeveloped. Discuss six factors needed for economic development of Tanzania to take off.

14.  HIV/AIDS is a threat to future prosperity of many nations. Elaborate six socio economic impacts of HIV/AIDS to people in Tanzania.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 54

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

GEOGRAPHYTERMINALEXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.            This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 10 questions
  2.            Answer all questions in section A and B and two questions from section C.
  3.            Section A carries 15 marks, section B 55 marks and section C 30 MARKS
  4.            Map extract sheet for Hanang (Sheet 84/4) is provided.
  5.            Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  6.            Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

  1. The tourists enjoyed the temperature of Zanzibar which was at sea level. They also planned to travel from Zanzibar to Manyara which is 1500m above sea level. What will be the temperature experienced by the tourists in Manyara?
  1. 230C
  2. 90C
  3. 190C
  4. 0.60C
  5. 170C
  1. Which of the following occurs when the moon's shadow cast over the earth?
  1. Solar eclipse
  2. Lunar eclipse
  3. Aphelion 
  4. Summer solstice
  5. Equinoxes
  1. Which of the following layers of the earths interior is made up of sima and sial?
  1. Biosphere 
  2. Hydrosphere 
  3. Asthenosphere 
  4. Lithosphere 
  5. Barysphere
  1. Mitomingi was wondering the way large amount of soil and rock materials were sliding downward towards the steep slope. What geological processes were occurring in that area?
  1. Weathering and erosion
  2. Deposition and transportation
  3. Weathering and denudation
  4. Mass wasting and transportation
  5. Erosion and transportation
  1. You are asked to help a Form Two student who failed to identify the types of forests found in the area with low temperatures. What type of forest will you suggest among the following?
  1. Tropical rain forest 
  2. Coniferous forest
  3. Equatorial forest 
  4. Deciduous forest
  5. Mediterranean forest
  1. What is the social-economic advantage of reserved forests to societies?
  1. Tourism 
  2. Lumbering
  3. Mining      
  4. Forestry
  5. Agriculture 
  1. After learning different types of soil texture, students were asked to identify the best type of soil which can be mixed with cement for building a house. What type of soil will be picked by the students who understood the lesson?
  1. Sandy  
  2. Silt  
  3. Alkaline soil 
  4. Loam 
  5. Clay
  1. Which among the following is a heavenly body that possesses and transmits its own light? 
  1. Moon
  2. Sun
  3. Earth
  4. Astreroid
  5. Planet.
  1. A region which consists of thick forests, tree dwellers and people who engage in cultivation of rubber, cocoa, bananas and oil palms is known as
  1. Tropical savanna 
  2. Tropical monsoon 
  3. Polar climate 
  4. Mediterranean
  5. Equatorial.
  1. Which among the following features are produced by wave erosion?
  1. Geo, wave cut platform and stack
  2. Blow hole, sea arch and levee
  3. Sea arch, beach and stump
  4. Beach, spit and bars.
  5. Tombolo, meander and cliff.

2.Match the items in list A with the correct description in list B and write the answer in the space provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Parliament and Judiciary
  2. Supply stones and sands for construction.
  3. Supply Timber for various functions.
  4. Harpoons, barrier- trap, hand line
  5. Powered vessels, drifting, trawling.
  1. Quarrying
  2. Processing of resources
  3. Traditional fishing methods
  4. Modern fishing methods
  5. Mining
  6. Agriculture
  7. Livestock keeping
  8. Lumbering
  9. Hunter and gathering
  10. Intellectual services
  11. Civil administration
  12. Social services
  13. Exploitative resources
  14. Religion.

SECTION B (55 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Carefully study the map extract of Hanang (Sheet 84/4) provided and answer the following questions:

(a) Express the map scale as a statement.

(b) Find the bearing of grid reference 720220 to 680180.

(c) Giving three evidences from the map, suggest the climate of the mapped area.

(d) Suggest with evidence, five major economic activities which might take place in the area.

(e) Give four supportive contents of a topographical map provided.

(f) Mention three factors which affected the contents of the map given.

4. Study the following data showing the production of Irish Potatoes in a thousand (“000”) tones in three villages in Tanzania from 2000 to 2002, then answer the questions that follow:


YEAR


 

Potato production (“000”) 

Sunga
 

Mwaligulu
 

Mpera
 

2000
 

20
 

15
 

5
 

2001
 

40
 

15
 

10
 

2002
 

50
 

20
 

10
 

(a) Construct a compound bar graph to show the production of Irish potatoes in the three villages.

(b) Give three advantages and two disadvantages of the compound bar graph.

(c) Suggest any other methods which could be used to present the data provided in the table.


5. (a) (i) Define chain survey.

(ii) Give four principles of chain survey.


(b) Give one reason for each of the following:

(i) Ranging pole has a pointed metal end.

(ii) Note book is important during field study.

(iii) Back bearings are taken during compass survey.

(iv) During surveying, measurements are called back by the booker.

6.Study the following photograph and answer the questions that follow:

  1. Giving two reasons, name the type of photograph.
  2. Suggest the type of settlement pattern and give one factor that has influenced it.
  3. Suggest two economic activities that might be taking place in the area.
  4. Provide three advantages of photographs over maps.

7. (a) What is an earthquake?

(b) Briefly explain five effects of earthquakes.

(c)  Describe four ways of reducing the risks of earthquakes.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

8. Elaborate eight reasons indicating why the transportation sector is important to the economy of Tanzania.

9. By using concrete examples, explain five negative effects of tourism in East Africa.

10. Examine the best ways which can ensure a sustainable use of forestry resources.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 53

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY TERMINALEXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2021

 Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.            This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of questions
  2.            Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3.            Section A carries 20 marks, section B 35 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4.            Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5.            Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

  1. What was the achievement of man during the Middle Stone Age?
  1. Discovery of fire
  2. Development of bipedalism
  3.  Domestication of animals 
  4. Making and using pebble tools
  5. Discovery of iron
  1. Which one among the following places did people paint and draw in the caves?
  1. Sofala
  2.  Karagwe
  3. Kondoa Irangi
  4. Tabora
  5. Bagamoyo 
  1. The first creature to walk in an upright fashion was called
  1. Homo Erectus.
  2. Primates.
  3. Homo Sapiens. 
  4. Hominids.
  5. Homo Habilis. 
  1. Archaeological findings whose ages are beyond 5,000 years are determined by
  1. using archives.
  2. using carbon 14.
  3. remembering events. 
  4. using time charts.
  5.  narration of past events. 
  1. Which one of the following was the immediate consequence of the development of Triangular trade?
  1. Decolonization of African countries
  2. Disruption of trans-Saharan trade
  3. Scramble and partition of Africa
  4. Adaptation of the Open Door Policy
  5. Implementation of indirect rule policy
  1. America defeated her colonial master in 
  1. 1873.
  2. 1884. 
  3. 1945.
  4. 1776. 
  5. 1918.
  1.                     The coastal city states which grew from the trade contacts between East Africa and Asia were
  1. Mwanza, Tanga and Dar es Salaam
  2. Malindi, Kilwa and Mombasa
  3. Nairobi, Kampala and Dar es Salaam
  4. Lamu, Bagamoyo and Mbeya 
  5. Mombasa, Zanzibar and Kigoma.
  1.                  The type of colonial agriculture which predominated in Kenya was
  1. plantation 
  2. peasant 
  3. co-operative 
  4. settler
  5. pastoralism.
  1. The first European nation to industrialize was
  1.  Germany 
  2.  Britain 
  3.  France 
  4.  Belgium 
  5.  Holland.
  1. The theory of evolution was proposed by
  1.  Louis Leakey 
  2.  Carl Peters 
  3.  Charles Darwin 
  4.  Henry Stanley 
  5.  Donald Cameron.
  1. Three pre-colonial modes of production which existed in Africa were
  1.  Socialism, capitalism and communism
  2.  Socialism, capitalism and communalism
  3.  Slavery, feudalism and communalism 
  4.  Slavery, feudalism and communism 
  5.  Socialism, capitalism and humanism.
  1.                     Which one among the following factors contributed to the rise of states in Africa?
  1.  Low level of productive forces.
  2.  Presence of chartered companies.
  3.  Hunting and gathering activities.
  4.  Absence of classes among the people.
  5.  Availability of iron technology.
  1.                  Who commanded the respect of all and acted as a unifying force among the Maasai?
  1.  Kabaka.
  2.  Omukama.
  3.  Morani.
  4.  Warriors.
  5.  Laibon.
  1.                   The most crucial changes in the evolution of man were 
  1.  bi-pedalism and development of the brain
  2. domestication of crops and animals
  3.  division of labour and expansion of agriculture
  4. establishment of settlements and domestication of crops
  5.  discovery of stone tools and fire.
  1.                     The period which man was able to make chopping and pebble tools is known as 
  1.  Late Stone Age
  2. Old Stone Age
  3.  Middle Stone Age
  4. Iron Age
  5. Industrial age.

2. Match the event with correct year given in the table provided:

Event 

Year.

  1. Berlin conference
  2. Discovery of skull of earlier man at olduvai gorge
  3. Introduction of multipartism
  4. Majimaji war
  5. First world war
  1. 1914-1918
  2. 1905-1907
  3. 1884-1885
  4. 1939-1945
  5. 1963
  6. 1961
  7. 1959
  8. 1927
  9. 1992

SECTION B (35 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Answer the following questions briefly

  1. Give the meaning of the term “Stone Age Period.
  2. State two political factors which undermined the nationalistic struggle for majority rule in South Africa.
  3.                     Differentiate between patrilineal clan organization from matrilineal clan societies?
  4.                      Highlight two ways in the Cold War was fought.
  5. What were the terms of Berlin conference?
  6.                       Explain why the Allied Powers were able to defeat the Central Powers during the First World War.


 

4. Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number.

  1. African nationalist politics in South Africa started with the formation of the South Africa Native National Congress (SANNC) in 1912.
  2. African National Congress (ANC) led by Nelson Mandela established its armed wing known as "Umkhonto we Sizwe" (Spear of the Nation) which immediately embarked upon military operations within South Africa.
  3. In 1949 the Youth League launched its "Programme of Action" which aimed at attainment of freedom from white domination.
  4. The imposition of capitalist relations of production in South Africa, unlike other parts of the continent, is underlined by racism. This made nationalist struggles in South Africa to be more complicated and long.
  5. In 1964, Nelson Mandela was arrested and sent to jail. Later in 1990 he was released and the majority rule was obtained in 1994.

5.   Draw a sketch map of East Africa and locate the following:

  1. The headquarters of East African Community
  2. The capital city of a country whose president was overthrown in a coup in 1971.
  3.                     The East African great slave market which was closed in 1873.
  4.                      The headquarters of the Portuguese rule.
  5. The region in Tanganyika which was the best reservoir of labour during the colonial period.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries fifteen (15) marks.

6. Explain six effects of the Indian Ocean trade on the East African Coastal inhabitants before 1500 AD.

7. Discuss six factors which led to the decline of the Trans-Atlantic trade.

8. Explain theterms of the Berlin conference

9. Explain why the Allied Powers were able to defeat the Central Powers during the First World War.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 52

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY 1  TERMINAL  EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 15 questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and and TWO  (2) question from section C in which question 13 compulsory.
  3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (20 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

  1. Which nutritional disorder may result when a person takes larger quantities of carbohydrate than body's requirements?
  1. Rickets
  2. Marasmus
  3. Beriberi
  4. Kwashiorkor
  1. What is the role of the cerebrum in human beings?
  1. Breathing
  2. Sneezing
  3. Yawning 
  4. Learning
  5. Walking
  1.                     In which specific part of the female reproductive system is tubal ligation applied as a method of birth control?
  1. Oviduct
  2. Uterus
  3. Cervix 
  4. Ovary 
  5. Vagina
  1.                      In the food chain: Grass image002 Lion. A lion is:
  1. a primary consumer.   
  2. a secondary consumer.
  3. a producer. 
  4. a tertiary consumer. 
  5. a decomposer.
  1. Water from the roots of flowering plants is transported up to the plant by different forces. Which of the following forces initiates and raises water to the least height? 
  1. Root pressure 
  2. Transpiration pull
  3. Cohesion forces                     
  4. Adhesion forces
  5. Capillarity
  1.                      A patient has been diagnosed with low level of blood sugar. Which hormone would you recommend to regulate the victims sugar? 
  1. Insulin 
  2. Glucagon
  3. Antidiuretic 
  4. Aldosterone 
  5. Testosterone
  1.                   The function of hydrochloric acid in food testing experiment is
  1. to decolourise food sample 
  2. to test reducing sugar 
  3. to oxidize the food sample 
  4. to neutralize sugary foods 
  5. to hydrolyze complex to simple sugar.         

 

  1.                The interaction between two species in which both organisms benefit is known as
  1. ectoparasite 
  2. parasitism 
  3. commensalisms 
  4. mutualism 
  5. endoparasite.         

 

  1.                      Which of the following is NOT a component of First Aid Kit?
  1. Razor blade 
  2. Panadol 
  3. Bandage 
  4. Soap 
  5. Microscope. 

 

  1. Which disease spread rapidly as a result of poor waste disposal?
  1. Anemia
  2. AIDS
  3. Cholera
  4. Leukemia
  5. Small pox.

 

2. Match the functions of the parts of microscope in List A with their corresponding parts of microscope in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the booklet provided.

List A

List B

(i) Allows light to pass from the objective lens to the eye piece lens.

(ii) Supports the eye piece and revolving nose piece.

(iii) Raises or lowers the body tube in order to bring

(iv) Raises or lowers the body tube in order to bring the image into focus.

(v) Raises and lowers the stage to keep the specimen in right position for observation.

  1. Body tube
  2. Coarse adjustment knob
  3. Diaphragm
  4. Fine adjustment knob
  5. Hinge screw
  6. Mirror
  7. Ocular tube
  8. Stage clip

 


SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) Differentiate the term "Biological apparatus" from "Biology Laboratory".

(b) Briefly explain why the following substances are dangerous?

  1. Toxic substances
  2. Highly flammable
  3. Corrosive substances
  4. Radioactive substances.

 

4. The diagram below illustrates a specialised cell obtained from a certain tissue.

(a) Name the cell.

1617988918_paper-1-2019

(b) State the ways in which the cell is structurally adapted to its function. 

 

5. While investigating a certain metabolic process in plants, students set up the apparatus as shown below in a classroom and monitored it for 48 hours.

1617988918_paper-1-2019

(a) Identify the metabolic process under investigation.

(b) Account for the observations made in the test tube at the end of the investigation.

 

6. The chart below illustrates how respiratory gases are transported in the human blood.

1617988918_paper-1-2019

(a) Identify gas Q. 

(b) Explain the advantage oxyhaemoglobin has over carboxyhaemoglobin.


7. ln an experiment, students treated seedlings as illustrated below.

https://www.advance-africa.com/images/seedling.png

(i) Account for the observations made in seedling 1 

(ii) Explain the similarity in the end results made in seedlings II and II 

(iii) State the likely treatment that would make seedlings II and III respond like seedling I. 

8. (a) Explain the distinctive features of the Division Filicinophyta.

(b) Draw a well labeled diagram of a fern plant.

9. A person accidentally touches a hot pan and responds as illustrated in the diagram below.

https://www.advance-africa.com/images/reflex.png

 Explain how the response illustrated above occurs. (6 marks)

 

10. A group of font two students placed a fresh leaf in warm water. They observed that air bubbles formed on the surface of the leaf.

(a) What biological process were they investigating?

(b) Name the structures from which the air bubbles were coming from.

(c) Explain the distribution of the structures named in (b) above on the leaf surfaces of a land plant.

11. (a) State why it is important for plants to lose water to the atmosphere.

(b) State three activities in the human digestive system that depend on respiration.

12. The diagram below represents an organ in a bony fish.

1618327153_biology-questions-and-answers-paper-1

(a) Name the organ.

(b) Describe how air in water reach the capillaries inside structure L.

SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question 13 is compulsory.

13. Describe what happens to a meal rich in proteins along the alimentary canal from ingestion to egestion. 

14. Describe how the mammalian eye is structurally adapted to its function.

15. Using a relevant example in each case, describe simple and conditional reflex actions.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 51

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY 1TERMINALEXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.            This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
  2.            Answer all questions in section A and B and ONE (1) question from section C.
  3.            Section A and C carries 15 marks, while section B 70 marks
  4.            Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.            Non programmable calculators may be used.
  6.            Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.
  7.            Where necessary the following constants may be used;

Atomic masses; H=1, C=12, N=14,O=16, Na=23, S,=32, Ca =40, Cl =35.5, Cu=64, Zn=65.

Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm3

1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs.

Standard temperature = 273K

Standard pressure = 760mmHg.

1 Litre = 1 dm3 = 1000cm3

 SECTION A (20 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

  1. 1.4 g of potassium hydroxide is dissolved in water to form 250 cm3 of solution. What is the molarity of this solution?
  1.  0.01 M
  2.  0.1 M
  3.  1.4 M
  4.  5.6 M
  5.  6.0 M
  1. In the blast furnace carbon monoxide is prepared by passing carbon dioxide over a red­hot coke. Carbon dioxide is
  1.  an accelerator
  2.  an oxidizing agent
  3.  a reducing agent
  4.  a catalyst
  5.  oxidized.
  1.                     A catalyst can be described as a substance 
  1. that alters the rate of reaction
  2.  that slows down the rate of reaction
  3.  used in every reaction so as to speed up rate of reaction
  4.  that starts and speeds up the rate of reaction
  5.  that terminates chemical reaction.

 (iv) A covalent bond is formed when

  1.  a metal combines with a non­metal
  2.  potassium and oxygen combine
  3.  ammonia is formed
  4.  two metals combine
  5.  atom looses an electron.

 (v) A solvent can be obtained from a solution by

  1.  evaporation followed by decantation
  2.  filtration and condensation
  3.  evaporation and filtration
  4.  evaporation and condensation
  5.  crystallization followed by sublimation.

 (vi) Aqueous sugar solution is a poor conductor of electricity because

  1.  water and sugar are covalent compounds
  2.  water is a non­electrolyte
  3.  sugar is a non­electrolyte
  4.  sugar is covalent when in liquid form
  5.  sugar dissolves completely in water.

 (vii)  In order to produce the greatest amount of hydrogen in a short time, one gram of magnesium ribbon should react with

  1. 10 cm3 of 0.5 M sulphuric acid
  2. 40 cm3 of 0.5 M acetic acid solution
  3. 40 cm3 of 0.5 M sulphuric acid solution
  4. 20 cm3 of 1 M sulphuric acid solution
  5. 20 cm3 of 1 M acetic acid solution.

 (viii)  Fractional distillation process of a mixture of water and ethanol is possible because

  1. water and ethanol have the same boiling point
  2. water has lower boiling point than ethanol
  3. ethanol has lower boiling point than water
  4. water and ethanol form partially immiscible liquid solution
  5. water and ethanol are immiscible liquids.

 (ix)  Which of the following substances represent a group of acidic oxides?

  1. Carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide and sulphur dioxide
  2. Sulphur trioxide, nitrogen dioxide and nnitrogen monoxide
  3. Carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide and dinitrogen oxide
  4. Sulphur trioxide, carbon dioxide and nitrogen dioxide
  5. Carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxide and sulphur dioxide.
     

 (x)  What will the molarity of a solution which contains 26.5 g of anhydrous sodium carbonate in 5 dm3 of solution?

  1. 0.05 M
  2. 0.25 M
  3. 5.30 M
  4. 0.025 M
  5. 0.50 M

2. Match the items in LIST A with the responses in LISTB by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A gas that explodes when flame is applied in presence of air.
  2. An element with atomic number 40.
  3.                     A gas prepared in laboratory by isolation of air.
  4.                      An element with electronic configuration of 2:8
  5. An element used in making jewelers.
  1. Mercury
  2. Diamond
  3. Hydrogen
  4. Zinc
  5. Sodium
  6. Calcium.
  7. Neon
  8. Argon
  9. Nitrogen.

SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Hydrogen has can be prepared by passing steam over heated magnesium ribbon as shown in the figure 2.

https://www.advance-africa.com/images/hydrogengas.png

(a) Write an equation for the reaction that produces hydrogen gas. 

(b) Explain why the delivery tube must be removed from beneath the water before heating is stopped. 

(c) Explain why sodium metal is not suitable for this experiment. 

4. A solution contains 40.3g of substance XOH per litre .250.0cm3of this solution required 30.0cm3 of 0.3M sulphuric(VI)acid for complete neutralisation.

(a) Calculate the number of moles of XOH that reacted. 

(b) Determine the relative atomic mass of X. 

5. (a) Explain the following observations:

(i) The colour of aqueous copper(ii) sulphate fades when a piece of magnesium metal is dropped into the solution. 

(ii) A piece of iron bar is coated with a brown substance when left in the open on a rainy day. 

6. A mass of 1.24g of a divalent metal was deposited when a current of 6A was passed through a solution of a metal sulphate for 12 minutes.Determine the relative atomic mass of the metal( Faraday = 96,500 C mol-1

(d) State two application s of electrolysis. 


7. 30.0 cm3 of aqueous sodium hydroxide containing 8.0 g per litre of sodium hydroxide were completely neutralised by 0.294 g of a dibasic acid. Determine the relative formula mass of the dibasic acid. (Na = 23.0 ; O = 16.0 ; H 1.0) 

8(a). Using iron filings, describe an experiment that can be conducted to show that oxygen is present in air. 

(b)  Element U has atomic number 12 while element V has atomic number 16. How do the melting points of their oxides compare? Explain. (3 marks)

9. (a) Name two ores of iron. 

(b) Describe how the amount of iron in a sample of iron(III) oxide can be determined.

10.(a) Give three advantages of using chemical equations over word equations.

(b) You are provided with a compound composed of 22.2% zinc, 11.6% sulphur, 22.3% oxygen, and the rest percentage is water of crystallization. Calculate the molecular formula of the compound if its molecular mass is 283.

11.(a) (i) Name the compound which causes temporary hardness of water and the compound which causes permanent hardness of water.

(ii) Write one balanced chemical equation in each case to show how to remove temporary and permanent hardness of water.

(b) State four steps employed in the extraction of moderate reactive metals.

12.(a) Giving three reasons, explain why air is said to be a mixture of gases.

 (b) (i) People suffering from heart burn usually use wood ashes for relief. Mention characteristic which makes the ashes to be used for heart burn relief.

 (ii)Give four compounds found in laboratories which show the same characteristics as ashes.


SECTION C (15 Marks)

Answer one (1) question in this section.


13. Describe four common stages for the extraction of metals. Does the extraction of gold follow all four stages? Give reasons.

14. Read the following information carefully then answer questions that follow: 25 cm3 of potassium hydroxide were placed in a flask and a few drops of phenolphthalein indicator were added. Dilute hydrochloric acid was added until the indicator changed colour. It was found that 21 cm3 of acid were used.

(b) (i) What piece of apparatus should be used to measure out accurately 25 cm3 of sodium hydroxide solution?

(ii) What colour was the solution in the flask at the start of the titration?

(iii) What colour did it turn when the alkali had been neutralized? 

(c) (i) Was the acid more concentrated or less concentrated than the alkali? Give reasons for your answer.

(ii) Name the salt formed in the neutralization.

(iii) Write an equation for the reaction. 

(d) Utilizing the given information describe how you can obtain pure crystals of the salt. 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 50

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY 1 MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2021

 

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
  2. Answer all questions in section A and and ONE (1) question from section C.
  3. Section A and C carries 15 marks, while section B 70 marks 
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Non programmable calculators may be used.
  6. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.
  7. Where necessary the following constants may be used;

Atomic masses; H=1, C=12, N=14,O=16, Na=23, S,=32, Ca =40, Cl =35.5, Cu=64, Zn=65.

Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm3

1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs.

Standard temperature = 273K

Standard pressure = 760mmHg.

1 Litre = 1 dm3 = 1000cm3

                       SECTION A (20 Marks)

                       Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

  1. The region around the nucleus of an atom where electrons are found is called:-
  1. Shell (orbits or energy levels)
  2. Solar or Lunar eclipse                                
  3. Ozone layer
  4. Outer most shell.
  1. The following is a chemical property of oxygen.
  1. It burns completely when exposed and produce a “pop sound”.
  2. It supports combustion .                            
  3. It produces unpleasant smell
  4. It reacts with vapour to form carbon dioxide gas.
  1. _________ is one of the use of hydrogen 
  1. it is used by mountain climbers
  2. it is used in painting
  3. it is used in manufacturing of ammonia       
  4. it is used for breathing.
  1. A special catalyst used in the laboratory preparation of oxygen gas by using potassium chlorate (KClO3) is:-
  1. Manganese (IV) oxide
  2. Zinc granules                                                 
  3. Anhydrous copper (II) sulphate
  4. Gas jar
  1. Which of the following chemical species have the same number of electrons?
  1. Cl, Be and O2-
  2. K+, Ca2+, Cl-  
  3. O2-, Ca2+ and  Ar                                     
  4. Na+, Mg2+, Be2+ and Li.
  1. Match each item in list A with response in list B by writing its correct letter to the number of the corresponding item in the table provided below.

 

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Chemical test for oxygen
  2. A substance which alters the rate of chemical reaction but itself remains chemically not changed at the end of the reaction.
  3. Atoms can neither be created nor destroyed
  4. Forces holding the opposite charged ions
  5. Combining capacity of element
  1. Ionic bond 
  2. Ionic equation
  3. Chemical composition
  4. Potassium chlorate (KClO3)
  5. Catalyst
  6. Dalton’s atomic theory
  7. Three (3) sub atomic particles called protons, neutrons and electrons.
  8. Valence
  9. It produces a “pop sound” when a burning splint is dipped in a gas jar containing it.
  10. It re- lights a wooden glowing splint. 

 

QN

I

II

III

IV

V

ANSWER

 

 

 

 

 

 

SECTION C (70 MARKS)

  1. (a) use the following information about elements  P,Q,R,S and T shown in the table below to answer the questions that follows.

Element 

Atomic number

Atomic mass

P

8

16

Q

9

19

R

11

23

S

6

12

T

18

40

           Questions:-

  1. Write down the electronic configuration of elements: P,Q,R,S       and T.

Element

P

Q

R

S

Electronic configuration

 

 

 

 

 

  1. How many neutrons are present in element T?

______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

 

 

(b) Write the chemical symbols for the following elements:-

(i) Magnesium________ (ii) Tin _______(iii) chromine_____    (iv) Lead______

 

(c ) For each of the following chemical symbols of elements write its corresponding chemical name:-

  1. Si______________        (ii) Cu____________       (iii) Mn_____________
  1. The figure below is part of the periodic table which includes  the first 20 elements. Study it carefully and answer the question that follows.

 

 

 

 

1

 

18

2

5

 

8

10

12

14

16

19

3

6

 

9

11

13

15

17

20

4

7

Transitional elements

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Questions:-

 For each number write the chemical symbol of the corresponding element

Number

1

2

4

6

8

11

12

17

Symbol 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Write the formula which represents a compound formed between an element with atomic number 1 and element with atomic number 17. ___________
  2. Considering the elements with atomic number 12 and 17, which is a metal and which is a non – metal?

Atomic number

Comment

12

 

17

 

  1. Write the number which represent an element with a property of burning in oxygen to form waters________________________
  2. Write the number which represent and element with inert property._________

 

  1. (a) Define the following
  1. Empirical formula
  2. Molecular formula 

(b) 0.7g of nitrogen combines with 1.6g of oxygen to form a nitrogen oxide. Given the molecular mass of a compound is 92.

Calculate: (i) The empirical formula

       (ii)The molecular formula

            (Use atomic masses  N= 14, O= 16). 

  1.  (a) (i) What is water?______________________________________________

              (ii Write a chemical formula for water_______________

  1. Outline three (3) uses of water ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

(b) (i) What is a fuel?_____________________________________________

(ii) Give two examples for each of the following categories of fuels in terms of their states of matter

Solid fuels_____________________________________________________

Liquid fuels_____________________________________________________

Gaseous fuels__________________________________________________

 

6. (a) Define the term a chemical equation. 

(b) Write down components of a chemical equations list only three (3). 

(c) Balancing the following chemical equations;

  1. Al(NO3)3(aq) + 3NaOH(aq)                      Al(OH)3(s) + NaNO3(aq) 
  2. Ba(NO3)2(aq) + (NH4)2SO4(aq)                   BaSO4(s) + NH4NO3(aq)
  3. CaCl2(aq) + Na2CO3(aq)                      NaCl(aq) + CaCO3(s) 
  4. Zn(NO3)2(aq) + Na2S(aq)                    NaNO3(aq) + ZnS(s)  
  5. Na2CO3(aq) + HNO3(aq)                    NaNO3(aq) + H2O(l) + CO2(g)

7. (a) Give the IUPAC names for each of the following compounds:-

  1. Cu2O______________________(ii)Na2SO4_________________________________
  2. Fe2O3__________________________

(b) Calculate the oxidation number of underlined elements:-

(i) CO2-            (ii) HCO3                                          (iii) KClO3

 

(c) Write the electronic configuration of Cl-  and hence draw its electronic diagram.

8. Explain the meaning of each of the following types of chemical reactions and support your explanation with the help of a relevant chemical equation.

  1. Synthesis (combination) reaction
  2. Decomposition reaction
  3. Precipitation reaction
  4. Single displacement reaction
  5. Neutralization reaction 
  1. Soap solution of different amount of water are tested from four different sources and produces lather observed for 30 seconds. The three groups of waster were the untreated; boiled and treated by ion exchange. The results are as follows;

 

Sample 

Volume of soap (cm3) used for water that was

Untreated

Boiled

Passed through ion exchanger

A

B

C

D

12

17

26

1.6

1.8

17

20

1.6

1.8

1.7

1.8

1.6

 

                Use the above results to answer the following questions; 

  1. Which is the hardest water sample? Why? 
  2. Which sample is like distilled water? Explain. 
  3. Which chemical substance might be the cause of hardness in (i) Sample A   (ii) Sample B? 
  4. Write an equation for the reaction of removing hardness in sample C. 

10. (i) Define the following terms;

  1. Soft water 
  2. Hard water 
  3. Permanent hardness of water 
  4. Temporary hardness of water 

(ii) Explain why the ability of temporary hard water to conduct electricity falls when the water is boiled but does not fall when temporary hardness is removed by addition of washing soda.

 11. Give a brief account to the following 

  1. Why does water note have any effect on litmus paper?
  2. (i) What would happen to a well stoppered   bottle full of water left in a deep freezer over the night? Why does this happen?

(ii) Why is iron not usually recommended in the construction of steam pipes and boilers.

  1. (i)  Name two compounds which may cause temporary hardness of water and two   ions which largely cause permanent hardness of water.

      (ii) Write one balanced chemical equation which shows how temporary hardness can be removed by boiling. Also write  one balanced equation which shows how sodium carbonate can be used to remove permanent hardness of water.

12. (a) Define the following words:-

  1. Deliquescence
  2. Efflorescence

(b) Give at least three (3) uses of salts

(c ) When zinc granules and dilute sulphuric acid are reacted together, gas M is produced. The gas produced is collected by downward displacement of water. Use this information to answer the questions below:-

  1. Name the gas M
  2. How is gas M tested?
  3. Why is a the gas collected by down ward displacement of water?

 

SECTION C (15 Marks)

Answer one question in this section.

 

13. For each of the following write equations for the reactions that would take place.

  1. Action of heat on Sodium nitrate, Lead (II) nitrate and mercury (II) Nitrate.
  2. Action of heat on sodium carbonate and copper (II) Carbonate.

14.  (a) 416g of anhydrous barium chloride where obtained when 488g of hydrated salt were heated. 

       Calculate the value of n is the formula BaCl2.nH2O (Ba = 137)

 

(b) Give the meaning of the following;

       (i) An acid

      (ii) Molar solution of an acid 

     (iii) Give three characteristics of acid. 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 49

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY MID TERM EXAMINATION-MARCH

FORM THREE-2021

 Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3.              Section A carries 20 marks, section B 35 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (20 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

 (i) The Berlin Conference of 1884/85 was a result of........

  1. The decolonization process of Africa
  2. The development of capitalism into imperialism
  3. The development of colonialism into mercantilism
  4. The influence of Bismarck of German

(ii) By 1850 a few East Africa can societies were still under communalism because...........

  1. They had reached the stage of communalism
  2. Their major means of production were owned collectively
  3. They were practising African socialism
  4. They had passed feudalism to capitalism

(iii) The main factor which changed the economy of South Africa in the 19th C was that.......

  1. The Boers started dominating the African majority
  2. Gold and diamonds were discovered in large quantities
  3. The coloured became more prosperous than Boers
  4. Development of Agriculture

(iv)  Before 19th C, most African Kings expanded their empires through...........

  1. Conquering neighbouring clans, villages or states
  2. Making contracts with foreigners for military aid
  3. Signing bogus treaties
  4. Cheating their fellow leaders

(v) Who among the following supported greatly the idea to have a British empire from the Cape 

      to Cairo.................

  1. Sir George Goldie
  2. Cecil John Rhodes
  3. Frederick Lugard
  4. Sir Harry Johnston

(vi)  Why are Missionaries important in African History?............

  1. Brought in trade goods with them
  2. Established medical services
  3. Account of their expeditions and experiences attracted more Europeans
  4. Treated Africans very well

(vii) Karl Peter’s early success on promoting Germany interests on East Africa was.....

  1. In the Northern Zone Tanganyika
  2. In Zanzibar
  3. In the North area of Kenya
  4. Between the Pangani and Rufiji rivers in Usagara

(viii) The major forms of feudal relations on the interlacustrine region were..........

  1. Ntemiship, Mwinyi and Communalism
  2. Nyarubanja, Busulo and Ubugabire system
  3. Slavery, Umwinyi and Baganda
  4. Ubugabire, Selfdom and Busulo system

(ix) Some areas in Africa experienced more intensive scramble than others in 19th C because they

  1. Had no active Africans to resist colonialism
  2. Were still far behind in development
  3. Were economically strategic
  4.  Had Mediterranean climate favourable for Europeans

(x)  The East African societies that developed clan organization based on matrilineal system   

        Were..........

  1. Makua, Makonde, Yao and Kikuyu
  2. Baganda, Sukuma, Kurya and Haya
  3. Karamajong, Masai, Nyamwezi and Hadzabe
  4. Kamba, Luo, Nyambo, Hangaza and Sandawe

(xi)With fire man could?

  1.         Cultivate desert areas
  2.         Run faster than before
  3.         Roast his food and live in colder areas
  4.         Burn all forest and make desert

(xii)Which of the following was called able man?

  1.         Home Habilis
  2.         Homo Erectus
  3.         Primate
  4.         Zunjathropus

(xiii)Which is not a feature of primates?

  1.         Hairly body
  2.         Bipedalism
  3.         Quadrapedalism
  4.         Lived in forests.

(xiv)The following are exploitative social and economic organizations practiced in Pre Colonial Africa except;

  1. Capitalism
  2. Feudalism
  3. Communalism
  4. Slavery

(xv)The feudal system in Zanzibar was known as;

  1.                    Busulo
  2.                     Nyarubanja
  3.                     Ubugabire
  4.                    Umwinyi

2. Match the items in COLOMN I with the corresponding historical events in COLUMN II by writing the letter of the correct event beside the number of the item in your answer sheets provided;

COLUMN I

COLUMN II

(i) Nok culture

A. Places created for preserving historical information

(ii) Merchant capital

B. Motivated overseas discovery journeys in the 15th and 16th centuries

(iii) Kingship 

      organization

C. Launched by King Leopold II to spearhead the colonization of the 

     Congo

(iv) Productive forces

D. Name given to early iron age way of life in Central Nigeria

(v)The Tuta

E. A policy aimed at promoting French language, attitude to work and 

    culture on the colonial subjects


F. An exploitative relation between the cattle owning Tutsi and Hutu 

    agriculturalists


G. Settlements of freed slaves


H. A branch of Ngoni immigrants who settled North of modern Tabora 


I. Include the producers, their skills, experience and level of technology 

   attained by society at a given time.


J. Practiced by feudal society


L. Settled in Songea


M. Places where historical remains can be found


N. Scramble and partition of Africa

SECTION B (35 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section   

3  (a) Briefly explain the following;

  1. Why were Africans defeated in Maji Maji rebellion?
  2. What made sultan to transfer his capital from Oman to Zanzibar?
  3. Explain one impact of the Ngoni Migration
  4. Homo erectus was more successful in environment than Zinjathropus
  5. How did domestication of animals improve man’s life.

   (b) List down the main tactics used to impose Colonial Rule in Africa in the 19th Century

4     Arrange the following statements in a chronological order by using number 1 to 5;

         (i) Through the Helgoland Treaty Uganda and Witu were incorporated in the British 

               sphere of influence and German bought part of Sultan’s coastal strip

         (ii) The Berlin conference divided Africa into ‘spheres of influence’

         (iii) The Anglo-Germany Agreement defined the territories of Sultan of Zanzibar and   

                 European spheres of influence in East Africa.

         (iv) The German government took over the affairs of the Company.

         (v) The German East African Company attempted, unsuccessfully, to develop the Germany 

                sphere of influence.  

5.Draw a sketch map of Africa and indicate the following

  1.                                                                                                                                                  The country where earliest civilization began
  2.                                                                                                                                                  A country with the highest population in Africa
  3.                                                                                                                                                  A country ruled by Female president
  4.                                                                                                                                                  The country which experienced Genocide in 1994
  5.                                                                                                                                                  A country in which Apartheid was practiced.

SECTION C (45 MARKS)

Answer Three Questions Only 

6.  By using relevant examples, explain six main sources of obtaining historical information.

7. Analysis any six characteristics of the first exploitative mode of production.

8. Abolition of slave trade was a combination of several factors. Justify this statement by using 

    six points.

8. Account for any six reasons for partition of East Africa from 1886 to 1890.

9.  Analyse precisely any six factors which led to the failure of the company rule in Africa.

1 | Page

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 48

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS MID TERM EXAMINATION-MARCH

FORM THREE-2021

 Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3.              Section A carries 15 marks, section B 40 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

For each of the items (i-x) choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and item its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided. 

(i) One of the following is not among the village government standing committees.

A. Political and economic planning

B. Social services

C .Finance, economic and planning

D. Defence and security

E. Self reliance.

(ii) The road traffic signs are mainly divided into the following categories:

  1. Command, precaution and information signs 
  2. Command, permissive and precaution signs 
  3. Permissive, preventive and maintenance signs 
  4.  Red, yellow and green 
  5. Command, precautions and traffic lights. 

(iii) One of the following is not true about human rights:

  1. They are inherent 
  2. They should be recognized, respected, and enforced by the state 
  3. Sometimes are known as natural rights 
  4. People are free to exercise them without any limitations 
  5. They are divided into civil, political, economic, social and cultural rights. 

(iv) Skills, experience, efficiency, confidentiality, sense of duty and honesty are the

  1.  Sources of Government revenue 
  2.  Functions of the central Government 
  3.  Qualities of Civil servants 
  4.  Functions of the Executive 
  5.   Filling the special forms.

 (v) FINCA and PRIDE can be categorized as

A. Banks 

B.  Non profit making organisations 

C. Loan giving institutions 

D. NGO’s 

E. SACCOS. 

(vi) . One of the following is not a distinguishing characteristic of the monarchical government:

  1. Only King heads the society 
  2.  Headed by a King or Queen 
  3. A King or a Queen is not elected but is a ceremonial figure 
  4. King or Queen is not a part of Legislature 
  5. The Prime minister becomes a Chief Executive.

(vii) Separation of powers means

  1. governing powers are divided among Executive Legislature and Parliament 
  2. completely parting away government organs 
  3. dispensing justice and imposing penalties when the laws are broken 
  4. one organ to control the remaining two 
  5. Governing powers are divided among the Executive, Parliament and the Judiciary. 

 (viii) The speaker of the United Republic of Tanzania is elected from the

A. Members of parliament only 

B. Office of the parliament 

C.  Lawyers and judges 

D. Any Tanzanian provided he/she qualifies to be a member of parliament 

E. Senior ministers. 

(ix) The Constitutional amendments of 2000 led to the following except:

  1. Establishment of the office of register of political parties. 
  2. Increased number of women seats from 15% to 30%. 
  3. Empowered the President to nominate up to 10 members of Parliament. 
  4. Declaration of President through simple majority votes. 
  5. Establishment of Human Rights and Good Governance Commission. 

(x)  Before a Minister is appointed by the President to head a Ministry, he/she must be

A. a Board Member of any firm recognized by the Government 

B. a member of any registered Political Party 

C. a graduate from any recognized institution 

D. appointed or elected Member of Parliament 

E. only an elected Member of Parliament. 

2.  Match the items of List A with the response in List B by writing letter of the correct response in the answer sheet provided 

LIST A

LIST B

i. Treason 

ii. 1982

iii. Second generation rights

iv. Prosecutor 

v. Guidance and counselling

  1. All government department except Judiciary and the armed forces
  2. Used to solve problem with psychological effects
  3. Used to solve problem with physiological problem
  4. The crime of betraying one’s country by attempting to kill the sovereign or overthrow the government.
  5. A public official who conducted legal proceedings against someone 
  6. Economic social and cultural rights
  7. Moral and legal rights 
  8. Gender equity
  9.  Valentine Mlowola
  10. Dr. Edward Hosea
  11. Gender equality
  12. Local government authorities established.
  13.  Formed after a complete overthrow of the existing oppressive government by the majority of people
  14. Acquired through application
  15. Acquired through birth certificate

SECTIONB(40marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Read the following passage and then answer the questions that follow.

In Africa, as was once the case for pre­industrial Europe, many children were born because they highly ­valued economic assets and because kinship system and religious beliefs encouraged families to have many children. Families would continue to have more and more children until desired number of boy ­babies had been born. Babies are often felt to be blessings from the gods or the ancestors. In 1984, the average number of children per family was 6.43. This rate has not fallen during the last decade and in some countries it is still rising.

Such a youthful population needs expensive medical and education services, and many adults are involved in the caring for children and in educating them. In the more urban and industrialized societies, for example, women have more opportunities to join men in the economic world, because there are facilities provided by the state for caring for even young children.

In the modern world many countries have tried to control the growth of population. Many of the more industrialized societies have been more concerned about the threat of  “overpopulation” and have adopted program of birth control or Planned Parenthood. However, those policies have been fiercely resisted in the Third World. It is unlikely that in Africa, where the traditional valuation of children is so strong that governments would succeed in compelling people to have smaller families. Only a few countries have adopted national population policies, notably Egypt, Ghana, Kenya, Tunisia and Mauritius. A few countries like Nigeria have voluntary agencies that offer advice about family planning. It is very doubtful if this advice (Limited to the main towns and used only by a few educated people) will have any noticeable effect.

The major obstacles in introducing population policies are social, religious and ideological. Equal serious is the reason that few administrators or political leaders, and very few of the ordinary people, appreciate the long term importance of relating population growth to trends in economic development. In too many African countries, there is no foreseeable way that food and other resources can match the population growth.

Questions

(a) Identify the main theme of this passage.

(b) From the passage, why children are born at a high rate in Africa?

(c) Why the author is a little bit concerned to the effectiveness of the program of birth control?

(d) Why the author seems to be doubtful about the work of charitable agencies in offering the

advice about family planning?

(e) From your own understanding, mention two (2) effects of overpopulation.

4. (a) Outline five functions of the National Electoral Commission in Tanzania.

    (b) List down five cultural practice violating women rights.

5. Give the meaning of the following terms

  1. Custom
  2. Ballot paper
  3. By election
  4. Urban authority

6. Mention four sources of service in local government authority 

7. Outline five roles of commercial Banks in Tanzania

8. “The Tanzanian public outcry for government measures to stop road accidents is understandable”.Suggest six measures which can be taken to improve Public road transport safety in Tanzania 

9. Examine the major sources of the water pollution in Tanzania and suggest control measures.

10.  Describe on how does the teamwork and good leadership may create stability in your society.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries 15 marks.

11. Despite the fact that Tanzania is endowed with many resources, it is economically    underdeveloped. Discuss six indicators of economic development.

12. One of the sources of government income is generated through taxation. As a good citizen explain to your community six benefits of paying taxes.

13. As a knowledgeable person in life skills, describe systematically the steps you would take to solve social problems in your community.

14. Discuss the solutions to road accidents.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 47

Student’s Examination No..................................

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY 1 MID TERM EXAMINATION-MARCH

FORM THREE-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 15 questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and and TWO  (2) question from section C in which question 13 compulsory.
  3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

  1. The second step in scientific procedure is;
  1. Formation of hypothesis
  2. Interpretation of data
  3. Identification of problems
  4. Asking questions
  1. If you are asked to prepare a first aid kit with its components which of the following you will not include:
  1. Iodine tincture 
  2. Medicine to cure diseases 
  3. pair of scissors
  4. Sterilized cotton wool
  1. One of the following is true about virus;
  1. Are the smallest living cells
  2. Have no effects to plants
  3. Can have both living and non-living characteristics
  4. Possess both DNA and RNA
  1. Which of the following organisations shows the correct order from simplest to the most complex?
  1. Cell, organ, tissue, system and organism
  2. Organ, tissue, cell system and organism
  3. Organism, tissue, organ system and organism
  4. Cell, tissue, organ, system and organism
  1. Organism which interbreed freely and produce fertile offspring belongs to the same;
  1. Species 
  2. genus
  3. family 
  4. kingdom
  1. Deficiency disease caused by prolonged lack of iron and iodine in the human diet are....................and ..................respectively
  1. Anaemia and goiter 
  2. Anaemia and marasmus 
  3. Goiter and night blindness
  4. rickets and scuvy
  1. Which of the following food contains carbohydrates;
  1. Irish potatoes 
  2. meat
  3. beans 
  4. groundnuts
  1. When glucose combines with fructose, it forms a disaccharide known as.............
  1. Maltose
  2. Galactose 
  3. surcrose 
  4. lactose
  1. One among the following is a risky behavior;
  1. Shaking hand and sharing toilet with PLWHA
  2. Alcoholism
  3. Eating
  4. Being patient

(x) Which of the following is not a part of a reflex arc?

  1. Motor neuron
  2. Relay neuron
  3. The brain
  4. The hypothalamus

2. Match the following items in List A and List B by writing the letter of the correct answer in the answer sheet provided;

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Root like structure in Bryophytes which provide anchorage and absorb water
  2. Fungi has a cell wall made up of
  3. Cap like structure containing gills in mushroom
  4. Fungi stores food in form of
  5. Zygomycetes produces
  1. Conscious activities
  2. Unconscious activities
  3. Zygospores
  4. Ascospores
  5. Pileus
  6. Stipe
  7. Hyphae
  8. Rhizoids
  9. Starch
  10. Glycogen
  11. Cellulose
  12. Chitin
  13. Pepsin
  14. Renin
  15. Homo sapiens
  16. HOMO SAPIENS
  17. Causes ulcers
  18. Causes heartburn
  19. Homologous structure
  20. Analogous structure

SECTION B (60 MARKS)

  1. Distinguish between the following. Give an example in each case
  1. Receptors from effectors
  2. Sensory neurone from motor neurone
  3. Reflex action from reflex arc
  4. Response from a stimulus
  5. Granial nerves from spinal nerves
  1. (a) Define the following terms
  1. Movement
  2. Locomotion

(b) Why don’t plants need to locomote like an animal? (3 reasons)

(c) Name the functions of the following parts of a brain;

  1. Cerebrum (two functions)
  2. Hypothalamus (two functions)
  3. Cerebellum (one function
  4. Medulla oblongata (one function)
  1. (a) Define the following;
  1. Classification
  2. Disease

(b) Differentiate Artificial from natural classification. (4 differences)

(c) Mention at least four adaptation of respiratory surface

  1. Fill the following table

Enzyme

Site of production

Food substance they act upon

Products

Pepsin

. . . . . . . . . . . . . .

protein

. . . . . . . . . . . . . .

Salivary Amylase

. . . . . . . . . . . . . .

. . . . . . . . . . . . . .

maltose

Pancreatic amylase

...........................

Remaining starch

. . . . . . . . . . . . . .

Trypsin

. . . . . . . . . . . . . .

. . . . . . . . . . . . . .

.......... ..............

Erepsin

. . . . . . . . . . . . . .

. . . . . . . . . . . . . .

. . . . . . . . . . . . . .

Pancreatic lipase

pancrease

. . . . . . . . . . . . . .

. . . . . . . . . . . . . .

  1. (a) Define the terms
  1. Digestion
  2. Emulsification

(b) Differentiate between Ruminant digestive system and digestive system of

human (4 differences)

(c) Mention at least four component of saliva

  1. (a) Identify the following;
  1. A cell which lacks nucleus . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  2. A mobile cell. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  3. A cell that changes its shape. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  4. A cell that transports water in plants. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  5. A cell that absorb water from the soil. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  6. A cell that contains a lot of chloroplast. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  7. A cell that transport food to the plants. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

(b) Draw a plant cell to show the main parts of cell

  1. (a) Define the terms;
  1. Waste
  2. Waste disposal

(b) List two functions of the mucus secreted along the wall of the alimentary

Canal

(c) Draw a bacterium

  1. (a) Define the following;
  1. Parasite
  2. Commensalism
  3. Mutualism

(b) Explain the following;

  1. A person swallows food while standing upside down
  2. A person is sleeping in a room while a charcoal burner is left opened
  3. A liver is removed from a digestive system
  4. Pepsin is secreted in inactive form
  1. Explain the adaptations of cardiac muscles to their functions
  2. (a) Mention three actions that can result into accidents at laboratory

(b) How can we prevent common accidents in laboratory? Give three ways.

SECTION C(20 MARKS)

  1. Write an essay of heterotrophism. Give example in each case
  1. Write an essay on disorders of digestive system

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 46

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2021

 Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3.              Section A carries 20 marks, section B 35 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

  1. One reason for the Dutch settlement at the Cape in 1652 was to
  1. Create Dutch empire in South Africa.
  2. Place South Africa in the world capitalism.
  3. Defeat Asians and Europeans who monopolized Indian oceans.
  4. Prepare a refreshment station for Dutch merchant from India.
  1. The main participants in East Africans long distance trade were
  1. Viumbundu, Arabs and Kamba.
  2. Yao, Kamba and Nyamwezi.
  3. Imbangala, Yao and Barbaig.
  4. Nyamwezi, Ngoni and Arabs.
  1. Scramble for Africa took place in the 19th C as a result of
  1. Merchantilism.
  2. Slave trading activities.
  3. Commercial capitalism.
  4. Industrial revolution in Europe.
  1. The abolition of slave trade in 19th C was followed by
  1. Berlin Conference.
  2. Formation of UNO.
  3. Introduction of legitimate trade.
  4. Bilateral agreements.
  1. The following involved continents of Africa. America and Europe between 15th C to 19th C
  1. Triangular trade
  2. Trans-saharan trade
  3. Merchantilism.
  4. Legitimate trade.
  1. Many Kings in West Africa participated in the slave trade because it:-
  1. Encourage trade in gold and salt.
  2. Brought them wealth.
  3. Enabled kings to visit Europe and America.
  4. Was considered as legitimate trade.
  1. The history of early man was associated with great discoveries of fire, pastoralism and farming during
  1. Neolithic and iron age.
  2. Middle stone age.
  3. Middle and late stone age.
  4. Old and middle stone age.
  1. The following treaty was signed for the closure of Zanzibar slave market
  1. Moresby treaty.
  2. Helogoland treaty.
  3. Harmatan treaty.
  4. Frere treaty.
  1. The rise of triangular slave trade was highly attributed by
  1. Humanitarian motives
  2. Industrial capitalism
  3. Intercontinental migration
  4. Maritime technology and discovery of new world.
  1. Important cities invaded by Portuguese in East Africa were
  1. Pemba and Unguja.
  2. Comoro and Lamu.
  3. Zanzibar and Witu.
  4. Kilwa and Mombasa.
  1. The people of West Africa had interaction with people of North Africa through
    1. Trans-saharan trade.
    2. Atlantic slavetrade.
    3. Wars
    4. Trans-continental trade.
  1. The professional traders in the Trans-saharan trade were called
    1. Barbaig.
    2. Bisa
    3. Galla and Segeju.
    4. Berbers.
  1. Which of the following is not a major source of history in Tanzania
    1. Written records
    2. Archives.
    3. Music.
    4. Museums.
  1. Chronological order of events can be presented through
    1. Time line and time charts.
    2. Carbon 14 dating.
    3. Studies of language and carbon 14.
    4. Anno Domino.
  1. The following is regarded as the systematic tool maker
    1. Chimpanzee.
    2. Homo habilis.
    3. Australopithecus.
    4. Primates.

2.Match the following items in List B with those provided in List A.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Death of Zwangendaba.
  2. Seyyid Said shifted his capital from Oman to Zanzibar.
  3. Merchantilism
  4. Christopher Columbus
  5. Berlin Conference
  1. 1884 to 1885
  2. 1845
  3. Discovery of America
  4. 1840
  5. Division of Africa through bilateral agreements.
  6. A label given to international trade based on trade and commerce abroad.
  7. Second stage of capitalism.
  8. 1830

SECTION B (35 Marks)

Answer All Questions in this section

3.Answer the following questions briefly

  1. What agreement was reached during Anglo-Germany treaty of 1886?
  2. What was the significance of Berlin Conference to Africa?
  3. Why did some African societies resort to collaboration instead of resistance?
  4. Why did most Africans resort to active resistance?
  5. Why were Africans defeated in the Maji Maji Rebellion?
  6. Explain why colonists opted for indirect rule in parts of  Africa like Nigeria?

4.Arrange the following statements in chrological order writing the number in the answer sheet.

  1. Mkwawa escaped, he committed suicide in order to avoid capture.
  2. In 1891 the Hehe under Mkwawa clashed with German forces, killing about 290 Germans.
  3. After number of years the skull of Mkwawa was brought back.
  4. The colonialist scramble for East Africa involved two major competing powers.
  5. The pattern of response in Tanganyika was similar to that in Kenya.

5. Draw the map of East Africa and show the following:-

(i) Kenya – Uganda Railway.

(ii) Tanganyika Central Railway from Dar es Salaam, Tabor, Kigoma and Mwanza.

(iii) The Northern Railway from Dar es Salaam, Korogwe, Moshi to Arusha.

(iv) Mention at least four functions of these colonial railways.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer any three questions from this section. Each question carries fifteen marks

  1. Differentiate the following historical terms:-
    1. Black smith and handcraft
    2. Bipedalism and Zinjanthropus
    3. Middle Stone Age and new Stone Age.
  1. (a) What is Mfecane wars

(b) Mention the participants in the war

(c) Explain the causes of Mfecane wars.

  1. Explain the main factors which enabled Portuguese to reach the coast of East Africa by 15th century.
  1. Why did some African societies collaborated with European during the period of African resistances against colonial rule?

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 45

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

GEOGRAPHY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 10 questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and two questions from section C.
  3.              Section A carries 15 marks, section B 55 marks and section C 30 MARKS
  4.              Map extract sheet for Sikonge(sheet 137/2) is provided.
  5.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  6.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

(i). Which of the following is the correct factor for growth in the mining industry?

  1.   Availability of capital
  2.    Absence of labour
  3.    Presence of cities like Dar es Salaam
  4.   Political instability

(ii) Quarts is a compound element of:

  1. Aluminium and granite
  2. Reldspar and carbon dioxide
  3. Manganese and iron
  4. Iron, granite, carbon dioxide.

(iii) The intensity of an earth quake is measured by an instrument called?

  1. Epicenter
  2. Chronometer
  3. Seismograph
  4. Ritcher scale.

(iv) The magnitude of the earth quake refers to:

  1. Effects produced by the earth quake.
  2. Large amplitude waves known as I- waves.
  3. Point at which earth shake.
  4. Total amount of energy released.

(v). Nomadic farming in agricultural activities refers to:-

  1.   Animal keeping through moving from one place to another.
  2.    Permanent cultivation of cash crops
  3.    Keeping animals by zero grazing.
  4.   Crop cultivation of food stuff crops only.

(vi). Which among the following is not a characteristic of shifting cultivation?

  1.   Sites are selected in the virgin forest
  2.    Simple tools are used like hand hoes.
  3.    Few crops are grown, mostly starchy crops
  4.   Keeping animals and crops cultivation

(vii). Plantation in agricultural system is referred to as:-

  1.   Small scale agriculture
  2.    Intensive subsistence farming
  3.    Large scale agriculture.
  4.   Sedentary shifting method.

(viii). A major problem facing river basin development project is:-

  1.   Silting
  2.    Flood
  3.    Diseases
  4.   Land Fragmentation.

(ix) Which among the alternatives is a problem facing Tennessee River valley Authority (T.R.A) scheme?

  1.   Labour shortage
  2.    Siltation
  3.    Diseases
  4.   Environmental degradation.

(x). The following are the hard wood species except?

  1.   Oak, Ash and Beach
  2.    Pines, Far and Spruce
  3.    Oak, Ash and Pines
  4.   Ash, Pines and Cyprus.

2. Match the items from list A with the correct response in List B by writing a letter of the correct answer.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. The name that is given to a boundary that separates solid materials from the molten mantle
  2. Clay as a parent rock
  3. The second layer of the earth’s surface
  4. A vertical feature formed due to solidification of magma within the earth’s crust.
  5. The process of changing granite to gneiss rock.
  1. Sima
  2. Sial
  3. Dyke.
  4. Lacolith
  5. Impermeable
  6. Sedimentation
  7. Metamorphism
  8. Mahorovic
  9. Asthnosphere.

3. (a) Define the term Climate.

    (b).What is the difference between climate and weather?

    (c). what is the importance of climate to human activities.

4. (a) Give five factors which control the distribution of temperature

(i)     ………………………………………………………………………

(ii)  ………………………………………………………………………

(iii) ………………………………………………………………………

(iv) ……………………………………………………………………….

(v)   ………………………………………………………………………..

(b)      State four types of clouds

(i)     ………………………………………………………………………

(ii)  ………………………………………………………………………

(iii) ………………………………………………………………………

(iv) ……………………………………………………………………….

(c)     Mention four importance of weather forecasting

(i)     ………………………………………………………………………

(ii)  ………………………………………………………………………

(iii) ………………………………………………………………………

(iv) ……………………………………………………………………….

5. (a) Give three methods used to measure the distance  of maps

(i)     ……………………………………………………………………………

(ii)  ……………………………………………………………………………

(iii) ……………………………………………………………………………

(b)      Mention three ways on how map scale can be expressed

(i)     ………………………………………………………………………

(ii)  ………………………………………………………………………

(iii) ………………………………………………………………………

(c)     If a statement scale is 1cm to 0.5km, calculate how many meters will be represented by 1cm.

(d). Change the following scales into the required formats.

a)      150cm to Kilometres if the map scale is 1:25,000

b)     The distance of 800cm if the scale is 1:20,000

c)      Change 1:100,000 into statement scale.

d)     Draw a linear scale to read 1:50,000 if the ground distance is 20km

6. (a) Distinguish between volcanism and volcano.

    (b) Classify rocks according to mode of formation.

    (c) Identify three minerals that are found in igneous rocks.

7. (a) Briefly explain the following process involved in weathering;i) freeze-thaw, solution and exfoliation.

   (b) Outline three factors that influence the rate of chemical weathering

SECTION C. (30 Marks)

Answer two (02) questions from this section.

8. (a) Explain the effects of rapid population growth on small scale farming.

      (b) What are the advantages of small scale agriculture? (Give five (5) points)

9.  Briefly explain measures taken by the government of Tanzania in alleviating problems facing livestock keeping.

10. Discuss the main problems facing mining industry in Tanzania.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 44

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3.              Section A carries 15 marks, section B 40 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

(i). Marriage in teenage can result in the following except;

  1. School drop outs
  2. Earlier pregnancy
  3. Death
  4. Female genital mutilation

(ii). Gender equity means;

  1. Gender balance
  2. Principle of being fair to both male and female
  3. Relationship between men and women
  4. Women empowerment

(iii). Biological differences between male and females is termed as;

  1. Gender
  2. Sex
  3. Gender focus
  4. Gender gap

(iv). An example of negative socio-cultural practice affecting women is;

  1. Gender analysis
  2. Gender roles
  3. Gender maltreatment
  4. Gender empowerment

(v). Gender equity can be achieved when;

  1. All members of family respect their father
  2. All members of the family work equally and reap equally from their wealth
  3. All members work equally, have equal access to property and get a fair share of their wealth
  4. All members of the family respect their mother

(vi) Who attends parliament by virtue of his office but has no right to vote?

  1. Prime minister
  2. The speak
  3. Attorney general
  4. The leader of the opposition 

(vii)The following is not a part of the executive in Tanzania 

  1. Civil servants
  2. The judiciary
  3. The president
  4. Regional commissioners

(viii) The organ which s responsible for election procedures in Tanzania is called_____

  1. Tanzania Elections Boards
  2. National Electoral Commission   
  3. Presidential Elections
  4. Presidential commissions of Election

(ix) Which of the following is a special group?

  1. Elderly
  2. Refugees
  3. People with disabilities
  4. Breast feeding mothers.

(x) Which is not a responsibility towards special group?

  1. Provide financial and material support
  2. Show them respect and understanding
  3. Provide cancelling and socialization
  4. Give job vacancies to elderly.
  1. Match the items in list A with the correct response in list B By writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number.

LIST  A 

  1. The ability to understanding one’s potentialities, strength, weakness and position in life
  2. Participatory approach to location making
  3. Maintainer peace and order
  4. Ability to stand up for one’s values and belief in the face conflicting ideas from friends
  5. Promotes individual’s personality in terms of dressing and communication

LIST  B

  1. Teamwork
  2. Lasses faire leadership
  3. Empathy
  4. Credence and counseling
  5. Critical thinking skills
  6. Self –awareness skills
  7. Improper behavior
  8. Friendship
  9. Creative thinking skills
  10. Self-confidence
  11. Good leadership
  12. Decision making
  13. Study tours
  14. Peer resistance
  15. Negotiation skills

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section. 

  1. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.

In developing countries, about 80 percent of women live and work in rural areas. In Africa women produce more than two percent of the food for home consumption. Men tend to produce for the market. Available data indicate that the time spent by women on farms tend to exceed that of men in many parts of rural Africa. In Tanzania women work for 16 hour a day compared to about 8 hours by men working. This indicates that women in Tanzania are involved in agricultural activities throughout the farming season.

Men seem to be concerned in the initial land preparation activities, thereafter involvement decrease considerably leaving the rest of work to women.

Women in Tanzania are the main productive forces to rural communities. Most of the daily activities are related to agricultural production, domestic chores and reproduction. They have almost total responsibility for substance farming as well as cash production.

They do all this work using very poor farming implements like hand hoe, which is unsustainable and almost cannot enable them to cultivate large farms. Although woman are the main producers at mostly men in the villages who take part in agriculture education where they learn new techniques particular on how to utilize the new tools and equipment  programs.

It is important to challenge the myths and misconceptions which contain to portray  men as thinkers, decision makers, directors  and leading  politicians, while  at the same time they promote the concept of women  as home maker’s  perceivers  of traditions  and cultures and submissive human beings. This is what gender sensitive human beings. This is what gender sensitive man and women do to ensure equality and development.

QUESTIONS.

  1. Suggest a suitable title for the passage and give a rationale for your suggestion
  2. Why the author claims that women contribute more than men in production for home consumption? Provide two reasons.
  3. From the passage, how can equal opportunities for men and women be fostered?  Give two points.
  4. What does that author mean when he /she says that “men tend to produce for the market?
  5. According to author, what is the main task for women in rural areas? Give two tasks
  1. (a) State five differences between local government and central government 

(b) Outline five main causes of environment degradation 

  1. You have studied about life skills in your studies. Elaborate to your community six benefits of life skills education
  2. Describe six indicators of social development
  3. The government of Tanzania like any other government in the world spends money for its population. “In the light of this statement” Explain six main areas where the central government of Tanzania spends its money
  4. Briefly explain nine (9) key principles of democracy
  5. Discuss six functions of the parliament of the united Republic of Tanzania in the government process of the country
  6. Assess six significances of national festival and Public Holidays to Tanzania

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries 15 marks.

  1. Road accidents in Tanzania have now reached unacceptable proportions. Suggest six measures to alleviate road accidents in Tanzania.
  2. “High standard of life and work are inseparable”. In the light of this statement examine the importance of work to human development by giving six points.
  3. Examine the importance of life skills to the youth in Tanzania by giving six points.
  4. Examine the importance of local governments in Tanzania by giving six points.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 43

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY 1 MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 15 questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and and TWO  (2) question from section C in which question 13 compulsory.
  3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

  1. Which of the following are parasitic eukaryotic organisms?
  1. Amoeba and paramecium
  2. Euglena and green algae
  3. Trypanosome and plasmodium
  4. Brown algae and amoeba
  5. Plasmodium and amoeba.

(ii) The outer most living structure in plant cells is the;

  1. Cell wall
  2. Cytoplasm
  3. Cell membrane
  4. Nuclear membrane
  5. Ectoplasm.

(iii) The part of cassava plant which is modified for food storage is;

  1. An underground stem
  2. An underground root
  3. A corn
  4. A prop root
  5. An underground stalk.

(iv) The human body can make one of the following vitamins for itself;

  1. Vitamin A
  2. Vitamin B
  3. Vitamin K
  4. Vitamin D
  5. Vitamin E.

(v) Examples of diseases caused by bacteria are?

  1. Tuberculosis, cholera and gonorrhea.
  2. Malaria, bilharzias’ and cancer
  3. Elephantiasis, AIDS and sleeping sickness.
  4. Measles, amoebic dysentery and chickenpox
  5. Common cold, Typhoid and cholera.

(vi) Which of the following is common to both plants and animals?

  1. Respiration
  2. Digestion
  3. An excretory system
  4. Chloroplasts.
  5. Starch grains.

(vii) The Monera are also referred to as Prokaryotes. This means having;

  1. No nucleus
  2. Membrane bounded organelles
  3. Simple structure.
  4. Reduced nucleus.
  5. Circular nucleus.

(viii) Food is moved along the oesophgus by a process known as:-

  1. Assimilation
  2. Chewing
  3. Egestion
  4. Peristalsis
  5. Churning

(ix) Removal of predators in the ecosystem will result in;

  1. Decrease in the number of producers
  2. Increase in the number of producers
  3. Decrease in the number of prey
  4. An increase in the number of decomposers
  5. No significant change.

(x) Which of the following best defines allergy?.

  1. Body reaction to antigen
  2. Body reaction against a specific drug.
  3. Body reaction against a disease – causing micro – organism.
  4. Accumulation of mucus caused by inhaling dust particles.
  5. Formation of rash causes by eating specific foods.

2. Matching items questions.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Product of anaerobic respiration in plants
  2. Turgor pressure.
  3. Carries oxygenated blood from lungs to heart.
  4. Solution of equal concentration
  5. Control the closing and opening of stomatal pore.
  1. Isotonic solution
  2. Hypotonic solution
  3. Lactic acid
  4. Ethanol
  5. Corpuscle
  6. Plasma
  7. Epidermal cells
  8. Guard cell
  9. Pulmonary artery
  10. Pulmonary vein
  11. Force extended against cell wall
  12. Pressure due to flaccidity.

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer All Questions in This section

3. (a) What is blood circulation?

(b) Give four importance of blood circulation

(c) Name two disorders of human circulatory system.

4. (a) What do you understand by term “Diffusion”?

(b) Name structures concerned with gaseous exchange in plants

(c) Explain mechanism of gaseous exchange in man.

5. (a) Outline four reasons for studying Biology in schools.

(b) Define Respiration

(c) Give five features of respiratory surfaces.

6. (a) What do you understand by the term laboratory?

(b) Outline four qualities of a good laboratory

(c) Give functions of the following apparati.

  1. Petri dish
  2. Mortar and pestle
  3. Hand lens
  4. Thermometer.

7. (a) Define the term health.

(b) Mention four factors affecting health.

(b) Name causative agent of the following.

  1. Common cold
  2. Cholera
  3. Dysentry
  4. Bilharzia

8. (a) Give two differences between cell membrane and cell wall

(b) What is the importance of cell differentiation to an organism

9.(a) State the general characteristics of kingdom plantae

(b) Briefly explain the differences between monocots and dicots.

10. (a) What is movement?

(b) Describe the role played by skeleton in human body

11. Juma complains of a burning sensation around the chest region

(a) What do you think is his problem
(b) Give five measures he should take to treat the disorder

12. Waste from homes can have several beneficial uses. Elaborate.

SECTION C (25 marks) ESSAY QUESTION

Answer two questions from this section. Question 13 is compulsory.

13. Write an essay on typhoid using guidelines below.

  1. Meaning
  2. Cause
  3. Symptoms
  4. Effects
  5. Prevention and control

14. Write an essay on waste disposal using the guidelines below.

  1. Meaning of Waste
  2. Meaning of Waste disposal
  3. Types of Wastes
  4. Ways of disposing wastes.
  5. Effects of poor waste disposal

15. Viruses can be both harmful and beneficial, elaborate this statement.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 42

THE PRESIDENTS OFFICE

MINISTRY OF LOCAL GOVERNMENT AND REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION

MOTHLY SERIES EXAMINATIONS

JANUARY 2021 HISTORY FORM 3

TIME: 2 HOURS                  30.01.2020

INSTRUCTIONS

  • This paper consists of section A, B and C.
  • Answer all questions in section A and B, and only TWO questions from section C.

SECTION A

  1. For each of the following items choose the best answer from the given alternatives.
  1. One reason for the Dutch settlement at the Cape in 1652 was to
  1. Create Dutch empire in South Africa.
  2. Place South Africa in the world capitalism.
  3. Defeat Asians and Europeans who monopolized Indian oceans.
  4. Prepare a refreshment station for Dutch merchant from India.
  1. The main participants in East Africans long distance trade were
  1. Viumbundu, Arabs and Kamba.
  2. Yao, Kamba and Nyamwezi.
  3. Imbangala, Yao and Barbaig.
  4. Nyamwezi, Ngoni and Arabs.
  1. Scramble for Africa took place in the 19th C as a result of
  1. Merchantilism.
  2. Slave trading activities.
  3. Commercial capitalism.
  4. Industrial revolution in Europe.
  1. The abolition of slave trade in 19th C was followed by
  1. Berlin Conference.
  2. Formation of UNO.
  3. Introduction of legitimate trade.
  4. Bilateral agreements.
  1. The following involved continents of Africa. America and Europe between 15th C to 19th C
  1. Triangular trade
  2. Trans-saharan trade
  3. Merchantilism.
  4. Legitimate trade.
  1. Many Kings in West Africa participated in the slave trade because it:-
  1. Encourage trade in gold and salt.
  2. Brought them wealth.
  3. Enabled kings to visit Europe and America.
  4. Was considered as legitimate trade.
  1. The history of early man was associated with great discoveries of fire, pastoralism and farming during
  1. Neolithic and iron age.
  2. Middle stone age.
  3. Middle and late stone age.
  4. Old and middle stone age.
  1. The following treaty was signed for the closure of Zanzibar slave market
  1. Moresby treaty.
  2. Helogoland treaty.
  3. Harmatan treaty.
  4. Frere treaty.
  1. The rise of triangular slave trade was highly attributed by
  1. Humanitarian motives
  2. Industrial capitalism
  3. Intercontinental migration
  4. Maritime technology and discovery of new world.
  1. Important cities invaded by Portuguese in East Africa were
  1. Pemba and Unguja.
  2. Comoro and Lamu.
  3. Zanzibar and Witu.
  4. Kilwa and Mombasa.
  1. The people of West Africa had interaction with people of North Africa through
  1. Trans-saharan trade.
  2. Atlantic slavetrade.
  3. Wars
  4. Trans-continental trade.
  1. The professional traders in the Trans-saharan trade were called
  1. Barbaig.
  2. Bisa
  3. Galla and Segeju.
  4. Berbers.
  1. Which of the following is not a major source of history in Tanzania
  1. Written records
  2. Archives.
  3. Music.
  4. Museums.
  1. Chronological order of events can be presented through
  1. Time line and time charts.
  2. Carbon 14 dating.
  3. Studies of language and carbon 14.
  4. Anno Domino.
  1. The following is regarded as the systematic tool maker
  1. Chimpanzee.
  2. Homo habilis.
  3. Australopithecus.
  4. Primates.
  1. Match the following items in List B with those provided in List A.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Death of Zwangendaba.
  2. Seyyid Said shifted his capital from Oman to Zanzibar.
  3. Merchantilism
  4. Christopher Columbus
  5. Berlin Conference
  1. 1884 to 1885
  2. 1845
  3. Discovery of America
  4. 1840
  5. Division of Africa through bilateral agreements.
  6. A label given to international trade based on trade and commerce abroad.
  7. Second stage of capitalism.
  8. 1830

LIST A

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(v)

LIST B

SECTION B (35 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. Briefly answer the following questions
  1. Differentiate between tools made and used during the old stone age and the late stone age.
  2. What was contribution of iron age to civilization of man.
  3. How did fire make life easier for man?
  4. Why did Portugal lead the search for the sea route to India.
  5. Why did the trans-Saharan trade come to an end.
  6. Why was carl Peters regarded as an important person in history of Tanganyika?
  1. Arrange the following statements in a chronological order.
    1. The eventual abolition of slave trade took place when Africa was being colonized.
    2. The Sultan was compelled to sign the new treaty not to allow the export of slaves outside East Africa.
    3. The abolition of slave trade in East Africa took place after 1820.
    4. However the flow of slaves continued and increased despite of the treaty.
    5. Indian Ocean trade introduced slave trade in East Africa.

1

2

3

4

5

  1. Draw a sketch map of Africa and locate the following by using roman numbers;
  1. The British east African colony where indirect rule policy was more successful
  2. The Portuguese colony whose nationalist leader was assassinated by a parcel bomb in Dar es salaam.
  3. The country where apartheid policy was applied.
  4. The Germany colony that resisted direct rule policy in 1904-1907
  5. The British colony where indirect policy was first experimented in Africa.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer any THREE questions from this section

  1. Explain any five (5) major effects of early contact between East Africa, Middle East and Far East.
  1. Trace the motives behind Ngoni migration into East Africa in the 19th C.
  1. Describe the major trade routes in the East African long distance trade.
  1. What were the economic reasons behind scramble and partition of Africa in the closing decades of 19th C.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 41

THE PRESIDENTS OFFICE MINISTRY OF LOCAL GOVERNMENT AND REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION

MIDTERM MARCH EXAMINATION 2021

BIOLOGY FORM III

  1. For questions (i) –(x) choose the best answer from the alternatives given and write it in the box provided.
  1. Which of the following is not a plant?
  1. Moses
  2. Liverwort
  3. Toadstool
  4. Fern
  5. Pine
  1. The blood vessel that carries blood to the heart muscles is called
  1. Vena cava
  2. Coronary artery
  3. Coronary vein
  4. Pulmonary artery
  5. Septin.
  1. Which hormone is responsible for apical dominance?
  1. Auxin
  2. Gibberellins
  3. Acetylene
  4. Oxytoxin
  1. Which of the following products of respiration is not produced by plants?
  1. Energy
  2. Water
  3. Alcohol
  4. Carbon dioxide
  5. Lactic acid
  1. Which of the following is not a member of kingdom fungi?
  1. Toadstool
  2. Moses
  3. Mushroom
  4. Yeast
  5. Penicillium
  1. Which of the following is not function of skeleton in man?
  1. Support
  2. Making blood cells
  3. Protection
  4. Transport
  5. Movement
  1. Which of the following is not a future of dicots?
  1. Parallel venation
  2. Network veins
  3. Tap root
  4. Two cotyledons
  5. Flowers are multiple of four or five
  1. Suppose you are provided with small sections of cells from different organisms, which instrument will you use to identify them?
  1. Test tube
  2. Watch glass
  3. Microscope
  4. Petri dish
  5. Beaker
  1. What is the role of cerebrum in human beings?
  1. Breathing
  2. Sneezing
  3. Yawning
  4. Learning
  5. Walking
  1. Why is transfusion of blood from a donor with group O to a recipient with blood group AB successfully?
  1. The recipient blood has no antibodies
  2. The recipient blood has no antigens
  3. The donor blood has many antigens
  4. The donor blood has many antibodies
  5. The recipient blood has antigen O
  1. Match the phrases in List A with the responses in list B by writing the letter of the correct answer below the corresponding item number in the table provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Used by insect for gaseous exchange
  2. Uses skin, buccal cavity gills and lungs for gaseous exchange.
  3. Uses book lung for gaseous exchange
  4. Its gaseous exchange structure is stomata.
  5. Used by tadpoles for gaseous exchange
  1. External gills
  2. Internal gills
  3. Spider
  4. Crocodile
  5. Frog
  6. Rat
  7. Spiracles
  8. Bronchioles
  9. Plants.

SECTION B ( 60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1. (a) Poor laboratory building can be a source of accidents, justify using four points.

(b) State four apparatus that can be used to measure volume

  1. (a) Briefly explain the mechanism of gaseous exchange in insects such as grasshopper.

(b) Using chemical equation, show the product of anaerobic respiration in plants.

  1. (a) Explain why ecological pyramids tapper towards the end

(b) what role does bacteria and producers play in an ecosystem?

(c) using a well labeled diagram, explain how carbon circulates in the atmosphere.

  1. (a) What is transpiration?

(b) Explain the environmental factors that affect the rate of transpiration

(c) Draw the external structure of a leaf

  1. Briefly explain the importance of Photosynthesis in living organisms
  2. Viruses are both beneficial and harmful, briefly explain
  3. (a) What is classification? Mention two types of classification

(b) Give the advantages of classification.

  1. (a) Differentiate between food processing and food preservation

(b) What are the advantages and disadvantages of traditional methods of food preservation?

  1. (a) What is first Aid?

(b) Explain why first Aid is important to an accident victim

  1. Explain ways in which waste can be made beneficial to man

SECTION C ( 25 Marks)

(Answer only 2 Questions)

  1. Corona virus 2019 has being declared a pandemic by World Health Organization.
  1. What do you understand by the term pandemic?
  2. What is the cause of covid-19
  3. Explain five signs and symptoms of covid-19
  4. Suggest measures to be taken to control the spread of covid-19
  1. Malaria is very common in many African countries, briefly discuss the cause, transmission, signs and symptoms and control of malaria.
  2. Discuss the economic importance of kingdom fungi to human beings.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 40

PRESIDENT'S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT 

ANNUAL EXAMINATION MATHEMATICS FORM THREE 

Time: 3 Hours November 2020 a.m.

Instructions

1.This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.

2.Answer all questions in sections A and B. Each question in section A carries six (6) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.

3.All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly.

4.mathematical tables may be used.

5.Cellular phones, calculators and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.

SECTION A (60 Marks) 

Answer all questions in this section.

1.a) Use mathematical table, evaluate 

(b)Express 5.4545454545... in form of a/b where a and b are both integers.

2.(a)

b)Solve for x the following equation 32x-3 X 8x+4 = 64 ÷  2x

c)Rationalize the denominator 

3.a) Find value of P which makes the following equations perfect square

i) x2 + 8x +P=0 

ii) x2 - image x + P=0

b) Solve for x the equation

4.a)Given the universal set U={p, q, r, s, t, x, y,z} A={p, q, r, t} B={r, s, t, y }.

Find i)(AUB) ii)(A’nB’)

b)In a class of 60 students, 22 students study Physics only, 25 study Biology only and 5 students study neither Physics nor Biology. Find i) Number of students study Physics and Biology. ii) Number of students that study Biology.

5.a) A, B and C are to share T.sh 120,000/= in the ratio ofimage :image : image . How much will each get?

b)A radio is sold at T. sh 40,500/= this price is 20% value added tax(V.A.T). Calculate the amount of V.A.T.

6.(a) Triangles ABC and STBare similar. AB=3cm and ST=2cm. The area of triangle STU is 6cm2. Find the area of triangle ABC

(b) The translation T maps the origin onto a point P(4,8). Where will T map the points: (i) Q(0,4)?

(ii) N(−10,8)

7. (a) Find the equation of the line through the point (2,−2) crossing the image-axis at the same point as the line whose equation is y= x−4

(b) A farmer sold a quarter of his maize harvest and give one third of the remaining to his relatives.If the farmer remained with 36 bags of maize, find:- (i) How many bags of maize did the farmer harvest. (ii) How many bags of maize did the farmer sold.

8.(a) The sum of 1st n-terms of certain series is 2n-1, show that this series is Geometric Progression. Find an the nth term of this series.

(b) )The 5th term of A.P is 23 and the 12th term is 37. Find

(i)The tenth term

(ii)The sum of the first tenth terms by using the values computed above without using the common difference for this progression

9.(a) Given that 

image

Find The value of

image

(b) A man standing on top of cliff 100m high, is in line with two buoys whose angles of depression are 170 and 210. Calculate the distance between the buoys.

10. a)Solve for x if 

(b) A two-digit of positive number is such that, the product of the digits is 8. When 18 is added to the number, then the digits are reversed. Find the number.

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer All Questions In This Section

11. The daily wages of one hundred men are distributed as shown below

Wages in T.Sh. x 1,000

3.0 - 3.4

3.5 - 3.9

4.0 - 4.4

4.5 - 4.9

5.0 - 5.4

5.5 - 5.9

6.0 - 6.4

6.5 - 6.9

Number of men

4

6

10

14

x

20

14

6

a)Find the value of x

b)Calculate the daily mean wage of the 100 men

c)Draw histogram to represent this data and use it to estimate Mode

d)Draw cumulative frequency curve and use it to represent Median

12.(a ) Find values of angles marked x0 and y0 in the figure below

image

(b)Prove that exterior angle of cyclic quadrilateral is equal to interior opposite angle.

(c)Two places P and Q both on the parallel of latitude 260N differ in longitude by 400. Find the distance between them along their parallel of latitude

13. .(a)Prepare Balance sheet of Mr. Hamis from the following Assets and Liabilities on 31 st December 2009:

•Creditors 100,000/=

•Debtors 150,000/=

•Bank Overdraft 50,000/=

•Cash in hand 15,000/=

•Stock 85,000/=

•Furniture 42,000/=

•Premises 250,000/=

•Capital 392,000/=

(b) Use the transactions above to find

i.Total current asset

ii.Total Current liability

iii.Working Capital iv. Total fixed Asset

14. a) The function f is defined as follows:

i) Sketch the graph of f(x) 

(ii) Determine domain and range (

(iii) Find  f(1) ,  f(-4)  and f(π)

(b)For what values of x is function f(x)=image is undefined?

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 39

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE ANNUAL EXAMINATIONS

013GEOGRAPHY
(For Both School and Private Candidates)

Time: 3:00 HoursDecember 2020 p.m.


Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C, with total of ten (10) questions
  1. Answer ALL questions in section A and B and two (2) questions from section C
  1. Map extract of (265/2) Ilonga Sheet is provided
  1. Credit will be given for the use of recreant diagrams
  1. Write your examination number on each answer sheet you have used.



SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questionsin this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)What is a proper name for the study of the description of the earth?

Asolar system

BAstronomy

CGeography

DEnvironment

EMetrology

(ii)You have been visited the coastal area of Bagamoyo and you find the forests with deep roots and roots project above the mud and water to absorb oxygen, what kind of forest is that?

ATropical forest

BMangrove forest

CConiferous forest

DDeciduous forest

ETemperate forest

(iii)If the time at town X is 150E is 12:00 noon what could be the longitude town Y if it is 8:00 am?

A150E

B300W

C300E

D450W

E450E

(iv)Mrs Kilua was wondering how fragments are worn out during collision against each other at Kondoa river during rainy season, her daughter tells her that process is known as ……

AHydraulic action

BAttrition

CAbrasion

DCorrosion

EHydrolysis

(v)The Maasai around Oldonyo Lengai mountain were wondering the way mountain vomiting fire and smoke, they believe that the mountain was possessed by bad evils, tell them is not evils but is …………..

AVolcanic eruptions

BTectonic movements

CMass wasting

DFire from God

EFaulting

(vi)Suppose you want to carry out a field study on the atmospheric conditions suitable for growth of maize on a farm village. What are the best weather components to be considered…?

ARainfall and wind

BRainfall and could cover

CMoisture and sunshine

DRainfall and temperature

EPressure and humidity

(vii)Last year people of Bukoba District experience shaking of crustal rocks which lead to destruction of properties and death of people. Where this shaking does originated inside the earth’s crust?

AAt the focus

BAt the epicentre

CAt the fault

DAt the Lake Victoria

(viii)The process of peeling off and falling of rock mass is called

ADisintegration

BWeathering

CMass wasting

DErosion

EExfoliation

(ix)Workers who were working at Government offices in Dar es salaam are now moving to Dodoma as their new offices. Identify the type of that movement

AMigrants

BEmigrants

CEmigration

DImmigration

EImmigrants

(x)Recently in Rwanda the land with their vegetation was sliding down a slope and people were busy in taking photos and wondering to that situation, tell them what type of geological process was taking place

AErosion and deposition

BDenudation and transportation

CLand slide and erosion

DMass wasting and transportation

ELandslide and deposition

2.Match the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer sheet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

i

Fineness and coarseness of soilparticles

A. Soil type

B. Soil profile

C. loam soil

D. soil texture

E. Soil structure

F. Soil fertility

G. Soil organic matters

H. Soil chemistry

I. Soil erosion

J. Soil water

K. Soil air

ii

Removal of materials from surface of land

iii

Vertical section of the soil to the underlying rocks

iv

Status of soil with respect to amount of elements necessary for plants growth

v

Residues that have decomposed and mixed with soil mass

SECTION B (55 Marks)

Answer all questions from this section

3Study the map extract of Ilonga (sheet 265/2) and answer the following questions.

  1. Measure the distance covered by the river in kilometre from grid reference 630000 to 600979
  2. Use the square methods to calculate the area covered by Namihondo pond.
  3. With evidence, mention three (3) economic activities which may be conducted on a mapped area
  4. Describe the nature of relief of the area
  5. With one reason, suggest the type of climate
  6. Identify any three (3) factors which have influenced the population distribution of Ilonga town.

4.Carefully study the data below which shows the exports of tea from Kilimanjaro in tones.

YEAR

TEA PRODUCTION

(In Tonnes)

1981

7,000

1982

3,000

1983

10,000

1984

5,000

1985

2,000

1986

12,000

1987

16,000

1988

6,000

1989

15,000

1990

3,500

a)Name the two simplest methods of presenting the data

b)Outline two values of presenting the data by simple methods mentioned in (a) above

c)Present the given statistical data by using divergent bar graph.

5. (a)What is meant by Moraine erosion?

(b) Describe four (4) processes which are involved in Moraine erosion.

6.(a) Distinguish fold mountains from volcanic mountains

(b) Briefly explain how the rift valley is formed

7.Study carefully the photograph below then answers the questions that follow: -

Geography (1)

  1. Name the type of photograph
  2. Describe the possible climate of the area
  3. Suggest four economic activities that might be taking place in the area
  4. Suggest three possible regions in Tanzania where the photograph might have been taken

SECTION C. (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

8.Explain any six objectives of constructing the Stigler’s gorge hydro- electric power in Tanzania.

9.Mage’s grandmother used to cultivate many crops in small area, using local seeds and hand hoe and now she is blaming that she harvests nothing in five years and she is complaining that her neighbours are the one who cause this problem. Explain to her six ways on how she can improve her farming system instead of complaining to her neighbours.

10.Explain six human factors which influences population distribution and density in Tanzania

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 38

OFISI YA RAIS TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

MTIHANI WA MWISHO WA MWAKA 2020

021KISWAHILI

(Kwa watahiniwa Walioko na Wasiokuwa Shuleni)

MUDA: SAA 3 DECEMBER 2020


Maelekezo

1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na mbili (12).

2. Jibu maswali yote kutoka sehemu A, B na chagua maswali matatu (03) kutoka sehemu C.

3. Zingatia maagizo ya kila sehemu na kila swali.

4Andika kwa kutumia kalamu ya wino wa bluu au nyeusi

5. Simu za mkononi na vitu vyote visivyoruhusiwa haziruhusiwi katika chumba cha mtihani.

6. Andika namba yako ya mtihani katika kila karatasi yako ya kujibia.

SEHEMU A, (Alama 15)

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

1. Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika vipengele (i) hadi (x), kisha andika herufi ya jibu hilo katika karatasi yako ya kujibia.

(i) Ni kanuni, sheria na taratibu zipi zinazozingatiwa na wazungumzaji wa lugha fulani?

A Mofimu, Neno, Kirai, Kishazi na Sentensi

B Herufi, Sauti, Mofimu,Silabi na neno.

C Sarufi Maana, Sarufi Miundo, Sarufi Maumbo na Sarufi Matamshi.

 Sarufi maana, Mofimu, Neno na Kirai

E Silabi, Neno, Kirai na Sentensi.

(ii)………………. Ni sauti zinazotamkwa mara moja na kwa pamoja kama fungu moja la sauti.

 A Sauti B Herufi

 C irabu D  Silabi

 E Konsonanti

(iii)  Zipi ni nyenzo za lugha yoyote duniani?

A Sarufi na Fasihi B Irabu na Konsonanti

C Sarufi, Irabu na KonsonantiD Fasihi, Irabu na Konsonanti

E Sarufi, Fasihi, Irabu na Konsonanti

(iv) Mpangilio sahihi wa ngeli za kisintaksia ni upi?

A YU/A-WA, I-ZI,LI-YA,U-I,KI-VI,U-ZI,U-YA, KU,PA-MU-KU

B U-ZI, I-ZI,LI-YA,U-I, KU, YU/A-WA,U-YA, KI-VI, PA-MU-KU

C YU/A-WA, I-ZI, LI-YA,U-YA, KI-VI,U-ZI,U-I, KU,PA-MU-KU

D YU/A-WA,I-ZI, LI-YA,U-I,KI-VI, U-ZI,U-YA, PA-MU-KU, KU

E YU/A-WA, I-ZI,LI-YA, U-I, KI-VI,U-ZI, U-YA,KU, PA-MU-KU

(v)  Ni upi mpangilio sahihi wa mjengo wa Tungo?

A Kirai, Neno, Sentensi na Kishazi

B Neno, Kirai, Kishazi na Sentensi

 Kishazi, Kirai, Sentensi na Neno

E Sentensi, Neno. Kishazi na Kirai

(vi)  Ni lugha mseto ya muda inayozuka pindi makundi mawili yenye lugha mbili tofauti yakutanapo.

 Lugha ya vizalia B Pijini

C Kibantu D Kiswahili

E Kiunguja

(vii)Mambo muhimu yanayopatikana katika maana ya lugha ni kama yafuatayo, isipokuwa;

A Ni sauti za nasibu B Ni mfumo

C Lugha hufurahisha na kufundisha D Lugha inamuhusu binadamu

E Lugha ni chombo cha mawasiliano

(viii)  Ni sentensi ipi sio sentensi huru?

A Juma anacheza mpira B Anaimba vizuri

C Mtoto aliyepotea jana amepatikana. D Asha ni mtoto mzuri

EYule alikuwa anataka kucheza mpira.

(ix)  ……………. Ni kipashio kidogo kabisa cha lugha chenye maana. Maana hiyo yaweza kuwa ya kisarufi au kileksika;

 Isimu B Shina

C Mzizi D Kiimbo

E Mofimu

(x) Ni seti ipi inawakilisha kikamilifu wahusika wa fasihi simulizi?

A Vitu, mahali, wanyama, binadamu, fanani na maleba.

B Hadhira, wanyama, maleba, binadamu na fanani.

C Fanani, vitu, mahali, binadamu, maleba na wanyama.

 Wanyama, manju, binadamu, vitu, mahali na maleba

E Hadhira, binadamu, wanyama, vitu, mahali na fanani.

2. Oanisha maelezo yaliyo katika orodha ‘’A’’ ambayo ni aina ya tungo na orodha ‘’B’’ ambazo ni aina za maneno yanayounda tungo hizo kwa kuandika herufi ya jibu sahihi katika karatasi yako ya kujibia.

ORODHA “A”

ORODHA “B”

i.Wale waliamini maneno yangu

 ii. Salama alikuwa mwanafunzi wangu

 iii. Walikuwa wanataka kwenda kulima

 iv.Alikuwa anajisomea darasani polepole

 v. Loo! Yule anapenda ugomvi

A. N + t +N +V

B. H + w +T + N

C. W + T + N + V

D. Ts + T + E +E

E. Ts + Ts + Ts + T

F. N + V + t +E

G. N + U+ N+ T

SEHEMU B (Alama 40)

Jibu maswaliyote katika sehemu hii

3.Tunga sentensi moja kwa kila alama kuonesha matumizi ya alama zifuatazo.F4

i. Mkato

ii. Mabano

iii. Alama za mtajo

iv. Nukta pacha

4.Andika maana ya methali zifuatazo;

  1. Kikulacho ki nguoni mwako.
  2. Mtaka cha uvunguni sharti ainame.
  3. Mchumia juani hulia kivulini.

5.(a) Tenga kiima na kiarifu katika sentensi zifuatazo. Tumia alama ya mkwaju (/) na kuweka herufi “K” juu ya kiima na herufi “A” juu ya kiarifu.

i. Mdogo wangu anaongea sana

ii. Yule kijana aliyekuja hapa juzi amefariki dunia

iii. Frank ni kijana mpole sana

iv. Mama amelala sakafuni

(b) Changanua sentensi zifuatazo kwa njia yamatawi kwa kutumia mkabala wa kimapokeo

i. Fisi mkubwa ameuawa kichakani jana alfajiri.

ii. Mtoto aliyekuwa anacheza uwanjani amevunjika mguu.

6.(a) Kwa kutumia mifano miwili kwa kila kipengele, fafanua kwa ufupi jinsi vipengele vifuatavyo vinavyoonesha kuwa vitenzi vya Kiswahili na lugha za kibantu vina asili moja.

  1. Mpangilio wa viambishi katika vitenzi
  2. Kiambishi tamati katika vitenzi

b) Eleza kwa ufupi juu ya nadharia zifuatazo kwa jinsi zinavyoelezea asili ya Kiswahili

a)Kiswahili ni pijini au krioli

b)Kiswahili ni kiarabu

7. Kwa kutumia mifano, fafanua dhana zifuatazo kama zinavyotumika katika fasihi

a)Tashibiha

b)Takriri

c)Sitiari

d)Tashihisi

e)Mubaalagha

8. Soma kifungu cha habari kifuatacho, kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata;

Wanangu, toka zamani bara letu la Afrika lilikuwa na mambo yaliyohitilafiana na haya tunayoyaona sasa. Hadithi, vitimbi, na visa vilivyotokea zamani katika bara letu vinatofautiana sana na mabara yoyote mengine. Vyetu ni vitamu na bora kuliko vyote vile vilivyotokea katika mabara hayo.

Miujiza ya mambo yaliyotokea ina mizizi ambayo viini vyake hubenua waziwazi mila na desturi za asili tangu zamani, hivyo, hadithi hizo zina tija ya makumbusho ya daima milele. Kwa hiyo, katika hali yoyote yatupasa kuhifadhi hazina za mila zetu. Mila zetu zidumishwe; kwa mfano watu kuzunguka moto huku kizee kikongwe au ajuza akisimulia hadithi za mambo ya kale liwe ni jambo la kawaida kabisa. Katika dunia ya leo simulizi hizo za ujasirina uzalendo zimeenea kutoka vizazi hadi vizazi. Mambo mengi yamebadilika kutoka mitindo aina aina, hivyo mabadiliko hayo yasitufanye sisi kusahau simulizi zetu katika mitindo yetu. Ni wajibu utupasao kuendeleza tabia hizi ili tubenue mbinu za masimulizi hata kwa vitabu.

Maswali

  1. Pendekeza kichwa cha habari hii kisichozidi maneno matatu.
  2. Bara la Afrika lina mambo gani mawili mazuri.
  3. Mwandishi anatuhimiza tudumishe mila ipi?
  4. Fupisha habari uliyosoma kwa maneno yasiyopungua 50 na yasiyozidi 60.

SEHEMU C (Alama 45)

Jibu maswali matatu(3) kutoka katika sehemu hii.

9.Wewe kama afisa Manunuzi wa kiwanda cha mbao cha Mshikamao S. L. P 100 Chamwino, andika barua kwa mfanyabiashara yeyote mashuhuri wilayani kwenu kuhusu agizo la vifaa vifuatavyo; Misumeno 5, gundi ya mbao lita 20, misumari ya nchi sita Kg 25, na kofia ngumu 40. Jina lako liwe Shukrani Kazamoyo.

10. Kwa kutumia diwani mbili ulizosoma, eleza jinsi taswira tatu kutoka kila diwani zilivyotumiwa na msanii kuwasilisha ujumbe kwa jamii.

11. “Kazi ya fasihi ina radha kwa sababu inamzungumzia pia mwanamke kwa namna tofautitofauti” Thibitisha kauli hii kwa kutoa hoja tatu kwa kila kitabu katika riwaya mbili ulizosoma.

12. Chagua wahusika wawili katika tamthiliya teule mbili ulizosoma na uoneshe ujumbe unaowasilishwa na waandishi kupitia matendo yao.

ORODHA YA VITABU 

USHAIRI

Wasakatonge ---------------------------- M. S Khatibu (DUP)

Malenga wapya-------------------------- TAKILUKI (DUPU)

Mashairi ya Chekacheka---------------- T. A. Mvungi (EPdD.LTD)

RIWAYA

Takadini ----------------------------------- Ben J. Hanson (MBS)

Watoto wa Mama Ntilie ----------------- E. Mbogo (H.P)

Joka la Mdimu ---------------------------- A. J. Safari ( H.P)

TAMTHILIYA

Orodha ------------------------------------ Steve Reynolds ( M. A)

Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu cha Uzembe ----- E. Semzaba (ESC)

Kilio Chetu --------------------------------- Medical Aid Foundation (TPH)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 37

THE OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PHYSICS EXAMINATION FORM THREE

ANNUAL EXAMINATIONS.

NAME………………………………………..CLASS……………………………………………….TIME:2:30HRS

Instructions:

  1. This paper consists of two (2) questions. Answer all the questions.
  2. Each question carries twenty five (25) marks.
  3. Qualitative Analysis Guide Sheet authorized by NECTA and non – programmable calculators may be used.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)
  6. Where necessary the following constants may be used:

(i)Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10m/s2.

(ii)Density of water = 1.0g/cm3.

(iii)Pie,  = 3.14.

(iv)Coefficient of linear expansivity of the brick = 1.2  10-5 K-1.

(v)Speed of light in air = 3  108 m/s.

(vi)Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose correct answer from among the given alternatives and write 

its letter beside the item number;

(i) The direction of the heat flow between two bodies is determined by; 

  1. The direction of the wind
  2. The mass of the body
  3. The temperature difference of the two bodies
  4. The coefficiency of cubical
  5. Expensivity

(ii) A rectangular wooden block of density 0.8g/cm3 has dimensions 0.5m x 0.8m x 6m. Whatmaximum pressure will it exert on the ground? 

  1. 48000N/m2     B. 4000N/m2     C. 2.4N/m    D. 19200N/m    E. 400N/m2

(iii) Racing cars rarely get accidents despite their high speed because they; 

  1. Have greater momentum
  2. have big tyres with big treads
  3. Have wide bases and low centre of gravity
  4. exert greater frictional force
  5. have less mass

(iv) When a bus starts or stops moving, passengers tend to be jerked forward or backwards. This is due to; 

  1. Newtons 1st law motion
  2. Newtons 2nd law of motion
  3. Newton 3rd law of motion
  4. Newton universal law of gravitation

(v) In a uniform rod 1.0m long of mass 100g is supported horizontally on two knife edges placed 10.0cm from its ends, the reaction at the support when a 150g mass is placed at the midpoint of rod will be; 

A. 250GB. 125NC. 1.25ND. 125KN 

(vi) The SI unit of momentum is; 

  1. Ns    B. Kgm51     C. KG/m    D. Js

(vii) The area under a speed against time graph represents; 

  1. Displacement    B. Velocity    C. Distance    D. Acceleration

(viii) If the refractive index of water is 4/3, then the critical angle of water – interface is; 

  1. 48°35    B. 45°   C. 42°     D. 36°51

(ix) In concave lens parallel rays are;

  1. Converged
  2. Diverged
  3. Brought to focus at the centre of curvature
  4. transmitted parallel

(x) If a bottle capable of holding 200g of a liquid of density, 800kg/m3 is allowed to hold 160g of 

sand of density 3200kg/mthen the mass of water needed to fill the bottle is; 

  1. 200g       B. 40g     C. 90g    D. 150g

2. Match the items in LIST A with responses in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct responses.

LIST A

LIST B

(i)Surface tension effect 

(ii)Maximum displacement of pendulum bob. 

(iii)Cooling by evaporation 

(iv)Thermopile 

(v)Impulse 

  1. Rate of charge of momentum
  2. A morning star
  3. Action equals reaction
  4. The moon is the umbra of the shadow s of the earth.
  5. Thermodynamic temperature
  6. Floating without wetting
  7. Frequency of oscillation
  8. Amplitude
  9. Dogs hands out their tongues during hot weather
  10. Detect radiant energy
  11. Solid material strongly affected by magnetism
  12. Refractive index
  13. Bar magnet

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) State the law of floatation 

(b) A piece of a cork with volume 100cm3 is floating on water. If the density of cork is 0.25g/cm3,

(i) Calculate the volume of cork immersed in the water;

(ii) Calculate the force needed to immerse the cork completely (Assume mass of 1g = 0.01N). 

4. (a) Define energy 

(b) A ball of mass 0.2kg is dropped from a height 20M. On impact with the ground it loses 30J of 

energy. Calculate the height it reaches on the rebound. 

5. (a) What is meant by the terms;

(i) Heat capacity 

(ii) Specific heat capacity 

(b) Explain very briefly how heat losses have been presented in the vacuum flask.

6. (a) State the principle of moments

(b) A heavy mental boom AB of mass 25kg is supported at its ends. The beam carries a mass of 150kg 

of a distance of 0.75m from end A. If the beam is 2m long, determine the thrust at support A and B. 

7.(a) Define the following terms related to friction;

(i) Limiting friction 

(ii) Normal reaction

(b) What is the normal reaction of body of mass 10kg placed on an inclined place of angle 30°

8. (a) Why a bubble of air increases in volume as it rises from the bottom of a pond of water to the surface? Briefly explain.

(b) A half meter rule AB is freely pivoted at 18 cm from end A and balances horizontally when a body of mass 35g is hung 48 cm from end B. Calculate the mass of the rule.

SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

9. (a) Electrical energy is distributed in all parts of Tanzania by the National grid system which transmits alternating current at a very high voltage. Explain why is it necessary to have a very high voltage?

(b) A generator producing a varying current from 0 to 10 A was allowed to flow in a coil of magnetic field. After a time interval the current was observed to be 4 A. Describe how back e.m.f. was induced in a self – induction.

  1. (a) Mention any two differences between boiling and evaporation

(b) Calculate the quantity of heat required to melt 4kg of ice and to raise the temperature of water formed to 100°C

  1. (a) (i) State Boyle’s law and Charles’ law

(ii) Write down the ideals gas equation

(iii) What does the term STD means?

(b) At a temperature of 50°C and a pressure of 74cm Hg the volume of a gas is 300cm3. Calculate the volume of the gas at STP.


LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 36

PRESIDENT'S OFFICE 
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT 
ANNUAL EXAMINATION 
CHEMISTRY F3- FORM THREE

NAME………………………………………..CLASS……………………………TIME: 3HRS

Instructions:

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one (1) question from section C.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)
  5. The following constants may be used;

H = 1, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, Na = 23, Pb = 207 

Al = 27, Cu = 64, Ca = 40, Cl = 35.5, Mg = 24. 

Avogadros number = 6.02 x 1023

GMU at stp = 22.4dm

Faradays constant = 96500C 

Standard pressure = 760 mm Hg 

Standard temperature = 273K. 

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1. From each of item (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number.
  1. How many moles of sodium carbonate are present in 200cm3 of a 2M solution of the salt?
  1. 0.4 Mol      B. 0.01 Mol    C. 0.5 Mol     D. 10 Mol
  1. The chemical properties of an element is determined by;
  1. Mass number
  2. Mass spectrometer
  3. Number of neutrons
  4. Number and arrangement of electrons
  1. A solution can be define as a;
  1. Uniform mixture of two substance
  2. Heterogenous mixture of solute and solvent
  3. Homogenous mixture of solute and solvent
  4. Uniform mixture of two insoluble substance.
  1. An ion of element Y has 2:8: 8++ as its electronic configuration. The number of proton is the atom of y is;
  1. 18    B. 16    C. 40    D. 20
  1. Which of the following chemical can be used to prepare oxygen without applying heat?
  1. Hydrogen peroxide
  2. Potassium chlorate
  3. magnesium oxide
  4. Zinc carbonate
  1. Calcium and magnesium are members of  group of element in the periodic table called;
  1. Alkali earth metals
  2. Alkali metals
  3. Transition metals
  4. Amphoteric metals
  1. In the electrolysis of CUSO4 the weight of copper plate out of the cathode by a current of 0.70 Amps flowing for 10 minutes is;
  1. 0.139gm     B. 10.48gm    C. 14.48gm    D. 1.148gm
  1. In the reaction;

2FeCl2 +     Cl2                          2FeCl3

Chlorine may be regarded as; 

  1. A reducing agent
  2. An oxidizing agent
  3. A catalyst
  4. Halogens
  1. When 0.125 Faraday of electrolysis are passed through a copper (II) Sulphate soln. The mass of copper deposited will be;
  1. 4g    B. 8g     C. 64g    D. 32g
  1. The percentage of water of crystallization in MgSO4.7H20 is;
  1. 53.4%      B. 51.2%    C. 49.2%    D. 47.3%
  1. Match the item in list A with their responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response against the item number;

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A homogeneous mixture of two or more substance.
  1. Is a liquid metal.
  1. Ionization energy
  1. Is a method of extracting oil from nuts.
  1. Simplest formula
  1. Antibiotic solution
  2. Existence of element in different physical form of the same state.
  3. A group of atoms acting as a single substance.
  4. Have both acidic and basic properties.
  5. Shows different colours in acidic and alkaline medium.
  6. The energy required to remove and electron from the influence of the nucleus of the atom.
  7. Bonding
  8. Solution
  9. Suspension
  10. Mercury
  11. Copper
  12. Solvent extraction
  13. Empirical formula
  14. Molecular formula

SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1. (a) Differentiate between;
  1. Atomic number and Atomic mass
  2. Distillation and sublimation

(b) Define the following terms;

  1. Molar solution
  2. Ion
  3. Molar mass
  4. Neutralization
  1. (a) How many electrons will be needed to discharge 0.135g Aluminium?

(b) A solution of acetic acid (CH3COOH) was made by dissolving 3.00g of the acid in 0.5 

dm3 of solution. Upon titration 12.00cm3 of this solution required 25.00cm3 of 

sodium hydrogen carbonate for complete neutralization. Calculate the molarity of the 

bicarbonate (NaHCO3).

The ratio of the reacting moles is 1:1.

  1. (a) Give the name of substance or apparatus which fits the following descriptions;
  1. It is used for measuring fixed volume of liquid
  2. It is used for holding and keeping apparatus up right.
  3. It is used as a drying agent.

(b)Write down three differences between potassium ions and potassium atom. 

  1. Carefully study the electronic configuration of the following element;
  1. : 2 : 4     B. : 2 : 7    C. : 2 : 8     D. : 2 : 8 : 2  

E. 2 : 8 : 8 : 2F = 2 : 8 : 6 

(a)Which of the above elements would you expect to be; 

  1. Metallic
  2. Non metallic
  3. Inert gases

(b)What would you expect to be the formula of the compound formed in each of the following pairs; 

  1. A with B
  2. B with E
  3. D with F

(c)Deduce the period and group in the periodic table of; 

(i)E(ii) F 

(d)Write down a balanced chemical equation showing what would happen if an oxide of element E was treated with dilute hydrochloric acid. 

  1. (a) Differentiate between water treatment and water purification.

(b) Mention three methods of purifying domestic water. 

(c) What causes the following; 

i. Temporary hardness in water 

ii. Permanent hardness in water 

(d) i. With the aid of chemical equations explain why it is possible to soften temporary 

hardness by boiling.

ii. Mention one advantages of using hard water. 

  1. (a) State Faraday laws of electrolysis.

(b) An element Z has a relative atomic mass of 88. When a current of 0.5 amperes was 

passed through fused chloride of Z for 32 minutes and 10 seconds 0.44 of Z were 

deposited at the cathode; 

  1. Calculate the number of Faradays needed to liberate one mole of Z.
  2. Write the formula of the  Z ions
  3. Write the formula of hydroxide of Z. 
  1. (a) What is the meaning of the following terms;
  1. Exothermic reactions
  2. Endothermic reactions

(b) Draw the energy – level diagram for exothermic reactions and Endothermic reactions. 

(c) Name four (4) characteristics of good fuel. 

  1. 20cm3 of solution containing 7g/dm3 of metal hydroxide XOH, were exactly neutralized by 25cm3 of 25 cm3 of 0.10M hydrochloric acid.

(a)Write a balanced chemical equation for neutralization of metal hydroxide XOH.

(b) Calculate the concentration of metal XOH in mole per dm3

(c)i. Calculate molar mass of XOH 

ii. Identify element X. 

  1. (a) i. List down three (3) factors affecting the selection of ion discharge at the electrode.

ii. Define the term electrolyte. 

(b) A bluish copper sulphate aqueous solution was electrolysed by using copper 

electrodes. 

  1. Write ionic chemical equations for the reactions which occurred at the cathode and anode.
  2. Explain what will happen to blue colour of copper sulphate solution as electrolysis continues.

(a) Define and point of titration

(b) What colour change indicate end point in the titration of a base against an acid on using (i) Methyl orange?(ii) Phenolphthalein?

(c) A teacher of chemistry provided his F3 students with the following:

AA – A solution of 0.12 0M HCl 

BB – A solution of hydrated sodium carbonate, Na2CO3 containing 14.30g/dm3. On titration by using a 20cm3 pipette one of the best student obtained the following readings from a standard burette 

Burette readings

Pilot

1

2

3

4

Final volume (cm3)

18.00

35.90

27.90

45.50

27.60

Initial volume (cm3)

0.00

18.00

10.20

27.90

10.00

Volumeused (cm3)

(i)Suggest the colour change at the end point 

(ii)Suggest the indicator used by the student in the titration

(iii)Complete the table above

(iv)Calculate the average volume used for complete neutralization of the base by acid

(v)Find the value of X in the formula Na2CO3X H2O

12.(a) State three main physical properties of water and show the usefulness of each property.

(b)State three industrial application of electrolysis.

SECTION C (15 Marks)

Answer one (1) question from this section.

12. Explain how to handle chemicals having the warning signs of flammable, corrosive, harmful, explosive and toxic in the laboratory.

13. Explain six measures for minimizing the environmental degradation caused by extraction of metals in Tanzania.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 35

PRESIDENT'S OFFICE 
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT 
ANNUAL EXAMINATION 
BIOLOGY F3- FORM THREE

NAME………………………………………..CLASS……………………………TIME: 3HRS

INSTRUCTIONS:-

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C
  2. Answer all questions
  3. All answers must be written in the spaces provided
  4. All writings should be in blue/black inks except for drawings that should be in pencils

SECTION A (15 Marks) 

Answer all questions in this section

  1. Multiple choice questions. Choose the best answer in each case and write down its letter beside the question.
  1. The rate of photosynthesis is greatly influenced by the following factors except;
  1. Temperature
  2. Water
  3. Soil fertility
  4. Carbondioxide
  5. Light intensity
  1. How many gametes are produced from one cell during meiosis;
  1. Two    B. Four   C. Six   D. Eight    D. Ten
  1. Which of the following is not an excretory product in plants;
  1. Tannis
  2. Carbondioxide
  3. Urea
  4. Calcium oxalate
  5. Latex
  1. Which of the following organism belong to phylum protozoa;
  1. Mushroom
  2. Spirogyra
  3. Funaria
  4. Tick
  5. Amoeba
  1. One of the following is not part of the reproduction system of a female mammals;
  1. Uterus
  2. Urethra
  3. Oviduct
  4. Vagina
  5. Ovary
  1. Which of the following is the most important basic difference between plants and animals;
  1. Growth
  2. Locomotion
  3. Nutrition
  4. Irritability
  5. Excretion
  1. The part of a brain responsible for reasoning and imagination is known as;
  1. Spinal cord
  2. Medulla Oblongata
  3. Cerebrum
  4. Cerebellum
  5. Brain chamber
  1. By which process does Carbondioxide pass from the blood to alveoli of the lungs;
  1. Osmosis
  2. Oxidation
  3. Transpiration
  4. Diffusion
  5. Respiration
  1. In which category malpighian layer of mammalian skin is placed?
  1. Tissue
  2. Organ
  3. Cell
  4. System
  5. Organism
  1. A group of animals that maintain the body temperature at more or less constant is;
  1. Regulators
  2. Cold blood animals
  3. Warm blood animals
  4. Poikilotherm
  5. Homoeotherms
  1. Matching item questions. Match the items in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct responses beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. The layer of cells sensitive to light.
  2. Lack of light intensity cells.
  3. Cells sensitive to light of low intensity.
  4. Cells sensitive to coloured light intensity.
  5. Control the intensity of light entering the eye.
  1. Aqueous humour
  2. Cornea
  3. Iris
  4. Eyebrow
  5. Retina
  6. Rods
  7. Blind spots
  8. Cones
  9. Eyelash
  10. Choroids
  11. Ciliary body
  12. Diverging lens
  13. Fovea
  14. Pupil
  15. Eyelids

SECTION B: 60 MARKS

Answer ALL questions in this section

  1. (a) Define each of the following;
  1. First Aid
  2. Recycling
  3. Waste

(b) What is the most productive way of recycling garden and kitchen organic matter? 

(c) Give two (2) important of First Aid. 

  1. (a) i.  What is a reflex action

ii.Give four examples of reflex actions. 

iii. Explain the importance of reflex actions to animals. 

(b) i.State two difference between nervous control and hormonal control. 

ii. State the components of the central nervous system. 

  1. (a) Explain the meaning of the following terms;
  1. Transportation of materials
  2. Mass flow

(b) Explain what would happen when a plant cell is placed in hypertonic solution. 

  1. (a) i. The kingdom plantae is divided into different divisions. Mention them.

ii. Give one examples of the plants which are found in each division. 

(b) i. Identify structures found in plant cell only. 

ii. Describe the functions of each structure identified in (b) (i) above. 

  1. Study the diagram below which shows a part of the human uniferous tubule then answer the questions that follow;

nephron1_med

(a)i. Name the parts labeled A, B and D. 

ii. What is the name given to fluid labelled C? 

  1. Name two (2) components of blood that will not diffuse into the part labeled C.
  2. Name a nitrogenous waste which is present in urine but absent in the part labelled B.

(b)List the process involved in urine formation. 

  1. (a) State three factors affecting gaseous exchange in animals.

(b) Why tadpoles dies when taken out of water to the land. 

  1. (a) i. Identify two common features present in a villus and alveolus.

ii. Mention the roles played by the villus and alveolus respectively. 

(b) What are the respiratory surfaces for each of the following organisms?

i. Amoeba

ii. Fish

iii. Grasshopper

iv. Rose plant 

  1. (a) Define the following terms as used in reproduction;
  1. Fertilization 
  2. Ovulation

(b) Name and explain how two types of twins occur. 

11.(a) Explain the meaning of the following ecological terms;

(i)Food chain(ii) Trophic level 

(b) GrassMouseSnakeHawkBacteria 

From the above chain identify the organ which is;

(i)A primary producer 

(ii)A tertiary consumer 

(iii)Herbivores 

(iv)Carnivores 

(v)What is a role of bacteria in the chain above 

12. (i) What is classification?

(ii) State three distinctive features of the kingdom plantae 

(iii) What is meant by the term “Sporophyte”. 

(iv) With one example each list six phylum belong to the kingdom protoctista. 

SECTION C: 20 MARKS

Answer ONLY ONE (1) questions from this section.

14. Write an essay on pollination in plants under the following headings; 

(a)Meaning of pollination 

(b)Types of pollination 

(c)Agent of pollination 

(d)Characteristics of wind pollinated (4 point) and insect pollinated flowers (4 points). 

15. Discuss the economic importance of fungi. Give examples where necessary. 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 34

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

ANNUAL EXAMINATIONSERIES

ENGLISHFORM-3

2020

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of twelve (12) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from sections C.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1.For each of the items(i)-(x),choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside item number in the answer sheet provided.

(i)I don't knowwhere___________

  1. had the boy gone
  2. The boys have gone
  3. Have the boys gone 
  4. Do the boys go
  5. Did the boys go

(ii)Your work is_________ than it was amonth ago.

  1. worse
  2. bad
  3. Worst
  4. the worst
  5. Worser

(iii)I noticed this morning that some new houses________ on the land next to uncle's house

  1. building
  2. being build
  3. are being built 
  4. are building 
  5. have built

(iv)Two men_______ for a bus were knocked down when the lorrys kidded and ran off

  1. had  waited
  2. were waiting
  3. waited  
  4. waiting 
  5. wait

(v) Each of them hasbrought________ best friend

  1. his
  2. their
  3. his or her
  4. her
  5. one's

(vi)Where is Mr._______ wife staying?

  1. Juma's 
  2. Jumas'
  3. Jumas's
  4. Jumas
  5. Juma

(vii)After he_______ his goods, he paid for them

  1. has collected 
  2. had collected
  3. have collected 
  4. was collected
  5. having collected

(viii) He was accused________ stealing money

  1. for
  2. of
  3. about
  4. on
  5. with

(ix)Thesun________ in the East

  1. rise 
  2. is rising
  3. rose
  4. rises 
  5. has risen

(x)Diana_______ the school compound everyday

  1. Clean
  2. is cleaning
  3. cleaned
  4. has cleaned
  5.  cleans

2.Match the description of places in List A with the correct place names in List B by writing its letter beside the corresponding item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A place where books for reading are kept in school.
  2. A place where wild animals are kept.
  3. A place where people go for treatment.
  4. A place where you can buy and sale food staffs. 
  5. A place where artistic objects, cultural, historical things are kept.
  1. Home 
  2. Library
  3. Market
  4. Hospital
  5. Museum 
  6. School
  7. zoo

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3.Write an appropriate question tag for each of the following statements:

  1. You dont expect father to believe that.
  2. He is counting books in the shelf.
  3. You are doing an English Language examination. 
  4. Madam Laura has not been kind.

4.Suppose you are sent to a shop to buy some food stuff. How would you communicate with the shopkeeper using the given question guides in (a-d)?

  1. How would you start the conversation?
  2. How would you ask for the item you want to buy?
  3. How would you ask for the price?
  4. How would you ask for the quantity of the item you want?

5. I. Study Lina’s time-table below and compose four grammatically correct sentences.

Activities

Time

wake up

5:00 am

take a bath

6:00 am

go to school

7:00 am

do school activities

8:00am - 12:00pm

return back home

1:30 pm

For example: Lina wakes up at 5.00am.

(a) _____________________

(b) _____________________

(c)_____________________

(d)_____________________

II. Match each expression in List A with the word in ListB by writing the correct letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided. Use the following format for your answers.

Number

i

ii

iii

iv

v

Letter

LIST A

LIST B

(i) The sone of your brother or sister.

(ii) The child of your daughter or son.

(iii) The child of your aunt or uncle.

(iv) A brother or sister.

(v) The brother of your father or mother.

  1. sibling 
  2. uncle 
  3. nephew 
  4. grandchild 
  5. cousin
  6. grandfather
  7. niece
  8. brother in law

6.Special names are given to groups of things. Use the words below, to show a special name given to each group: stationery, furniture, birds, subjects, animals, trees, readings,colours, food, fruits, courses

(a) green, red, blue, yellow

(b) pawpaw, orange, pineaple, apple

(c) chair, desk, table, stool

(d) cat, dog, rat, cow

(e) history, geography, civics, kisvvahili (0 pens, rulers, envelopes, paper

(g) novels, plays, short stories, poems

(h) education, political science, law, engineering

7.Write the word which is not part of the list of words provided below.

(a) Plate, Spoon, Cup, Knife, Pan, Block

(b) Milk, Cassava, Rice, Maize, Potatoes, Yams

(c) Mini skirt, Shoes, Shirt, Trousers, Shorts, T-shirt

(d)Tanzanian, Botswana, Greek, France, Togolese, Swazi

(e) Airtel, Vodacom, Tigo, Zantel, TTCL,TBC

(f) Chair, Table, Stool, Bed, Sheet, Cupboard

(g) Fanta, Pepsi, Sprite, Coca-Cola, Mirinda, Cheniicola

(h) Moshi, Dodoma, Mbeya, Arusha, Morogoro, Tanga

8.Read the passage below carefully then answer the questions that follow.

English Language seems to be a problem to both teachers and students in Tanzania although it is an official language. It is taught as a subject in primary schools and is used as the medium of instruction from secondary schools to higher education levels.

In recent years, the language has been a barrier in academic performance among many students. It acts as an obstacle to some of the students toward learning new concepts intended since they fail to understand what is taught in the classroom by using English Language. As a result they finish a certain level of education without having the required skills and competences.

Some measures should be taken in order to solve the existing problem. It is suggested that Kiswahili should be used as a medium of instruction in all levels of education because it is the National language and it is well understood by Tanzanians as compared to English Language. It has been proven through various researches that, people understand better when they learn in the language they know.

There are some prevailing wrong perceptions that, Kiswahili has limited vocabularies and it is not self-sufficient when it comes to scientific and technological issues. This is a very wrong perception since any language in the universe has ability to borrow and incorporate words from other languages. However, there is no language which is self sufficient by itself.

Questions:

(a) Suggest the suitable title for the passage with about four to ten words.

(b) How could the problem of language of instruction be solved in Tanzania? Explain one means.

(c) Why has English Language been a problem in Tanzania? Give one reason.

(d) In your opinion, which language between Kiswahili and English should be used as a medium of instruction in all levels of education in Tanzania? Limit your response to one point.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

9. Imagine that you are in a debate club, argue for the topic "Trafficking of girls from rural to urban areas to be employed as house girls (housemaids) should be stopped" in not less than 250 words.

10.Read the following poem carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Hallow heads torture me with ignorance,

Blind eyes harass me .with darkness,Deaf ears tire me with silence,

Dumb voices deafen me with gibberish,

Black minds confuse me with emptiness

And, above all,

There is power and command.

With wits and ears and eyes,

I have speech and strong mind,

But I remain weak and powerless.

They fight me they kill me.

It is a fight to bring me down to silence, To darkness and gibberish, to ignorance. And through brainwashing, to emptiness.

All right, my friends,

It's a battle and I will fight it

Ears and wits and eyes and speech,And strong conscience:

These are my weapons.

And I fight to the last cell.

Questions

(a) What is the poem about?

(b) Mention the number of stanzas and number of verses in each stanza.

(c) Does the persona fear his enemy?

(d) Mention two possible themes in this poem.

(e) Comment on the language used in this poem.

(f) Who is the persona in this poem?

(g) Is the poem relevant to your society?

(h) What is the mood of a persona?

(i) What type of poem is this?

(j) What do we learn from the poem?

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 11

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES

  • A Wreath for Fr. Mayer  - S. N. Ndunguru (1977), Mkuki na Nyota
  • Unanswered Cries Osman Conteh, Macmillan
  • Passed Like a Shadow - B. M. Mapalala (2006), DUP
  • Spared S. N. Ndunguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota
  • Weep Not Child - Ngugi wa Thiongo (1987) ; Heinemann
  • The Interview  -  P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan

PLAYS

  • Three Suitors: One Husband - O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen
  • The Lion and the Jewel W. Soyinka (1963), OUP
  • This Time Tomorrow-Ngugi wa Thiongo (1972), Heinemann
  • The Black Hermit - Ngugi wa Thiongo (1968), Heinemann

POETRY

  • Songs of Lawino and Ocol  - O. PBitek (1979), EAPH
  • Growing up with Poetry - D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989), Heinemann
  • Summons - R. Mabala (1960), TPH

11. Using two plays you have studied in this section, discuss how some traditions, customs and beliefs contribute to misunderstandings and underdevelopment in a society. Give four points from each play.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 33

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

ANNUAL EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORYFORM-3

2020

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

  1.  This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of nine (9) questions.
  2.  Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.
  3.  Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4.  All drawings should be in pencil.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) (xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)What are the major types of oral traditions?

  1. Museums and archives
  2.  Poems and proverbs
  3. Historical sites and narration of events
  4.  Archaeology and museum
  5.  Cultural practices and narration of events

(ii)What was the most common method of farming in pre-colonial Africa?

  1. Mixed farming 
  2. Plantation agriculture 
  3. Shifting cultivation
  4. Slash and burn cultivation
  5. Permanent crop cultivation

(iii) Colonialism was established through

  1.  post-colonial political changes.
  2. Violence and coercion
  3. piracy and plundering.
  4. Revolution and violence
  5. waylaying and bogus treaties.

(iv)The law that demanded the Africans to carry a labour card "Kipande" aimed at ensuring that

  1. the European colony is exploited effectively.
  2. there is effective occupation of the colony.
  3. the Africans should be allowed to grow cash crops.
  4. the welfare of the Africans were taken care of.
  5. the white farmers got a cheap supply of labour.

(v) The social challenges facing people in Africa include

  1. political instability and tribalism.
  2.  tribalism and neo-colonialism.
  3.  colonialism and illiteracy.
  4.  illiteracy and diseases.
  5.  corruption and lack of rule of law.

(vi)The first creature to walk in an upright fashion was called

  1. Homo Erectus.
  2. Primates.
  3. Homo Sapiens. 
  4. Hominids.
  5. Homo Habilis. 

(vii)What was the achievement of man during the Middle Stone Age?

  1. Discovery of fire
  2. Development of bipedalism
  3.  Domestication of animals 
  4. Making and using pebble tools
  5. Discovery of iron

(viii)Which one among the following places did people paint and draw in the caves?

  1. Sofala
  2.  Karagwe
  3. Kondoa Irangi
  4. Tabora
  5. Bagamoyo 

(ix)Who was the greatest ruler of Mali.

  1. Askia Mohamed
  2. Mansa Kankan Musa
  3. Osei Tutu  
  4. Uthman dan Fodio
  5. Suni Ali

(x) Which one of the following was the immediate consequence of the development of Triangular trade?

  1. Decolonization of African countries
  2. Disruption of trans-Saharan trade
  3. Scramble and partition of Africa
  4. Adaptation of the Open Door Policy
  5. Implementation of indirect rule policy

(xi) The coastal city states which grew from the trade contacts between East Africa and Asia were

  1. Mwanza, Tanga and Dar es Salaam
  2. Malindi, Kilwa and Mombasa
  3. Nairobi, Kampala and Dar es Salaam
  4. Lamu, Bagamoyo and Mbeya 
  5. Mombasa, Zanzibar and Kigoma.

(xii)Who convened the conference which legalized the colonization of Africa?

  1. David Livingstone.
  2. Carl Peters.
  3. Otto Von Bismarck.
  4. Charles Darwin.
  5. Adolf Hitler.

(xiii)Industrial development in Africa was not prioritized by the capitalists during the colonial time because

  1. the colonialists were interested in obtaining raw materials
  2. the colonialists stressed on the provision of social services
  3. the climate did not favour industrial development
  4. Africa had no enough raw materials
  5. Africa had no infrastructure to support the industries.

(xiv) The first European nation to industrialize was

  1.  Germany 
  2.  Britain 
  3.  France 
  4.  Belgium 
  5.  Holland.

(xv) The core ideas of the French Revolution were

  1.  slave trade, colonialism and neo-colonialism
  2.  markets, raw materials and cheap labour
  3.  communalism, slavery and feudalism
  4.  fraternity, liberty and equality
  5.  scramble, partition and bogus treaties.

(xvi) The economic system of goods and services which comprised activities such as trade, manufacturing, agriculture and mining during the colonial era is called

  1.  Neo-colonialism 
  2.  Trusteeship 
  3.  Nationalism 
  4.  Bureaucracy 
  5.  Colonial economy.

(xvii) The family from which man evolved is known as

  1.  Zinjanthropus
  2.  Homo Habilis
  3.  Primates
  4.  Homo Sapiens
  5.  Homo Erectus.

(xviii) Which one among the following factors contributed to the rise of states in Africa?

  1.  Low level of productive forces.
  2.  Presence of chartered companies.
  3.  Hunting and gathering activities.
  4.  Absence of classes among the people.
  5.  Availability of iron technology.

(xix) Which one of the following best explains the reason which made Mozambique to use force during her struggle for independence?

  1. A It was a mandated territory.
  2.  It was a trusteeship territory.
  3.  It adopted the Open Door Policy.
  4.  It was a settler colony.
  5.  It was under indirect rule policy.

(xx) The most crucial changes in the evolution of man were

  1.  bi-pedalism and development of the brain
  2. domestication of crops and animals
  3.  division of labour and expansion of agriculture
  4. establishment of settlements and domestication of crops
  5.  discovery of stone tools and fire.

2. Match the stems in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) A person who stated that man developed from an ape-like creature. 

(ii) A person who created the kingdom of Mwenemutapa.

(iii) A person who played a vital role in the mass killing of Jews in Europe.

(iv) A person who established a fascist ideology in Italy.

(v) A person who formed the Royal Niger Company which operated in West Africa.

  1. Adolf Hitler
  2. Fredrick Lugard
  3. Charles Darwin
  4. Mungo Park
  5. Idd Amin Dada
  6. Louis Leakey
  7. Yoweri Museveni
  8. Mutota
  9. King Leopold
  10. Lobengula
  11. Benito Mussolini
  12. Cecil Rhodes
  13. Keneth Kaunda
  14. David Livingstone
  15. George Goldie
  16. Robert Mugabe
  17. Nelson Mandela
  18. Fredrick Chiluba
  19. Migrant Labourer
  20. Secretary-General

3.Answer the following questions briefly:

(i)Mzee Juma is an illiterate man with 89 years of age. He narrates past political events to his grand child who is eighteen years old. Why such method used by Mzee Juma is considered as an unreliable source of historical information?

(ii)Why the Germany colonial agents would not forget the Hehe resistance?

(iii)How would you relate the French Assimilation policy and destruction of African culture?

(iv)How would you prove that colonial education was an agent of division and racism in colonial Africa?

(v)Why Adolf Hitler is blamed for the occurrence of the Second World War?

(vi)Why some historians consider Chancellor Otto Von Bismarck as the architect of the partition of the African continent?

4. (a) Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number in your answer booklet.

(i) Before 1800 AD, Africa and its interior were not known to the outside world.

(ii) Europeans took interest in Africa’s strategic areas with fertile land, minerals and navigable rivers.

(iii) The interior of Africa was exposed to the European world after the work of agents of colonialism.

(iv) By 1880s, many European nations rushed and grabbed parts of the African continent claiming they were their areas of influence.

(v) Reports of the existence of snow-capped mountains in the interior of Africa attracted great interest in the continent.

3. (a) Draw a sketch map of the new East Africa Community and locate by using roman numbers;

(i) The member state in which an identity card (Kipande) was given to the labourer during colonial economy era.

(ii) The headquarters of the committee which was responsible for coordinating the activities of national liberation movements for eradicating colonialism in Africa.

(iii) The country in which the 1994 genocide took place.

(iv) The country whose Common Man’s Charter intended to transform it into a socialist state.

(v) The Trusteeship colony under the British from 1945 to 1961.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

6.Explain six significance of studying History.

7.Critically examine six effects of the legitimate trade in West Africa.

8. Discuss the impact of the Dutch settlement at the Cape by giving six points.

9. Explain six prerequisites for state formation in pre-colonial Africa.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 32

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

ANNUAL EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS  FORM-3

2020

3 HOURS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries 15 marks, section B carries 40 marks and section C carries 45 marks.
  4.  Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section. 

l . For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)The Headmaster/mistress of your school is not satisfied with the academic performance of the school in the Form Four National Examinations. Which of the following type of life skills will you recommend to improve the academic performance of the school?

  1.  Teamwork       
  2. Negotiation skills
  3. Empathy                                           
  4. Forming friendship
  5. Peer pressure

(ii)Which of the following indicator would best guide you to determine a country practicing a dictatorial form of government?

  1.  Citizens electing their preferred political leaders and holding them accountable.
  2.  Citizens enjoying fair and equal treatment before the law.
  3.  Citizens punished for expressing personal views and opinions.
  4.  Citizens exercising freely personal religious beliefs and worship. 
  5. Citizens feeling their human dignity respected and safeguarded.

(iii) Monas husband died and her in laws forced Mona to marry Tulizo, her late husbands young brother. Such a family decision demonstrates.

  1.  gender blindness. 
  2. gender stereotyping. 
  3. gender equality. 
  4. gender mainstreaming. 
  5. gender discrimination.

(iv)Which of the following are major pillars of the State?

  1.  Executive, Armed Forces and Legislature
  2.  Executive, Legislature and Judiciary
  3.  The President, the Prime Minister and the Chief Justice
  4.   Executive, Armed Forces and Judiciary
  5.  The President, the Speaker and the Prime Minister

(v)A persons ability to appreciate himself or herself is known as

  1.  self-submissive.
  2. self-assertive. 
  3. self esteem. 
  4. self-awareness. 
  5.  self-aggressive.

(vi)Why most Tanzanians cannot access credit facilities offered by commercial banks in Tanzania?

  1.  They lack a culture of saving.
  2. They lack information on credit facilities.
  3. They lack education.
  4.  They lack insurance cover.
  5. They are discouraged by high interest rate.

(vii)Which of the following is NOT a correct characterization of the informal sector in Tanzania?

  1. lack of permanent business premises
  2. business activities are regulated by taxation laws
  3.  employees lack social security protection 
  4. employees have little job security 
  5. employees’ wages are often low.

(viii) In the United Republic of Tanzania, the Judiciary is headed by the

  1. Chief Justice
  2. Attorney General
  3. Director of Public Prosecution 
  4. Prime Minister
  5. Minister for Legal and Constitutional Affairs.

(ix)The right to voluntarily belong to any organization is known as

  1. freedom of expression 
  2. the right to life 
  3. freedom of association
  4. freedom of assembly
  5. right to equality.

(x) Social development refers to

  1.  improvement of peoples welfare in the society
  2.  improvement in relations among the people
  3.  improved women welfare in the society
  4.  high literacy rate in the society
  5.  peace and harmony in the society.

2.Match the items in List A with the correct response in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) A belief shared in a society on what is desirable, correct and good. 

(ii) It is used to represent and identify individuals, society or a country.

(iii) A set of rules which set standards for the accepted behaviours in a society.

(iv) Pattern of conduct shared by the people in a given community but always change with time.

(v) Practices that persisted in a society for a long time and do not change.

  1. Symbol
  2. Customs
  3. Values
  4. Material culture
  5. Arts
  6. Tradition
  7. Antiquities
  8. Myths
  9. Norms
  10. Taboos
  11. Museums
  12.  Archives

3. Read the following passage and then answerthe questions that follow.

Natural resources can be classified as non­renewable and renewable. Non­renewable or exhaustible resources such as fossil fuels, copper, and gold exist in fixed amount in various places in the earth crust. They can be used completely or economically depleted to the point where it costs too much to get what is left, when 80 percent of its total estimated supply has been removed and used.

A renewable resource is one that can theoretically last forever, because it is replaced through natural process. Examples are trees in the forest, grasses in grasslands, wild animals, fresh surface water in lakes and rivers, fresh air and fertile soils. The earth most valuable resources, is its diversity of potentially renewable forms of life. But over use can convert renewable resources to non­renewable by using them faster than they can be replenished.

Some non­renewable resources can be recycled or reused to extend supplies. Iron, aluminium, glass, for example, can be collected, remelted, reprocessed and made into new products. Also to avoid excessive use of resources, recycling of papers products needlessly burned or thrown away, reduce timber needs for the paper industry. Domestic refuse can be used to generate power particularly for local districts heating and lighting schemes, though care must be taken when incinerating to avoid air pollution problems.

Other non­renewable resources, such as fossil fuels (coal, oil and natural gas), cannot be recycled or reused. When burned, the high quality useful energy in these fuels is converted to low quality waste heat and exhausted gases that pollute the atmosphere.

Questions

(a) From the passage, identify two resources which can be replaced through the natural process.

(b) State three merits of recycling non­renewable resources.

(c) List down three environmental problems associated with burning of fossil fuels.

(d) Explain the condition under which renewable resources cannot be renewed.

(e) Suggest two measures to promote sustainable use of natural resources.

4.Briefly explain the importance of family stability by giving five points.

5.Outline five traditions and customs which affect the reproductive health of women in Tanzania.

6. Briefly explain the main five functions of the Central Bank of Tanzania (B.O.T)


7.List down five sources of the Central Government Revenue.

8.  Outline five merits of making responsible decision.

9. Briefly outline five responsibilities of a good citizen in Tanzania.

10. Outline five traditions and customs which affect the reproductive health of women in Tanzania.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

l l . In five points, analyze the benefits of having effective government for economic development.

12.To a great extent election in Tanzania is democratic, free and fair. Use six points to validate this statement.

13.Most members in your community are not aware on the causes of high incidences of road accidents. As a knowledgeable community member, briefly explain six causes of road accidents in Tanzania.

14. Examine the importance of life skills to the youth in Tanzania by giving six points.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 31

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

AUGUST-SEPTEMBER   EXAMINATION SERIES

PHYSICS  FORM-3

2020

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11)          questions.
  2.  Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions     from section C.
  3.  Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in          the examination room.
  4.  Non-programmable calculators may be used.
  5.  Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer     booklet(s).
  6. Where necessary the following constants may be used:
  7.  Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s 2
  8. Density of water = I .0 g/cm 3 
  9. Pie= 3.14.
  10.  Coefficient of linear expansivity of the brick 1.2 x 10 -5 K -1
  11.  Speed of light in air = 3 x 108 m/s. 
  12. Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) Which pairs of instruments would you use to correctly measure the diameter of a small ball bearing?

  1.  Measuring tape and vernier caliper
  2.  Slide rule and micrometer screw gauge
  3.  Vernier caliper and slide rule
  4.  Micrometer screw gauge and vernier caliper
  5. Metre rule and micrometer screw gauge

(ii) When the sun shines on the dark-coloured driving wheel of a car, the wheel feels warm. Why?

  1.  It is because the sun warms the car by induction.
  2.  It is because the sun gives energy to the wheel by convection.
  3.  It is because the sun radiates thermal energy to the wheel.
  4.  It is because the sun radiates heat to the glass windows.
  5. It is because the sun conducts thermal •energy to the wheel.

(iii)Which one is a characteristic of a plane mirror?

  1. It forms image which is real and opaque.
  2. It forms an image which is larger than the object.
  3. It forms an image which is real and laterally inverted
  4. It forms an image which has the same size as the object.
  5. It forms an image which is smaller in size than the object.

(iv)What role does the iris play in the human eye?

  1. To hold the lens in position.
  2. To prevent internal reflection.
  3. To control the size of the pupil.
  4. To control the thickness of the lens.
  5. To protect the eye from light.

(v) The correct arrangement of metals in ascending order of their linear expansivities is?

  1. Iron, Copper, Invar, Brass and Nickel
  2. Nickel, Brass, Invar, Copper and Iron
  3. Brass, Copper, Nickel, Iron and Invar
  4. Invar, Iron, Nickel, Copper and Brass.
  5. Nickel, Brass, Iron, Invar and Copper.

(vi) The suspended magnetic needle always comes to rest with its axis in a vertical plane called?

  1. Geographic meridian
  2. Magnetic meridian
  3. Geographic declination
  4. Magnetic declination
  5. Geographic North Pole.

 

(vii) Which of the following is the correct weight of a body of mass 48 g when placed on the moon surface?

  1.  0.48 N 
  2.  4.8 N
  3.  0.80 N
  4.  0.048 N
  5.  80.0 N. 

(viii) A car moving at steady speed has a frictional force on its surface whose size depends on its

  1.  speed and surface area
  2.  speed
  3.  surface area
  4.  weight 
  5.  wheels speed. 

(ix) The image formed by plane mirrors are always

  1. real, magnified and laterally inverted
  2. virtual, laterally inverted and same in size
  3. magnified, virtual and erect
  4. laterally inverted, same in size and real
  5. erect, real and magnified.

(x)Lenz’s law can be applied to predict the

  1. magnitude of back e.m.f. in a circuit
  2. magnitude of induced current in a circuit
  3. direction of applied e.m.f. across the circuit 
  4. direction of induced e.m.f. in a circuit 
  5. direction of the applied e.m.f. within a circuit.

2. Match the items in List A with responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Ability of liquids to rise or fall in a narrow tube.
  2. Tendency of an object to fall or drop to lower level in a fluid.
  3. Capacity of an object to float in a fluid.
  4. Attraction force between molecules of the same substance.
  5. Movement of particles from high concentration to low concentration.
  6. Tendency of matter to be in a state of random 
  1. Osmosis
  2. Surface tension
  3. Matter
  4. Buoyancy
  5. Cohesive
  6. Diffusion
  7. Plasticity
  8. Brownian motion
  9. Capillarity
  10. Viscosity
  11. Adhesive
  12. Elasticity
  13. Sinking

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) Why a bubble of air increases in volume as it rises from the bottom of a pond of water to the surface? Briefly explain.

(b) A half meter rule AB is freely pivoted at 18 cm from end A and balances horizontally when a body of mass 35 g is hung 48 cm from end B. Calculate the mass of the rule. 

4. (a) Briefly explain why hydrometer 

(i) is weighed with lead shots.

 (ii) has a narrow stem.

(b)    A piece of rubber of volume 100 cm3    and the density of 0.45 g/cm3 floats in water. Calculate:

(i) The volume of rubber that partially immersed in water.

(ii) The force required to immerse the rubber completely.

5. (a) Give two examples which illustrate the rectilinear propagation of light.

(b) (i) The refractive index of light passing from water to air is 3/4. Calculate the critical angle. (ii) Outline two differences between primary and secondary rainbows.

6. (a) (i) What is the essential of kinetic theory of matter?

(ii) Sketch a graph showing how force applied in a stretched string varies with its extension.

(b) (i) State Hooke’s law.

 

(ii) List two applications of gamma rays.

7. (a) (i) Define turning effect of force and give its SI unit.

(ii) How the moment of force can be increased considerably in practical life? Give two examples.

(b) (i) List two factors that affect stability of a body

(ii) Briefly explain why the handle of a door is near its outside edge?

 

8. (a) (i) Distinguish between light spectrum and dispersion of light.

(ii) Briefly describe how a light ray passes through an equilateral glass prism.

(b) Study Figure 1 which represents three primary colours combines together and answer the questions that follow.

image

  1. Identify the colours represented by the letters A, B, C and D.
  2. What general name is given to the colours obtained by mixing two primary colours?
  3. Name the colour produced as a result of mixing three primary colours.

SECTION C (25 Marks) 

Answer two ( 2) question from this section.

9. (a) (i) What is meant by the term thermal expansion?

      (ii) Mention two applications of thermal expansion of solids.

 

(b)    (i) List three areas where bimetallic strips are used.

  (ii) Why a bimetal strip made of brass and invar is curved outside with brass?

 

(c)    Describe how simple fire alarm system operates.

 

10. (a) (i) Distinguish between primary and secondary cells, giving one example of each.

(ii) Identify two defects of a simple cell.

(b) (i) Explain why lead – acid accumulators are used in car batteries rather than dry cells?

(ii) A cell of unknown e.m.f, E and internal resistance 2? is connected to a 5? resistance. If the terminal p.d, V is 1.0V. Calculate the e.m.f, E of a cell.

(c) (i) List two devices that are important when checking electrical faults in domestic appliances.

(ii) Briefly explain why a very high voltage is necessary when transmitting electrical energy from power station?

11. (a) (i) What is meant by impulse of a force?

(ii) Briefly explain why seat-belts are designed to stretch in a collision.

(b) i) Define momentum.

  1. The cork of a bottle of mass 4 g is ejected with a velocity of 10 m/s in 0.1 second. Find the force exerted on the bottle.

(c)A car of mass 2000 kg is travelling along a straight road at a constant velocity of 10 m/s developing 3.0 kilowatts. If the engine of the car is switched off:

  1. Calculate the energy lost by the car in coming to rest
  2. Briefly explain the energy changes in the process stated in (c) above.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 30

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

AUGUST-SEPTEMBER   EXAMINATION SERIES

MATHS  FORM-3

2020

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B. Each question in section A carries six (6) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.
  3. All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly.
  4. NECTA mathematical tables may be used.
  5. Cellular phones, calculators and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (60 Marks)  

Answer all questions in this section.

 1.(a) If  image and image find the fraction of image in its simplest form

(b).Find the GCF of 210, 357 and 252.

2.(a)image

(ii)   log3 10 + log3 8.1

(b)  If nlog5125 =  log264 , find the value of n.

3.  (a) By substituting a = 1x and b = 1y in the system of equations: 

image, find the solution set (x,y).

(b)  Let U be a universal set and A and B be the subsets of U where:

U = {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10}, A = {odd numbers} and B = {prime numbers} (i) Represent this information in a venn diagram.

(ii)  Find A ? B′ and (A ? B) ′

 

4.  (a) Given vectors (i) the vector a = 3i + 2 j , b = 8i +­ 3j and c = 2i + 4 j find:

(i) d=3a -b +1/2c 

(ii) a unit vector in the direction of d.

(b) Find the equation of the line passing at point (6, ­2) and it is perpendicular to the line that crosses the ­x-axis at 3 and the y­-axis at ­4.

 

 

5.  (a) Two triangles are similar. A side of one triangle is 10 cm long while the length of the corresponding side of the other triangle is 18 cm. If the given sides are the bases of the triangles and the area of the smaller triangle is 40 cm2 , find the area and the height of the larger triangle.

(b) In the figure below CB = BD = DA and angle ACD = x .

image

(i)  Show that angle ADE = 3x ,

(ii)  Calculate the measure of angle CDA if x = 39°.

6.  (a) A shopkeeper makes a 20% profit by selling a radio for sh. 480,000.

(i)  Find the ratio of the buying price to the selling price.

(ii)  If the radio would be sold at 360,000, what would be the percentage loss?

(b)  A farmer sold a quarter of his maize harvest and gave one third of the remaining to his relatives. If the farmer remained with 25 bags of maize find how many bags of maize did the farmer harvest.

 

7.  (a) Mariam, Selina and Moses contributed 800,000, 1,200,000 and 850,000 shillings respectively while starting their business.

(i)  Find the ratio of their contributions in simplest form.

(ii)  If the business made a profit of 1,900,000 shillings; find how much each got if the profit was shared in the same ratio as their contributions.

 

(b)  A dealer bought 10 books for 200,000. He sold 25 of them at 30,000 shillings each and the remaining at 25,000 shillings each. What was his percentage profit?

 

8.  (a) The number of tablets given to a patient was found to be directly proportional to the weight of the patient. If a patient with 36 kg was given 9 tablets, find how many tablets would be given to a patient whose weight is 48 kg.

(b)  Four people can eat 2 bags of rice each weighing 10 kg in 12 days. How many people can eat 6 bags of rice of the same weight in 18 days?

9.  (a) If the sum of n terms of a geometric progression with first term 1 and common ratio imageis image , find the number of terms.

 

(b)  How many integers are there between 14 and 1,000 which are divisible by 17?

10.(a)   Use factorization method to solve the quadratic equation x2 ? 9x + 14 = 0.

 

 (b) Find the values of x that satisfies the equation 

image

SECTION B( 40 Marks)

Answer All Questions

 

11.(a)  A ship sails from Pemba (4.5°S, 39.5°E) to Dar es salaam (7.5°S, 39.5°E). If it leaves Pemba at 11:30 am and arrived in Dar es salaam at 13:30 pm, use imageand RE=6370km to find speed of ship in km/h 

11.(b)  Calculate the values of  imageif f is defined as  

image 

12.Mwanne commenced business on 1st April, 2015 with capital in cash 200,000/=

April  2 bought goods for cash 100,000/=

3 bought goods for cash 300,000/=

4 purchased shelves for cash 230,000/=

5 sold goods for cash 400,000/=

9 paid wages for cash 50,000/=

12 purchased goods for cash 70,000/=

13 sold goods for cash 600,000/=

  16 paid rent for cash 100,000/=

20 bought goods for cash 60,000/=

   25 sold goods for cash 300,000/=

   27 paid salary for cash 70,000/=

Prepare the following:

(a) Cash account, (b) Trial balance.

 

13. The heights of 50 plants recorded by a certain researcher are given below:

56 82 70 69 72 37 28 96 52 88 41 42 50 40 51 56 48 79 29 30 66 90

99 49 77 66 61 64 97 84 72 43 73 76

76 22 46 49 48 53 98 45 87 88 27 48

54 79 80 73

(a)  Copy and complete this tally table for the data given above.

Height (cm)

Tally

Frequency

21-30



31-40



41-50



51-60



61-70



71-80



81-90



91-100



Use this table to:

(b)  Draw a histogram for the height of the plants.

(c)  Find the mean height of the plants (do not use the assumed mean method).

(d)  Find the median of the heights of the plants.

14.  (a) In the figure below, BD is a tangent to the circle having the centre O .

image

Given that angle OEC = 28°, find the values of angles marked X , Y and Z .

(b) Find the equation of the line passing at point (6, ­2) and it is perpendicular to the line that crosses the ­x-axis at 3 and the y­-axis at ­4.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 29

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

AUGUST-SEPTEMBER   EXAMINATION SERIES

KISWAHILI  FORM-3

2020

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Maelekezo

  1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na mbili (12).
  2. Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A na B na maswali matatu (3) kutoka sehemu C.
  3. Zingatia maagizo ya kila sehemu na ya kila swali.
  4. Simu za mkononi na vitu vyote visivyoruhusiwa havitakiwi katika chumba cha mtihani.
  5. Andika Namba yako ya Mtihani katika kila ukurasa wa kijitabu chako cha kujibia.

SEHEMU A (Alama 15)

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

1. Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika vipengele (i) hadi (x), kisha andika herufi ya jibu hilo katika kijitabu chako cha kujibia.

(i) Neno lipi kati ya maneno haya linaweza kudokeza mtenda au mtendwa?

  1. Kiunganishi   
  2. Kivumishi
  3. Kihisishi 
  4. Kiwakilishi 
  5. Kielezi

(ii) Shamba letu li kubwa neno “Li” ni aina gani ya neno? 

  1. Kiwakilishi 
  2. Kielezi 
  3. Kivumishi 
  4. Kiunganishi 
  5. Kitenzi kishirikishi

     (iii) Lugha fasaha hufuata taratibu za lugha, taratibu hizo ni pamoja na 

A       fonolojia, mofolojia, semantiki na sintaksia

B        maana, matamshi, muundo na maumbo

C        maana, matamshi, muundo na mantiki

D        kiimbo, shada, mkazo na toni

E.       fonolojia, mkazo, shada na semantiki

(iv) Kamati ya lugha ya Afrika ya Mashariki (the interteritorial Swahili language committee) iliteua lahaja moja na kuisanifisha, lahaja hiyo ilikuwa ni

A         kimvita             

 B       kiunguja

C         kimtang’ata       

D        kisiu

E         kivumba

(v). Watoto hawa wanacheza vizuri neno “Vizuri” ni aina gani ya neno? 

  1. Kivumishi 
  2. Kielezi 
  3. Kiwakilishi 
  4. Kivumishi cha sifa 
  5. Kihisishi 

 

(vi) Kiswahili ni kibantu kwa kuwa:- 

  1. Kinaongewa na wabantu wengi 
  2. Ni lugha ya Taifa 
  3. Kina maneno mengi ya kibantu 
  4. Kimethibitishwa kiisimu na kihistoria 
  5. Wasomi wengi wamethibitisha hivyo.  


(vii) Ni jambo gani linalodhihirisha upekee wa kazi fulani ya kifasihi? 

  1. Muundo 
  2. Mtindo 
  3. Wahusika 
  4. Jina la mtunzi  
  5. Jina la kazi husika 


(vii) Ipi ni fasili sahihi kuhusu tungo? 

  1. Maneno yanayoonesha uhusiano baina ya neno moja na jingine. 
  2. Kipashio kidogo katika lugha kinachotumika kama dhana ya kuchambulia lugha Fulani. 
  3. Matokeo ya kuweka na kupanga pamoja vipashio sahili ili kujenga vipashio vikubwa zaidi. 
  4. Kipashi cha kimuundo chenye neno moja na kuendelea 
  5. Maneno yenye kutoa maana kamili


(viii) Nini maana ya sentensi sahili. 

  1. Ni sentensi yenye kishazi kuu kimoja au zaidi pamoja na kishazi tegemezi.
  2. Ni sentensi yenye kishazi huru 
  3. Ni sentensi yenye kuonesha masharti 
  4. Ni sentensi yenye maana nyingi 
  5. Ni sentensi yenye vishazi vingi 


(ix) Zifuatazo ni sifa za pijini isipokuwa 

A.      Pijini huwa na maneno kutoka lugha mbili au zaidi

B.      Pijini hutokea kurahisisha mawasiliano baina ya watu ambao kila mmoja 

         ana lugha yake

C.      Miundo ya maneno na tungo katika pijini imerahisishwa ili kukidhi 

         mawasiliano

   D.     Pijini haina msamiati mwa kutosha, hivyo wazungumzaji hutumia sana 

        ishara

  E.    Pijini ina watu ambao kwao hiyo ni lugha yao ya kwanza


2. Katika kila sentensi uliyopewa, orodhesha vishazi huru katika Safu A na vishazi tegemezi katika safu B.
(a) Ngoma hailii vizuri kwa kuwa imepasuka.
(b) Watoto walioandikishwa watakuja kesho.
(c) Kiongozi atakayefunga mkutano amepelekewa taarifa.
(d) Mtawatambua walio wasikivu.
 (e)       Kitabu ulichopewa kina kurasa nyingi. 

 

3. Taja aina za sentensi zifuatazo kisha eleza muundo ujengao kila sentensi.

  1. Maisha ni safari ndefu.
  2. Ukisoma kwa bidii utafaulu kwa kiwango cha juu.
  3. Mtoto aliyelazwa hospitalini ameruhusiwa kwenda nyumbani.
  4. Nitakuja leo ingawa nitachelewa sana.
  5. Alinunua madaftari lakini kitabu cha Kiswahili alipewa na mwalimu.

4. Andika maneno matano ambayo yameundwa kutokana na kufananisha sauti. Kwa kila neno tunga sentensi moja.

5. Eleza dhima za mofimu "li" kama ilivyotumika katika sentensi zifuatazo:

  1. Shamba letu li kubwa sana.
  2. Wlishelewa kurudi.
  3. Tunalifuatilia.
  4. Limeharibika.
  5. Shikilia.

6. Andika sentensi zifuatazo katika hali ya ukanushi:

  1. Ameshiba sana.
  2. Watoto wengi wanaogelea.
  3. Mvua ilinyesha kwa wingi sana.
  4. Kijana anakula chakula kingi.
  5. Mimi nasoma polepole.

7. Bainisha mzizi wa asili kwa kila neno katika maneno yafuatayo:

  1. Anawaandikisha
  2. Mkimbizi
  3. Mlaji
  4. Muumbaji
  5. Nisingelipenda
  6. Kuburudika
  7. Sadifu
  8. Aliokota
  9. Walichopoka
  10. Kipambanuliwe

1. Soma kifungu cha habari kifuatacho kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata:

Karibu masikio ya watu wa mahali pengi yalijaa habari za Karama na mashtaka yake. Umaarufu wake wa ghafla ulizungumzwa karibu na mbali. Mtu yeyote wa desturi anapozuka katika umaarufu, huyavuta masikio na macho ya watu wengi kwa sababu jambo kama hili hutokea nadra sana kwa watu ambao bahati mbaya imeshughulika kuwaweka nyuma. Kwa hiyo, siku ya tatu ya baraza ilihudhuriwa na mfalme, watu wenye vyeo mbalimbali, pamoja na nusu moja ya umati mkubwa wa Kusadikika. Fikra zilizochanganyika ziliushika umati huu. Baadhi ya watu walimwajabia Karama wakamhesabu kama mtu bora wa karne yao. Hawa walitumaini ataokoka lakini wengine waliwaza kuwa Karama alikuwa kama mjinga aliyekuwa akicheza na hatari kubwa iliyofunua taya mbele yake.

Waliokuwa wakimtazamia kuokoka walikuwa na wasiwasi wao; na wale waliokuwa wakimtazamia kuanguka walikuwa na fadhaa yao. Walakini hapana mtu hata mmoja aliyepata kulisema wazo lake.

Bila ya kujua alivyoajabiwa Karama aliendelea kusema mbele ya baraza, “Watu wanaoteswa ndio wanaoyajua mateso yao.” Kusadikika ilikuwa chini ya mateso makubwa sana. Maisha yao yalizungukwa na maradhi na mauti, uadui usiokwisha, nchi iliyokaribia kugeuka jangwa na mwamba na madhila mengine mazito yaliyowakabili watu. Wanakusadikika walitaka faraja katika mateso haya. Kila jitihada ilijaribiwa ili kuirekebisha saa ya maendeleo ya nchi, lakini mara kwa mara majira yake yalirudishwa nyuma. Kama hili lilifanywa kwa makosa ama kwa makusudi ni siri iliyo ng’ambo ya fahamu zangu hata sasa. Lakini kama siri njema hufichika, ile iliyo mbaya haifichiki hata kidogo. Uchaguzi wa wajumbe ulikuwako lakini hathibitisho ya matokeo ya ujumbe hayakupatikana.

Kusadikika iliishi kuona mjumbe baada ya mjumbe kuadhiriwa na kuadhibiwa vibaya. Kama washauri hawakudhuriwa na hili lakini watu wengine walidhuriwa sana. Kazi njema za wajumbe wawili zilipotea bure. Manung’uniko ya lawama hii yalikuwa katika hewa yote ya Kusadikika.

Hili lilipotokea serikali iliombwa ima faima kufanya ujumbe mwingine. Basi mjumbe wa tatu alitakikana ajitolee mwenyewe kwa ujumbe wa Kusini. Wito wa mjumbe wa tatu uliitikiwa na Kabuli; mtu mwenye busara, haya na mcheshi. Yeye alipatikana upesi kabisa kuliko ilivyokuwa kwa mara ya pili na ya kwanza. Misiba ya Buruhani na Fadhili ilikuwa mikubwa ya kutosha kuikongoa mioyo ya bidii katika bawaba zake. Kabuli aliyajua haya yote lakini alikuwa mtu wa moyo wa namna nyingine kabisa. Alikuwa na bidii kubwa kama ile ya siafu athubutiye kukivuka kijito kwa daraja iliyofanywa kwa maiti ya siafu wengine walioelea majini huko na huko. Maji yalijulikana kuwa na asili ya rutuba, mvuke na umeme. Nguvu nyingine za namna mbalimbali zipo pia katika maji. Kama siafu mdudu mdogo na kipofu wakati mwingine haogopi kuzikabili nguvu hizo pamoja na hatari zake kwa sababu njema, basi ni dhahiri kuwa viongozi wa wanadamu wanapoteswa bure bidii za wafuasi wao hutanuka ajabu.

Hapana tishio liwezalo kuukomesha mwendo huu. Kwa hakika utafululiza kuwako duniani mpaka mateso yakome kabisa, na labda wakati huo dunia hii itakuwa njema kama itamaniwavyo kuwa.

Buruhani na Fadhili walitoa sadaka zao bora ili kuyahimiza majilio ya wakati uliotakikana sana. Kabuli aliwaona watu wawili hawa kama wafadhili wakubwa wa ulimwengu. Alitaka kuwa mshirika wao kwa thamani yoyote ya maisha yake.

Kama ilijulikanavyo, Kusini na upande wa dunia yatokako matufani makubwa na baridi kali sana. Kabuli aliyakabili mashaka haya bila ya kigeugeu. Naam, alikuwa kama mtu aliyekuwa akinywa uchungu bila ya kigegezi. Mara mbili alikamatwa akafanywa mahabusu.

Maswali

(a) Eleza maana ya maneno yafuatayo kama yalivyotumika katika kifungu cha habari:

  1. Fadhaa
  2. Madhila
  3. Kuadhiriwa
  4. Ima faima
  5. Kigeugeu
  6.  Kigegezi.

(b) Eleza mchanganyiko wa fikira walizonazo wana wa Kusadikika kuhusu Karama.

(c) Kwanini bidii ya mjumbe wa Kusini imelinganishwa na bidii ya siafu? Toa sababu mbili.

(d) Ujumbe wa mwandishi wa kifungu hiki unahusu nini?

SEHEMU C (Alama 45)

Jibu maswali matatu (3) kutoka katika sehemu hii.

8. Andika insha isiyozidi maneno mia tatu (300) na isiyopungua mia mbili na hamsini (250) kuhusu faida za televisheni kwa jamii.

ORODHA YA VITABU USHAIRI

Wasakatonge - M.S. Khatibu (DUP)

Malenga   Wapya - TAKILUKI (DUP)

Mashairi   ya   Chekacheka - T.A. Mvungi (EP & D.LTD)

RIWAYA

Takadini - Ben J. Hanson (MBS)

Watoto   wa   Maman’tilie - E. Mbogo (H.P)

Joka   la   Mdimu - A.J. Safari (H.P)

TAMTHILIYA

Orodha - Steve Reynolds (MA)

Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu   cha   Uzembe - E. Semzaba (ESC)

Kilio   Chetu - Medical Aid Foundation (TPH)

10. "Fasihi ya Kiswahili imemweka mwanamke katika hadhi tofauti tofauti." Thibitisha usemi huu kwa kutumia hoja tatu kwa kila riwaya kutoka katika riwaya mbili ulizosoma.

11. (a) Vigano ni nini?

(b) Tunga vigano kwa kutumia methali isemayo "Umdhaniaye siye kumbe ndiye!"

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 28

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

AUGUST-SEPTEMBER   EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY  FORM-3

2020

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

  1.  This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of nine (9) questions.
  2.  Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.
  3.  Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4.  All drawings should be in pencil.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) (xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) What are the major types of oral traditions? 

  1. Museums and archives
  2.  Poems and proverbs
  3. Historical sites and narration of events
  4.  Archaeology and museum
  5.  Cultural practices and narration of events 

(ii) What was the most common method of farming in pre-colonial Africa?

  1. Mixed farming 
  2. Plantation agriculture 
  3. Shifting cultivation
  4. Slash and burn cultivation
  5. Permanent crop cultivation

(iii) Colonialism was established through 

  1.  post-colonial political changes.
  2. Violence and coercion
  3. piracy and plundering.
  4. Revolution and violence
  5. waylaying and bogus treaties.

 (iv) The law that demanded the Africans to carry a labour card "Kipande" aimed at ensuring that

  1.  the European colony is exploited effectively.
  2.  there is effective occupation of the colony.
  3.  the Africans should be allowed to grow cash crops.
  4.  the welfare of the Africans were taken care of.
  5. the white farmers got a cheap supply of labour.

(v)   The social challenges facing people in Africa include 

  1. political instability and tribalism.
  2.  tribalism and neo-colonialism.
  3.  colonialism and illiteracy.
  4.  illiteracy and diseases.
  5.  corruption and lack of rule of law.

 

(vi)  The first creature to walk in an upright fashion was called

  1. Homo Erectus.
  2. Primates.
  3. Homo Sapiens. 
  4. Hominids.
  5. Homo Habilis. 

(vii)  What was the achievement of man during the Middle Stone Age?

  1. Discovery of fire
  2. Development of bipedalism
  3.  Domestication of animals 
  4. Making and using pebble tools
  5. Discovery of iron

(viii)  Which one among the following places did people paint and draw in the caves?

  1. Sofala
  2.  Karagwe
  3. Kondoa Irangi
  4. Tabora
  5. Bagamoyo 

(ix) Who was the greatest ruler of Mali.

  1. Askia Mohamed
  2. Mansa Kankan Musa
  3. Osei Tutu  
  4. Uthman dan Fodio
  5. Suni Ali

 

(x) Which one of the following was the immediate consequence of the development of Triangular trade?

  1. Decolonization of African countries
  2. Disruption of trans-Saharan trade
  3. Scramble and partition of Africa
  4. Adaptation of the Open Door Policy
  5. Implementation of indirect rule policy

 

(xi) The coastal city states which grew from the trade contacts between East Africa and Asia were

  1. Mwanza, Tanga and Dar es Salaam
  2. Malindi, Kilwa and Mombasa
  3. Nairobi, Kampala and Dar es Salaam
  4. Lamu, Bagamoyo and Mbeya 
  5. Mombasa, Zanzibar and Kigoma.

 

(xii)Who convened the conference which legalized the colonization of Africa?

  1. David Livingstone.
  2. Carl Peters.
  3. Otto Von Bismarck.
  4. Charles Darwin.
  5. Adolf Hitler.

(xiii) Industrial development in Africa was not prioritized by the capitalists during the colonial time because

  1. the colonialists were interested in obtaining raw materials
  2. the colonialists stressed on the provision of social services
  3. the climate did not favour industrial development
  4. Africa had no enough raw materials
  5. Africa had no infrastructure to support the industries.

(xiv) The first European nation to industrialize was

  1.  Germany 
  2.  Britain 
  3.  France 
  4.  Belgium 
  5.  Holland.

(xv) The core ideas of the French Revolution were

  1.  slave trade, colonialism and neo-colonialism
  2.  markets, raw materials and cheap labour
  3.  communalism, slavery and feudalism
  4.  fraternity, liberty and equality
  5.  scramble, partition and bogus treaties.

(xvi) The economic system of goods and services which comprised activities such as trade, manufacturing, agriculture and mining during the colonial era is called

  1.  Neo-colonialism 
  2.  Trusteeship 
  3.  Nationalism 
  4.  Bureaucracy 
  5.  Colonial economy.

(xvii) The family from which man evolved is known as

  1.  Zinjanthropus
  2.  Homo Habilis
  3.  Primates
  4.  Homo Sapiens
  5.  Homo Erectus.

(xviii) Which one among the following factors contributed to the rise of states in Africa?

  1.  Low level of productive forces.
  2.  Presence of chartered companies.
  3.  Hunting and gathering activities.
  4.  Absence of classes among the people.
  5.  Availability of iron technology.

(xix) Which one of the following best explains the reason which made Mozambique to use force during her struggle for independence? 

  1. A It was a mandated territory.
  2.  It was a trusteeship territory.
  3.  It adopted the Open Door Policy.
  4.  It was a settler colony.
  5.  It was under indirect rule policy.

(xx) The most crucial changes in the evolution of man were 

  1.  bi-pedalism and development of the brain
  2. domestication of crops and animals
  3.  division of labour and expansion of agriculture
  4. establishment of settlements and domestication of crops
  5.  discovery of stone tools and fire.

 

2. Match the stems in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) A person who stated that man developed from an ape-like creature. 

(ii) A person who created the kingdom of Mwenemutapa.

(iii) A person who played a vital role in the mass killing of Jews in Europe.

(iv) A person who established a fascist ideology in Italy.

(v) A person who formed the Royal Niger Company which operated in West Africa.

  1. Adolf Hitler
  2. Fredrick Lugard
  3. Charles Darwin
  4. Mungo Park
  5. Idd Amin Dada
  6. Louis Leakey
  7. Yoweri Museveni
  8. Mutota
  9. King Leopold
  10. Lobengula
  11. Benito Mussolini
  12. Cecil Rhodes
  13. Keneth Kaunda
  14. David Livingstone
  15. George Goldie
  16. Robert Mugabe
  17. Nelson Mandela
  18. Fredrick Chiluba
  19. Migrant Labourer
  20. Secretary-General

 

 

3. Answer the following questions briefly:

(i) Mzee Juma is an illiterate man with 89 years of age. He narrates past political events to his grand child who is eighteen years old. Why such method used by Mzee Juma is considered as an unreliable source of historical information?

(ii) Why the Germany colonial agents would not forget the Hehe resistance?

(iii) How would you relate the French Assimilation policy and destruction of African culture?

(iv) How would you prove that colonial education was an agent of division and racism in colonial Africa?

(v) Why Adolf Hitler is blamed for the occurrence of the Second World War?

(vi) Why some historians consider Chancellor Otto Von Bismarck as the architect of the partition of the African continent?

4. (a) Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number in your answer booklet.

(i) Before 1800 AD, Africa and its interior were not known to the outside world.

(ii) Europeans took interest in Africa’s strategic areas with fertile land, minerals and navigable rivers.

(iii) The interior of Africa was exposed to the European world after the work of agents of colonialism.

(iv) By 1880s, many European nations rushed and grabbed parts of the African continent claiming they were their areas of influence.

(v) Reports of the existence of snow-capped mountains in the interior of Africa attracted great interest in the continent.

 

3. (a) Draw a sketch map of the new East Africa Community and locate by using roman numbers;

(i) The member state in which an identity card (Kipande) was given to the labourer during colonial economy era.

(ii) The headquarters of the committee which was responsible for coordinating the activities of national liberation movements for eradicating colonialism in Africa.

(iii) The country in which the 1994 genocide took place.

(iv) The country whose Common Man’s Charter intended to transform it into a socialist state.

(v) The Trusteeship colony under the British from 1945 to 1961.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

6. Explain six significance of studying History.

7.  Critically examine six effects of the legitimate trade in West Africa.

8. Discuss the impact of the Dutch settlement at the Cape by giving six points.

9. Explain six prerequisites for state formation in pre-colonial Africa.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 27

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

AUGUST-SEPTEMBER EXAMINATION SERIES

GEOGRAPHY FORM-3

2020

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

  1.  This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
  2.  Answer all questions in sections A and B and any two (2) questions from section C.
  3.  Map extract of Mkomazi (Sheet 109/1) is provided.
  4.  Programmable calculators, cellular phones and unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) Which of the following layers of the earths interior is made up of sima and sial?

  1.  Biosphere 
  2. Hydrosphere 
  3. Asthenosphere 
  4. Lithosphere 
  5. Barysphere

(ii) You are asked to help a Form Two student who failed to identify the types of forests found in the area with low temperatures. What type of forest will you suggest among the following?

  1. Tropical rain forest 
  2. Coniferous forest
  3. Equatorial forest 
  4. Deciduous forest
  5. Mediterranean forest

(iii) What is the social-economic advantage of reserved forests to societies?

  1.  Tourism 
  2. Lumbering
  3. Mining 
  4. Forestry
  5. Agriculture 

 

(iv) Which of the following instrument is used to measure maximum and minimum temperature?

  1. Barometer
  2. Thermometer
  3. Anemometer
  4. Sixs thermometer
  5. Hydrometer.

(v) Which among the following is an extrusive volcanic feature?

  1. Crater
  2. Laccolith
  3. Batholith
  4.  Sills
  5. Dykes.

(vi) A region which consists of thick forests, tree dwellers and people who engage in cultivation of rubber, cocoa, bananas and oil palms is known as

  1. Tropical savanna 
  2. Tropical monsoon 
  3. Polar climate 
  4. Mediterranean
  5. Equatorial.

(vii)Which of the following is not a process for chemical weathering?

  1. Carbonation
  2. Saltation
  3. Hydrolysis
  4. Hydration
  5. Oxidation.

(vii) Which among the following features are produced by wave erosion?

  1. A Geo, wave cut platform and stack
  2. Blow hole, sea arch and levee
  3. Sea arch, beach and stump
  4. Beach, spit and bars.
  5. Tombolo, meander and cliff.

 (ix) The process through which rain water enters the ground is called

  1. Evaporation
  2. Infiltration
  3. Transpiration
  4. Condensation
  5. Percolation.

(x)The process of peeling off and falling of rock mass is called

  1. disintegration
  2. weathering
  3.  mass wasting
  4.  erosion 
  5. exfoliation.

 

2. Match the process involved in the formation of rocks in with the type of rock in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Rocks formed when magma solidifies deep in the crust and can be exposed on the surface by agents of erosion.
  2. Rocks formed when molten magma cools and solidifies inside the rocks of the earth or on the surface of the earth.
  3. Rocks formed as results of deposition and compaction of remains of dead plants and animals.
  4. Rocks formed when different types of rocks are subjected to great heat and pressure.
  5. Rocks formed when sediments are deposited either by water, wind or ice
  1. Crystalline rocks
  2. Igneous rocks
  3. Organic sedimentary rocks
  4. Intrusive volcanic rocks
  5. Extrusive volcanic rocks
  6. Metamorphic rocks
  7. Sedimentary rocks

 

SECTION B (55 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

4. Carefully study the map extract of Arusha (Sheet 55/3) provided then answers the questions that follow.

  1. Describe the relief of the mapped area.

(b) Giving evidences, mention the major means of transport shown in a map.

(c) Change the scale of the map into a statement scale.

(d) Measure the length of the road from grid reference 378314 to grid reference 480276 in kilometres.

(e) With evidence from the map, identify three social services which are found in this area.

5. (a) Define compound bar graph. 

(b) Study carefully the table below on hypothetical data about cash crops production (in ‘000 tonnes) in East Africa in the year 2000, then answer the questions that follow. Find this 

Country

Crops

 

Coffee

Tea

Cotton

Kenya

2200

2000

1800

Uganda

1700

700

800

Tanzania

1300

1900

2300

(i) Draw compound bar graphs to represent the data provided.

(ii) Outline four merits of using compound bar graph.

5. (a) Explain two major forms of measurements in land surveying.

(b) (i) Define leveling.

(ii) Explain four significances of leveling.

6. (a) What is an earthquake?

 

(b) Briefly explain five effects of earthquakes.

7. Carefully study the photograph given below then answer the questions that follow:

image

(a) Name the type of photograph.

(b) Describe the relief of the area.

(c) Giving two reasons, describe the scale of production of the crop in the photograph.

(d) Explain two uses of the crop in the photograph.

(e) Describe three conditions necessary for the production of the crop.

 

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

8. Give five reasons for decreasing death rates in many parts of the world.

9. Explain eight characteristics of shifting cultivation.

10. Describe six problems facing railway transportation in East Africa.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 26


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

AUGUST-SEPTEMBER   EXAMINATION SERIES

ENGLISH  FORM-3

2020

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of twelve (12) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from sections C.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1.For each of the items(i)-(x),choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside item number in the answer sheet provided.

(i)I don't know   where___________

  1. had the boy gone 
  2. The boys have gone
  3. Have the boys gone  
  4. Do the boys go 
  5. Did the boys go

(ii)Your work is_________ than it was a  month ago.

  1. worse 
  2. bad
  3. Worst
  4. the worst 
  5. Worser

(iii)I noticed this morning that some new houses________ on the land next to uncle's house

  1. building 
  2. being build
  3. are being built  
  4. are building  
  5. have built

(iv)Two men_______ for a bus were knocked down when the lorrys kidded and ran off

  1. had  waited 
  2. were waiting
  3. waited   
  4. waiting  
  5. wait

(v) Each of them has  brought________ best friend

  1. his
  2. their
  3. his or her 
  4. her 
  5. one's

(vi)Where is Mr._______ wife staying?

  1. Juma's  
  2. Jumas'
  3. Jumas's
  4. Jumas
  5. Juma

(vii)After he_______ his goods, he paid for them

  1. has collected  
  2. had collected
  3. have collected  
  4. was collected 
  5. having collected

 

(viii) He was accused________ stealing money

  1. for 
  2. of
  3. about 
  4. on 
  5. with

(ix)The   sun________ in the East

  1. rise  
  2. is rising
  3. rose 
  4. rises  
  5. has risen

(x)Diana_______ the school compound everyday

  1. Clean 
  2. is cleaning
  3. cleaned 
  4. has cleaned 
  5.  cleans

2. Match the description of places in List A with the correct place names in List B by writing its letter beside the corresponding item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

 

  1. A place where books for reading are kept in school.
  2. A place where wild animals are kept.
  3. A place where people go for treatment.
  4. A place where you can buy and sale food staffs. 
  5. A place where artistic objects, cultural, historical things are kept.
  1. Home 
  2. Library
  3. Market
  4. Hospital
  5. Museum 
  6. School
  7. zoo

 

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Write an appropriate question tag for each of the following statements:

  1. You dont expect father to believe that.
  2. He is counting books in the shelf.
  3. You are doing an English Language examination. 
  4. Madam Laura has not been kind.

4.Suppose you are sent to a shop to buy some food stuff. How would you communicate with the shopkeeper using the given question guides in (a-d)?

  1. How would you start the conversation?
  2. How would you ask for the item you want to buy?
  3. How would you ask for the price?
  4. How would you ask for the quantity of the item you want?

5. I. Study Lina’s time-table below and compose four grammatically correct sentences.

Activities

Time

wake up

5:00 am

take a bath

6:00 am

go to school

7:00 am

do school activities

8:00am - 12:00pm

return back home

1:30 pm

For example: Lina wakes up at 5.00am.

(a)       _____________________

(b)      _____________________

(c)      _____________________

(d)     _____________________

II. Match each expression in List A with the word in ListB by writing the correct letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided. Use the following format for your answers.

Number

i

ii

iii

iv

v

Letter

 

 

 

 

 

 

LIST A

LIST B

(i) The sone of your brother or sister.

(ii) The child of your daughter or son.

(iii) The child of your aunt or uncle.

(iv) A brother or sister.

(v) The brother of your father or mother.

  1. sibling 
  2. uncle 
  3. nephew 
  4. grandchild 
  5. cousin
  6. grandfather
  7. niece
  8. brother in law

6.Special names are given to groups of things. Use the words below, to show a special name given to each group: stationery, furniture, birds, subjects, animals, trees, readings, colours, food, fruits, courses

(a) green, red, blue, yellow

(b)  pawpaw, orange, pineaple, apple

(c)  chair, desk, table, stool

(d)  cat, dog, rat, cow

(e)  history, geography, civics, kisvvahili (0 pens, rulers, envelopes, paper

(g)  novels, plays, short stories, poems

(h)  education, political science, law, engineering

 

 7.Write the word which is not part of the list of words provided below.

(a) Plate, Spoon, Cup, Knife, Pan, Block

(b) Milk, Cassava, Rice, Maize, Potatoes, Yams

(c) Mini skirt, Shoes, Shirt, Trousers, Shorts, T-shirt

(d)Tanzanian, Botswana, Greek, France, Togolese, Swazi

(e) Airtel, Vodacom, Tigo, Zantel, TTCL,TBC

(f) Chair, Table, Stool, Bed, Sheet, Cupboard

(g) Fanta, Pepsi, Sprite, Coca-Cola, Mirinda, Cheniicola

(h) Moshi, Dodoma, Mbeya, Arusha, Morogoro, Tanga

8. Read the passage below carefully then answer the questions that follow.

English Language seems to be a problem to both teachers and students in Tanzania although it is an official language. It is taught as a subject in primary schools and is used as the medium of instruction from secondary schools to higher education levels.

In recent years, the language has been a barrier in academic performance among many students. It acts as an obstacle to some of the students toward learning new concepts intended since they fail to understand what is taught in the classroom by using English Language. As a result they finish a certain level of education without having the required skills and competences.

Some measures should be taken in order to solve the existing problem. It is suggested that Kiswahili should be used as a medium of instruction in all levels of education because it is the National language and it is well understood by Tanzanians as compared to English Language. It has been proven through various researches that, people understand better when they learn in the language they know.

There are some prevailing wrong perceptions that, Kiswahili has limited vocabularies and it is not self-sufficient when it comes to scientific and technological issues. This is a very wrong perception since any language in the universe has ability to borrow and incorporate words from other languages. However, there is no language which is self sufficient by itself.

Questions:

(a) Suggest the suitable title for the passage with about four to ten words.

(b) How could the problem of language of instruction be solved in Tanzania? Explain one means.

(c) Why has English Language been a problem in Tanzania? Give one reason.

(d) In your opinion, which language between Kiswahili and English should be used as a medium of instruction in all levels of education in Tanzania? Limit your response to one point.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

9. Imagine that you are in a debate club, argue for the topic "Trafficking of girls from rural to urban areas to be employed as house girls (housemaids) should be stopped" in not less than 250 words.

10.Read the following poem carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Hallow heads torture me with ignorance,

Blind eyes harass me .with darkness, Deaf ears tire me with silence,

Dumb voices deafen me with gibberish,

Black minds confuse me with emptiness

And, above all,

There is power and command.

With wits and ears and eyes,

I have speech and strong mind,

But I remain weak and powerless.

They fight me they kill me.

It is a fight to bring me down to silence, To darkness and gibberish, to ignorance. And through brainwashing, to emptiness.

All right, my friends,

It's a battle and I will fight it

Ears and wits and eyes and speech, And strong conscience:

These are my weapons.

And I fight to the last cell. 

Questions

(a) What is the poem about?

(b)  Mention the number of stanzas and number of verses in each stanza.

(c) Does the persona fear his enemy?

(d) Mention two possible themes in this poem.

(e) Comment on the language used in this poem.

(f) Who is the persona in this poem?

(g) Is the poem relevant to your society?

(h) What is the mood of a pers'ona?

(i)  What type of poem is this?

(j)  What do we learn from the poem?

 

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 11

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES

  • A Wreath for Fr. Mayer   -    S. N. Ndunguru (1977), Mkuki na Nyota
  •  Unanswered Cries  -  Osman Conteh, Macmillan
  •  Passed Like a Shadow  - B. M. Mapalala (2006), DUP
  •  Spared  -  S. N. Ndunguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota
  •  Weep Not Child - Ngugi wa Thiongo (1987) ; Heinemann
  •  The Interview   -   P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan

PLAYS

  • Three Suitors: One Husband - O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen 
  • The Lion and the Jewel  -  W. Soyinka (1963), OUP
  • This Time Tomorrow - Ngugi wa Thiongo (1972), Heinemann
  • The Black Hermit  - Ngugi wa Thiongo (1968), Heinemann

POETRY

  • Songs of Lawino and Ocol   -  O. PBitek (1979), EAPH
  • Growing up with Poetry -  D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989), Heinemann
  • Summons - R. Mabala (1960), TPH

11. Using two plays you have studied in this section, discuss how some traditions, customs and beliefs contribute to misunderstandings and underdevelopment in a society. Give four points from each play.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 25


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

AUGUST-SEPTEMBER   EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY  FORM-3

2020

TIME: 2:30 HRS

 

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one (1) question from section C.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).
  5. The following constants may be used.

Atomic masses: H 1, O- 16, N- 14, S = 32, Zn - 65, Cl -35.5, cu - 64.

Avogadros number= 6.02 x 1023 image

GMV at s.t.p =22.4 dm3 .

1 Faraday= 96,500 coulombs.

Standard pressure = 760 mm Hg. Standard temperature 273 K.

1 litre =1 dm3 =1000 cm 3.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) "Water is referred to as the universal solvent". What does this mean? 

  1. Water is neither acidic nor basic as compared to other liquids.
  2. Water exists in three states of matter than any other liquids.
  3. Water dissolves both organic and inorganic solutes. 
  4. Water is used more domestically than any other liquids.
  5. Water dissolves more substances than any other known liquids.

(ii)  What is the proper set of apparatus would you use to grind granules of a solid substance into fine powder in the laboratory?

  1. Pestle and filter funnel   
  2. Separating funnel and mortar
  3. Pestle and filter paper                  
  4. Pestle and mortar
  5. Thistle funnel and mortar

 

(iii)  Which of the following sets of processes uses a gas that ignites with a "pop" sound when a lighted splint is passed through it?

  1. Balloon filling, welding and diving 
  2. Hardening oil, balloon filling and welding
  3. Hardening oil, balloon filling and diving
  4. Fueling rocket, diving and welding
  5. Balloon filling, fueling rocket and diving

 

 (iv) A current of 0.2 A was passed through an electrolyte for 16 minutes and 40 seconds. What is the quantity of electricity produced in coulombs?

  1.  2000 C  
  2. 1000 C 
  3.  200 C 
  4.  0.20 C 
  5.  7686 C.

(v)  Aluminium does not react with water and does not corrode much in air because

  1.  it is below hydrogen in the reactivity series
  2.  it forms a stable carbonate which prevents reactions
  3.  the metal is covered with a protective coating of an oxide 
  4.  aluminium ions have positive charges
  5.  it is very stable.

 

(vi) When a burning fuel produces blue color it means there is

  1. adequate supply of oxygen with production of soot.
  2. inadequate supply of oxygen without production of soot. 
  3. inadequate supply of oxygen with production of soot.
  4.  adequate supply of oxygen with production of less heat.
  5.  adequate supply of oxygen with production of more heat.

 

 (vii) Which of these can be reduced when heated with carbon?

  1.  Aluminium  
  2. Calcium carbonate
  3. Iron (III) oxide 
  4. Magnesium oxide 
  5.  Sodium oxide.

(viii) Which of the following is NOT among the composition of air?

  1. Noble gases 
  2. Carbon dioxide 
  3. Nitrogen 
  4. Hydrogen 
  5. Water vapour.

 

(ix) If a steady current of 2 amperes was passed through an aqueous solution of iron (II) sulphate for 15 minutes, the mass of iron deposited at the cathode will be.

  1. 30g.
  2. 56g.
  3. 0.54g.
  4. 28g.
  5. 0.52g.

 

(x) Two substances are allotropes of carbon if

  1. Both reduce heated iron (II) oxide to iron
  2. Have different crystalline structure
  3. Have equal masses
  4. Have equal shape
  5. Have the same arrangement of atoms

2. Match the descriptions in List A with the corresponding scientific procedures in List B by writing the letter of the correct response besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST 1

LIST B

  1. A statement of how the results relate to hypothesis.
  2. A series of investigations.
  3. A statement that identifies an event, fact or situation.
  4. A tentative explanation.
  5. A step in which the researcher explains the results.
  1. Conclusion
  2. Data analysis
  3. Data collection
  4. Experimentation
  5. Hypothesis
  6. Observation
  7. Problem identification

 

SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) How many chlorine molecules are in 20 cm of chlorine gas at s.t.p? 

   (b)Calculate the number of ions present in 5 g of copper II nitrate. 

4.  (a) Distinguish temporary hardness from permanent hardness of water.

 (b) With the help of chemical equations, explain how you can remove each type of water hardness in 5(a).

5.   (a) Copper obtained from copper pyrites (CuFeS2) is impure for electrical wiring and has to be purified by electrolysis.

(i) Name the electrolyte and the electrodes used during electrolysis. 

(ii) Write the observations that can be made during the electrolysis.

(b) The following flow diagram shows the stages in the contact process image

 (i)     Give the names of element A, catalyst B and an acid C.

 (ii)  Write  a balanced chemical equation for the formation of sulphur trioxide in stage 2

 

6.  (a) Give one example in each of the following:

 (i) Alkali earth metals.

(ii)  Noblegases .

(iii) Transition elements.

(b) Write the names of the following processes of changing matter from one state to another.

(i) Gas to liquid. 

(ii) Ga s to solid. 

(iii) Solid t o gas .

7. (a) State four steps employed in the extraction of moderate reactive metals.

(b) Write balanced chemical equations to show how chlorine reacts with the following:

  1. water.
  2. aqueous iron (II) chloride solution.
  3. hydrogen sulphide.

 

8. (a) State three main physical properties of water and show the usefulness of each property.

(b)   State three industrial application of electrolysis.

9. (a)An atom M has an atomic number 14 and mass number 28. 

(i)What is the number of protons and neutrons?

 (ii) Write the electronic configuration of atom M.

(b) Calculate the volume of water which was produced when 1,120 cm3 of oxygen at s.t.p. was liberated during the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide. The density of water = 1.0 g/cm3 

 

10. (a) Determine the empirical formula of a substance that has the following composition by mass; 49.5% oxygen.

(b) Give one reason why Alluminium is chosen to make each of the following items:

  1. Cooking foil
  2. Overhead electric cables
  3. Window frames

 

11. (a) Identify and state the environmental problem caused by the gas which is released from the blast furnace in the extraction of iron from its oxide.

(b) (i) Draw a labeled diagram of a simple electrolytic cell which show how copper is purified.

(ii) Write balanced ionic equations to show the electrode reactions which occur when copper is purified.

12. (a) (i) Why chemistry laboratory exits open outward?

 (ii) State the uses of any four items found in a First Aid Kit.

(b)  (i) Arrange the following metals in order of increasing reactivity; zinc, magnesium, calcium, copper and mercury.

 (ii) Which one of the metals in (b) (i) above reacts with steam to form an oxide which is white when cold and yellow when hot?

 

SECTION C (15 Marks)

Answer one (1) question from this section.

13. In Tanzania, soil conservation is very important for Industrial Materials production. Explain six methods that are used to manage loss of plant nutrients from the soil.

14. 0.48g of a metal, M was placed in a test tube and hot copper (II) sulphate solution was added to it and stirred until the reaction stopped. The metal (M) displaced copper from copper (II) sulphate solution. Copper was filtered, washed with water, dried at 1000 C  and the mass found to be 1.27g. Given that, the balanced chemical reaction that occurred is M (s)  + CuSO  4(aq)  imageMSO  4(aq)  + Cu  (s) 

(a) Calculate;

  1. The number of moles of copper that were formed and the number of moles of M that were used in the reaction.
  2. The relative atomic mass of M and hence identify metal M.

(b) State the appearance of the metal formed (Cu).

(c) With ionic equations, explain why the reaction can be considered to involve both oxidation and reduction.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 24


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

AUGUST-SEPTEMBER   EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY  FORM-3

2020

3 HOURS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries 15 marks, section B carries 40 marks and section C carries 45 marks.
  4.  Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. imageWrite your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

image Answer all questions in this section.

l . For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)   The Headmaster/mistress of your school is not satisfied with the academic performance of the school in the Form Four National Examinations. Which of the following type of life skills will you recommend to improve the academic performance of the school?

  1.  Teamwork       
  2. Negotiation skills
  3. Empathy                                           
  4. Forming friendship
  5. Peer pressure

(ii) Which of the following indicator would best guide you to determine a country practicing a dictatorial form of government?

  1.  Citizens electing their preferred political leaders and holding them accountable.
  2.  Citizens enjoying fair and equal treatment before the law.
  3.  Citizens punished for expressing personal views and opinions.
  4.  Citizens exercising freely personal religious beliefs and worship. 
  5. Citizens feeling their human dignity respected and safeguarded.

 

(iii) Monas husband died and her in laws forced Mona to marry Tulizo, her late husbands young brother. Such a family decision demonstrates.

  1.  gender blindness. 
  2. gender stereotyping. 
  3. gender equality. 
  4. gender mainstreaming. 
  5. gender discrimination.

(iv) Which of the following are major pillars of the State?

  1.  Executive, Armed Forces and Legislature
  2.  Executive, Legislature and Judiciary
  3.  The President, the Prime Minister and the Chief Justice
  4.   Executive, Armed Forces and Judiciary
  5.  The President, the Speaker and the Prime Minister

(v)  A persons ability to appreciate himself or herself is known as

  1.  self-submissive.
  2. self-assertive. 
  3. self esteem. 
  4. self-awareness. 
  5.  self-aggressive.

(vi) Why most Tanzanians cannot access credit facilities offered by commercial banks in Tanzania?

  1.  They lack a culture of saving.
  2.  They lack information on credit facilities.
  3.  They lack education.
  4.  They lack insurance cover.
  5.  They are discouraged by high interest rate.

 

(vii)Which of the following is NOT a correct characterization of the informal sector in Tanzania?

  1. lack of permanent business premises
  2. business activities are regulated by taxation laws
  3.  employees lack social security protection 
  4. employees have little job security 
  5. employees’ wages are often low.

 

(viii) In the United Republic of Tanzania, the Judiciary is headed by the

  1. Chief Justice
  2. Attorney General
  3. Director of Public Prosecution 
  4. Prime Minister
  5. Minister for Legal and Constitutional Affairs.

(ix)  The right to voluntarily belong to any organization is known as

  1. freedom of expression 
  2. the right to life 
  3. freedom of association
  4. freedom of assembly
  5. right to equality.

 

(x) Social development refers to

  1.  improvement of peoples welfare in the society
  2.  improvement in relations among the people
  3.  improved women welfare in the society
  4.  high literacy rate in the society
  5.  peace and harmony in the society.

 

2. Match the items in List A with the correct response in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) A belief shared in a society on what is desirable, correct and good. 

(ii) It is used to represent and identify individuals, society or a country.

(iii) A set of rules which set standards for the accepted behaviours in a society.

(iv) Pattern of conduct shared by the people in a given community but always change with time.

(v) Practices that persisted in a society for a long time and do not change.

  1. Symbol
  2. Customs
  3. Values
  4. Material culture
  5. Arts
  6. Tradition
  7. Antiquities
  8. Myths
  9. Norms
  10. Taboos
  11. Museums
  12.  Archives

 

3. Read the following passage and then answer the questions that follow.

Natural resources can be classified as non­renewable and renewable. Non­renewable or exhaustible resources such as fossil fuels, copper, and gold exist in fixed amount in various places in the earth crust. They can be used completely or economically depleted to the point where it costs too much to get what is left, when 80 percent of its total estimated supply has been removed and used.

A renewable resource is one that can theoretically last forever, because it is replaced through natural process. Examples are trees in the forest, grasses in grasslands, wild animals, fresh surface water in lakes and rivers, fresh air and fertile soils. The earth most valuable resources, is its diversity of potentially renewable forms of life. But over use can convert renewable resources to non­renewable by using them faster than they can be replenished.

Some non­renewable resources can be recycled or reused to extend supplies. Iron, aluminium, glass, for example, can be collected, remelted, reprocessed and made into new products. Also to avoid excessive use of resources, recycling of papers products needlessly burned or thrown away, reduce timber needs for the paper industry. Domestic refuse can be used to generate power particularly for local districts heating and lighting schemes, though care must be taken when incinerating to avoid air pollution problems.

Other non­renewable resources, such as fossil fuels (coal, oil and natural gas), cannot be recycled or reused. When burned, the high quality useful energy in these fuels is converted to low quality waste heat and exhausted gases that pollute the atmosphere.

Questions

(a)  From the passage, identify two resources which can be replaced through the natural process.

(b)  State three merits of recycling non­renewable resources.

(c)  List down three environmental problems associated with burning of fossil fuels.

(d)  Explain the condition under which renewable resources cannot be renewed.

(e)  Suggest two measures to promote sustainable use of natural resources.

 4.   Briefly explain the importance of family stability by giving five points.

5.  Outline five traditions and customs which affect the reproductive health of women in Tanzania.

6. Briefly explain the main five functions of the Central Bank of Tanzania (B.O.T)

 7.  List down five sources of the Central Government Revenue.

8.   Outline five merits of making responsible decision.

9. Briefly outline five responsibilities of a good citizen in Tanzania.

10. Outline five traditions and customs which affect the reproductive health of women in Tanzania.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

l l . In five points, analyze the benefits of having effective government for economic development.

12.To a great extent election in Tanzania is democratic, free and fair. Use six points to validate this statement.

13. Most members in your community are not aware on the causes of high incidences of road accidents. As a knowledgeable community member, briefly explain six causes of road accidents in Tanzania.

 

14. Examine the importance of life skills to the youth in Tanzania by giving six points.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 23


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

AUGUST-SEPTEMBER   EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY  FORM-3

2020

TIME: 2:30 HRS

 

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fifteen (15) questions.
  2. Answer all the questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C of which question 13 is compulsory.
  3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.  Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

                                                                                                                                               

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1 For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) What is the aim of doing experiment when conducting a scientific investigation?

  1.  Identifying a problem 
  2.  Finding a solution 
  3.  Testing a hypothesis 
  4.  Gathering information 
  5.  Recording results

(ii) What is the role of node of ranvier in a neurone?

  1. To transmit the impulses away from the cell body.
  2. To insulate the axon and speed up transmission of impulses.
  3. To transmit nerve impulses from one nerve to another.
  4. To speed up the transmission of nerve impulses.
  5.  To transmit the nerve impulses towards the cell body.

(iii) flow many gametes are produced from one cell during meiosis?

  1. Eight 
  2. Two  
  3. Four 
  4. Six 
  5. Ten.   

 

(iv) Which of the following is the excretory organ in human?

  1. Mouth 
  2. Kidney 
  3. Pancreas 
  4. Stomach 
  5. Anus.   

 

(v) The function of the bright coloured petals in flowers is

  1. to store nectarines 
  2. to hold sepals in position 
  3. to produce colour of the flower 
  4. to receive pollen grain 
  5. to attract insects for pollination.

 

(vi) The function of hydrochloric acid in food testing experiment is

  1. to decolourise food sample 
  2. to test reducing sugar 
  3. to oxidize the food sample 
  4. to neutralize sugary foods 
  5. to hydrolyze complex to simple sugar.   

 

(vi)  Goitre is a deficiency disease caused by lack of which element in the diet?

  1.  Carbohydrate 
  2. Iodine 
  3. Vitamin E 
  4. Vitamin C
  5.  Protein.

(vii) The product of anaerobic respiration process in animals is

  1.  lactic acid   
  2. carbondioxide  
  3. alcohol
  4. water  
  5.  oxygen.

(viii) Which disease spread rapidly as a result of poor waste disposal?

  1. Anemia
  2. AIDS
  3. Cholera
  4. Leukemia
  5. Small pox.

 

(x) A voluntary muscle that is capable of relaxing continuously and do not fatigue easily is known as

  1.  skeletal muscle
  2. biceps
  3. triceps
  4. cardiac muscle
  5. smooth muscle. 

 

2. Match the responses in List B with the phrases in List   by writing the letter of the correct response from List B beside the item number of List A in your answer booklet.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Receives impulses and gives appropriate response to stimuli.
  2. A gap through which impulses pas when traveling from one neuron to another.
  3. Receives impulse from the external stimuli and transmits it to the spinal cord.
  4. Controls and coordinates body balancing organs, thus making accurate movement possible.
  5. The nervous pathway taken by an impulse in a reflex action.
  1. Synapse
  2. Effectors
  3. Hypothalamus
  4. Biceps Muscles
  5. Motor neuron
  6. Peripheral nervous system
  7. Central nervous system
  8. Medulla oblongata
  9. Reflex arc
  10. Reflex neuron
  11. Cerebellum
  12. White matter
  13. Cerebrum
  14. Sensory neuron
  15. Affector

 

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) Differentiate the term "Biological apparatus" from "Biology Laboratory".

(b) Briefly explain why the following substances are dangerous?

  1. Toxic substances
  2. Highly flammable
  3. Corrosive substances
  4. Radioactive substances.

4.  (a) State two principles of waste disposal.

(b)  Suggest three proper ways of waste disposal in the community.

5. (a) Explain the distinctive features of the Division Filicinophyta.

(b) Draw a well labeled diagram of a fern plant.

6. (a) List any two types of blood cells.

(b) Give two differences between arteries and vein.

7. (a) State three basic principles of waste disposal.

(b) Why poor waste disposal at home is said to cause adverse effects?

8. (a) Give the meaning of the following terms:

  1. Vegetative propagation.
  2. Gamete.

(b) Explain the merits and demerits of asexual reproduction in plants.

9. (a) Define the term “osmoregulation”.

(b) Briefly explain the mechanisms of regulating sugar level in the blood.

10. (a) Explain the functions of the vascular system in plants

(b) State three importance of transportation of materials in living things.

11.  Consider that you are a medical doctor and you have received a patient whose investigation has diagnosed kidney stones. Suggest to the patient three possible causes and three control measures for kidney stones.

12. Reptiles are organisms whose body temperature is affected by environmental temperature. Briefly explain three ways that help reptile to survive in different weather conditions.

SECTION C

13. Explain any four effects of irresponsible sexual behaviour and suggest five ways of eradicating those behaviours in the community.

14. Describe four similarities and seven differences between insect and wind pollinated flowers.

15. Write an essay on transportation in plants using the following guidelines:

  1. Meaning of transportation
  2. The importance of transpiration
  3. The adaptation of features which enable plants to reduce water loss

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 22

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

BASIC MATHEMATICS TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM THREE

Time 3:00 Hours                                                                              MAY 2020 

Instructions 

  • This paper consists of two sections A and B. 
  • Answer all questions in Section A and only four questions in section B
  • Show clearly all working for each question
  • Mathematical tables, geometrical instruments and graph paper may be used where necessary 

                       SECTION A (60 MARKS) 

1. (a) Arrange the number in ascending order.

(b) Express 0.06896 correct to: 

     (i) three (3) significant figures

     (ii) three (3) decimal places

     (iii) in standard form

2. (a) Solve for x in the equation:  32x-3 x 8x+4 = 64 ÷ 2x

(b) Solve for x in the equation log(x2+8) – logx = log6

3.  (a) Find the solution set of the inequality  and indicate it on a number line.

(b) If find n if

(c) Simplify the following expression and state the coefficient of

4. (a) In a school of 75 pupils, 42% of the pupils take Biology but not Chemistry, 32% take both subject and 10% of them take Chemistry but not Biology. How many pupils do not take either Biology or Chemistry?

 ( b) The Venn diagram below shows the universal set U and its two subsets A and B

                                                                        Write down the elements of

 i) A’     ii)B’   iii)AUB    iv) A’UB’   

5. The figure ABCD below is rectangle with sides as shown where C1 and C2 are two quarter circles inside it.

Find:

a) Value x and y shown in the  figure above

b) Perimeter of the rectangle

c)Area of the rectangle ABCD

 d) Area of the shaded region

6.  (a) The variable v varies directly as the square of x and inversely as y. Find v when x = 5 and y = 2; given that when v = 18 and x = 3 the value of y = 4.

(b) The temperature (Ti) inside a house is directly proportional to the temperature (to) outside the house and is inversely proportional to the thickness (t) of the house wall. If

 Ti = 320C when To =240C and t = 9 cm, find the value of t when Ti = 360C and To = 180C

7. (a) A shirt whose marked price is Tshs 80,000/= is sold at a 13% discount, if the trader makes a profit of 20%, find the selling price of the shirt.

(b) A regular polygon has an exterior angle of 360

  1. Find the size of the interior angle
  2. How many sides does this polygon have
  3. Find the sum of interior angles of this polygon

8. (a) Find the 10th  term of the G.P if the 4th term is 8 and the 7th term of this G.P is 16.

(b) Find the sum of the first 10 terms of the series: 4 + 6 + 8 + - - - - - - - - 

9. (a)Find the value of  without using mathematical tables.

(b) A ladder leans against vertical wall. If the ladder reaches 12m up the wall and its foot is 9 cm from the base of the wall. Find the length of the ladder.

10. (a) Factorize completely by splitting the middle term

(b) Factorize and hence find exact value of (10003)2 –(997)2

(c) Solve the equation

          SECTION B ( 40 MARKS )

  (a) The function f is defined as follows:

                   

 (i) Sketch the graph of .

(ii) Determine the domain and range of 

(b) If R-1 =. Find the domain and range of R

   12. The 4th, 6th and 9th terms of arithmetic progression forms first three terms of geometric progression. If the first term of the A.P is 3, determine the:

(a) Common difference of the arithmetic progression

(b)Common ratio of the geometric progression

(c) Kicheche deposited Tshs100000/= in a bank at a compound interest of 8% per annum for 4 years. Find how much interest he received 

13.  The weight in kg of 40 students were recorded as follows:

Weight in(kg)

10 - 19

20 - 29

30 - 39

40 - 49

50 - 59

60 - 69

70 - 79

Number of students

8

3

   x

8

7

2

2

Calculate:

(a) The value of x

(b) The mode by using the formula. 

(c) By using an assumed mean, find the average weight of the students

(d) Draw a cumulative frequency curve and hence use it to estimate median.

14. a) A farmer sold a quarter of his maize harvest and give one third of the remaining to his    relatives. If the farmer remained with 36 bags of maize, find:-

i) How many bags of maize did the farmer harvest. 

ii) How many bags of maize did the farmer sold.

b)A shopkeeper makes a profit of 20% by selling a TV for 480,000/=

 i) Find ratio of buying to selling price

 ii) If the radio would be sold for 360,000/=, what would be the percentage loss?     

15. The function f is defined as follows:

f(x) =

  i) Sketch the graph of f(x)

 ii) Determine domain and range

 iii) Find  i) f(0)   ii) f(-6)   iii) f(π)

b)For what values of x is fuction f(x)= is undefined?

16. Mr. Chakubanga started business on 15th February, 2005 with capital in cash 1,055,000/=

February 16 Bought goods for cash 500,000/=

18 Bought shelves for cash 55,000/=

19 Sold goods for cash 450,000/=

20 Purchases for cash 400,000/=

21 Sold goods for cash 700,000/=

25 Paid rent for cash 150,000/=

Required:  Record the above transactions in the respective ledgers and extract a trial balance.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 21

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMMERCE- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM THREE

TIME: 2:30HRS                                                                2020

NAME:_______________________________________________                     CLASS:___________

INSTRUCTIONS

  • This paper consists two sections A and B
  • Answer All questions in both sections
  • Answers should be written in blue/black ink

SECTION A

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. For each of items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter in the boxes provided below:

(i) All of the following methods are involved in a barter exchange except:

  1. The buyer must have some goods to give to the seller
  2. The buyer must pay cash to the seller
  3. The buyer can offer labour services to obtain goods
  4. There must be a double coincidence of wants

 (ii)  Which one of the following is an example of a barter trade?

  1. Fish and coins
  2. Goat and notes
  3. Cow and chair
  4. Sheep and silver coins

 (iii) Which of the following industries deal with natural resources?

  1. Manufacturing
  2. Constructive
  3. Extractive
  4. Textile 

 (iv) The resources in the form of money or materials that a person or an organization has for establishing and running a business is called:

  1. Merchandise
  2. Basic needs
  3. Capital
  4. Debts

 (v)  The point where demand and supply curves intercept is called:

  1. Centre point
  2. Zero point
  3. Equilibrium point
  4. Margin

 (vi) A refrigerator used in making ice cream for sale, is in the category of:

  1. Consumer goods
  2. Luxury goods
  3. Producer goods
  4. Domestic goods

 (vii) Generally, more goods will be supplied when:

  1. Prices are relatively high
  2. Prices are relatively low
  3. Prices are fairly competitive
  4. Prices are fixed by the government 

 (viii) Traders who do not have permanent business premises are called:

  1. Itinerant traders
  2. Gamblers 
  3. Brokers
  4. Underwriters
  5. Retailers

 (ix) The last people in the distribution chain are:

  1. The customers
  2. The retailers
  3. The wholesalers
  4. The consumers

 (x) Given that:

  • Daily sales = 20 tins of NIDO milk
  • Delivery time = 5 days
  • Minimum stock = 100 tins of NIDO milk

Order point is:

  1. 200 tins
  2. 150 tins
  3. 180 tins
  4. 100 tins

2. MATCHING ITEMS

Choose the items in group A that matches with the items in group B

LIST A

LIST B

(i) The period of time between ordering and replenishment, i.e. when goods are available for use

(ii) The level reached immediately after the receipt of new supply of goods

(iii) Is a document sent by the seller to the buyer to correct an overcharge on the original invoice

(iv) Is a document sent by the seller to the buyer to correct an undercharge on the original invoice

(v) Are self-services shops that stock varieties of items? 

 

  1. Super markets
  2. Retailers
  3. Credit note
  4. Debit note
  5. Cheque
  6. Drafts
  7. Wholesalers
  8. Manufacturers
  9. Issuing of stock
  10. Order point
  11. Care of stock
  12. Lead or procurement time
  13. Stock taking
  14. Maximum stock
  15. Stock valuation

 

SECTION B

3. Short answer questions

  1. Traditional Media
  2. Visual communication
  3. Inflation
  4. Expansionary Monetary policy
  5. Savings bank

SECTION C

Answer All questions in this section 

4. “Money is as money does “Discuss.

5. Discuss the importance of communication to business

6. a) What is B.O.T?

b) Examine the functions of B.O.T in Tanzania

7. Explain the  qualities of a good retailer

8. Explain the problems facing communication in Tanzania

9. a)Explain the term “ Transportation”

b) State the merits of air transport in Tanzania. (Five points)

10. Discuss the factors which must be considered for choosing a mode of transport

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 20

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

BOOKEEPING- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM THREE

TIME: 2½HRS                                                                  2020

NAME:______________________________CLASS:___________

INSTRUCTIONS

  • Answer all questions

1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives write its letter beside the item number

(i) Which of the following is a liability?

  1. Debtor
  2. Loan from exim bank
  3. Building
  4. Prepaid expenses

 (ii) The cash payment of T.shs 439,000 to Juma would appear as follows:

  1. Credit Juma account, credit cash account
  2. Debit Juma account, credit cash account
  3. Debit bank account, credit Juma account
  4. Debit cash account, credit Juma account

 (iii) Which of the following are personal accounts?

  1. Building and machine
  2. Wages and salaries
  3. Account receivable and account payables
  4. Profits and loss

 (iv)In the trial balance, accumulated provision for depreciation account is

  1. Shown as a credit item
  2. Not shown as it is part of depreciation
  3. Shown as a debit item
  4. Sometimes shown as a credit, sometimes as a debit

 (v) Which of the following is not correct?

  1. Assets – capital=liabilities
  2. Liabilities + capital=assets
  3. Liabilities + Assets=capital
  4. Assets – liabilities =capital

 (vi) Which of the following should be charged in the trading, profit and loss account(income statement)

  1. Office rent
  2. Work-in-progress
  3. Direct materials
  4. Carriage on raw materials

 (vii) At the end of trading  period, bad debt account is closed and transferred to the

  1. Balance sheet
  2. Profit and loss account
  3. Trading account
  4. Allowance for doubtful debits account

 (viii) Revenue expenditure is

  1. The extra capital paid in buying non-current assets
  2. The extra purchase of goods for sale
  3. Money spent on selling fixed assets
  4. The cost inairred in running the business on a day to day basis

 (ix) An allowance made on the date of sales in respect of the date of payment is

  1. Discount allowed
  2. Cash discount
  3. Trade discount
  4. Quantity discount

 (x) If shs 1000/= was added to purchases instead of being added to a fixed asset

  1. Net profit only would be understated
  2. Net profit only would be overstated
  3. Both gross profit and net profit would be understated
  4. Both gross profit and net profit would be overstated

2. Match the following by choose the correct answer from column B and write its letter beside the item number in column A

Column A

Column B

(i) An item is entered in the wrong class of account

(ii) Where errors cancel each other 

(iii) Where transaction is completely omitted from the books

(iv) Where correct accounts are used but each item is shown on the wrong side of an account

(v) Where correct amount is entered in the wrong account

(vi) Where incorrect amount is entered in the accounts

(vii) Incorrectly adding up figures to give an answer which is less than it should be

(viii) Used to set the amount which will make the trial balance to balance when is affected by errors

(ix) When transaction is posted twice in along the correct principles  of double entry system

(x) Errors committed when dualistion aspect of a transaction is not followed

  1. Error of omission
  2. Error of principle
  3. Compasating error
  4. Error of commission
  5. Error of original entry
  6. Error of complete reversal
  7. Error of duplication
  8. Transposition error
  9. Suspense account
  10. Arithmetical errors
  11. Single entry errors

 SECTION B

3. Write short notes on the following 

  1. Capital expenditure
  2. Bad debts
  3. Depreciation of non-current asset
  4. Manufacturing account
  5. Single entry system

 4. Kibaha education centre had received house rent for 1982 amounting to sh. 72,000. Out of this amount shs. 4,000 related to the year ending December 1983.

Required:

Rent received account to show the amount transferred to the profit and loss account

SECTION C

5. Jangua started business on 1st January 1993.  Purchases and disposals of machines over three years were as follows.

machine

Date of purchase

Cost(shs)

Date of disposal

Disposal proceeds(shs)

MAI

1Jan 1993

5000,000

-

-

MB 2

1Jan 1993

2500,000

1 Jan 1995

900,000

MC 3

1 Jan 1995

7000,000

-

-

The machines are depreciated on straight line method using rate of 20% per annum

Required:

  1. Machine account
  2. Provision for depreciation account
  3. Disposal of machines account

 6. K owns a store, her records are incomplete. You have been called in to prepare her accounts.

Through investigation the following information was obtained

                                                              01.01.2013               31.12.2013

Stock                                                     2,100                            2,240

Trade creditors                                        960                            1,000

Motor vans                                            1,200                           1,000

Debtors                                                1,300                           1,040

Rates pre-paid                                         80                                96

Cash at bank                                           900                           2,344

Additional information

Drawings during the year amounted to Tshs 120 per week

Legacy of Tsh.400 received on March 2013 had been paid into the business bank account 

Required

  1. Statement of affairs at 1st January 2013
  2. Statement of affairs at 31st December 2013
  3. Statement of profit or loss for the year 2013

7. From the following prepare manufacturing, trading profit and loss account for the year ended 31.12.2013

Stock at 01.01.2013:

Raw materials                                        1,845,000

Work in progress                                    2,360,000

Finished goods                                      1,747,000

Purchases: raw materials                       6,430,000

Carriage on raw materials                       160,500

Direct labour                                         6,581,000

Office salaries                                       1,692,000

Rent                                                        270,000

Office lighting and heating                      576,000

Depreciation:

Works machinery                                       830,000

Office equipment                                       195,000

Sales                                                          20,060,000

Factory fuel and power                                592,000

Additional notes on 31.12.2013

Stock at 31.12.2013

Raw materials                                          2,021,000

Work-in-progress                                      1,739,000

Finished goods                                          2, 1488,500

Rent is to be apportioned as follows:

       Factory     (20) / (30)

       Office    (10) / (30)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 19

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

ENGLISH- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM THREE

TIME: 3HRS                                                                      2020

NAME:_______________________________________________                    CLASS:___________

INSTRUCTIONS

  • This paper consist of section A,B,C and D
  • Answer all questions in section A and B and section C and D as instructed under each section
  • Neat and clear explanation work is very important.

SECTION A (20 MARKS)

COMPREHENSION

Answer ALL questions in this section

1. Read the following passage carefully then answer questions that follow it by writing the letter of the correct answer in the booklet(s) provide.

     The beach at Lumley was a beautiful and impressive sight. The soft white sand fell away from rutted roadway in a gentle slope until it flattened out in a short plateu before dipping sharply to the sea. At the moment huge rollers were rushing inward to hurt themselves against the lower lip of the beach and expand their whistling froth in a fruitless struggle up the plateau.

     “Rather dangerous hare for bathing. Lets try further along, “he said.

About a kilometer beyond the golf court the beach curved gently in a shallow crescent. Several long boats manned by briskly padding Africans were darting to and from in among the gentler waves, while on shore scores of African men and women were gathered in long lines holding ropes which led to the edge of the water and out to sea.

     “This is really something you should not miss”, he said. “Lets get down there and watch the sun”

At close hand those on the beach were lined up, each like a tug-of-war team ready and waiting for its opponent. Each of these teams consisted of twenty or more men, women and children, most of them wet to the skin from contact with the waves, the young ones, boys and girls, were clad only in a kind of flowing loin-cloth. Some of these laughing children were truly beautiful; their smooth skins generously pearled by water droplets, eyes and teeth flashing in enjoyment. The young girls, some of them in their early or late teens, were full-breasted and completely unshy. Running up and down some short distance from the teams, shouting and waving his arms seaward was a large African clad only on the pair of uncolored shorts and a grotesque wide brimmed straw hat. His stentorian voice yelled instructions to the boat crew who paddled furiously or paused at his signals while those on the shore, at a word from him, hauled so vigorously on the lines that often several members of each team would tumble over in the sand to the delight of others.

     Suddenly the conductor for such he seemed to be, signaled rapidly seaward and all the boats immediately swung round to point inland, the paddlers working furiously as they raced simultaneously towards the beach. Meanwhile the line of pullers on the beach raced up the easy slope and soon the first ends of the nets appeared. Now ensured a frantic pulling on the ropes, hand-over-fist as they hurried to land the twisting, heaving, silvery catch, their voices raised in excited yells, laughter and exaltation.

     The boatmen raced their craft until they grounded, then leaped out to draw them up above the water-line before turning to lend a hand with the catch. And what a catch it was! Fish varying in length from two to three feet or more, fat succulent things which flopped and slithered as they were hauled to form a huge silvery pile which glittered in the rays of the slanting sun.

     As if informed by some kind of bush telegraph, several lorries and cars appeared along the road, honking their contributions to the din and disgorging groups of fish vendors and middle men.

QUESTIONS

(i) Why did the writer go to the second beach,

  1. He wanted to see more of the beautiful coast
  2. He wanted to see how the people landed the fish
  3. He wanted to go for a swim in the sea
  4. He wanted to see what the fisherman had caught

 (ii) What do we learn from the passage about the second beach?

  1. It was partly flat with occasional slope
  2. It had quite a gentle slope
  3. It curved gently down to the water
  4. It slopped gently until it nearly reached the water

 (iii) What were the wavers like at the second beach?

  1. They were quite gentle
  2. Most of them were gentle
  3. A few were gentle but most of them were rough
  4. We cannot be sure

 (iv) From the passage we can deduce that the number of people on the second beach was:-

  1. About forty
  2. Between forty and sixty
  3. At least sixty
  4. More than eighty

 (v) Which of the following actions did the “conductor” perform?

  1. He waved and shouted to both the crews and the teams
  2. He shouted to both the crews and the teams, and waved to the former
  3. He waved and shouted to the crew and spoke softly to the teams
  4. He waved to both the crews and the teams and shouted to the former

 (vi) How did the “conductor” get the boats to approach the shore?

  1. He waved to them
  2. He shouted to them
  3. He waved and then shouted to them
  4. He shouted and then waved to them

 (vii) Which of the following statement is true according to the passage

  1. The team pulled the nets on to the sand by racing up the beach
  2. The “conductor” only needed to tell the teams once to pull in the nets
  3. Some of the children fell over while pulling in the nets
  4. More people arrived on the beach and helped the teams to pull up the nets

 (viii)  The boatmen raced their craft:-

  1. Up to the end
  2. Above the water line
  3. Until they grounded
  4. Below the water line

 (ix) What appeared along the road?

  1. Only lorries
  2. Some buses
  3. Several lorries and cars
  4. Only cars

 (x) How was the beach formed as we read from the passage?

  1. The soft white sand fell and flattened in the plateau
  2. The soft white sand fell up to the sea
  3. The white sand fell near the sea
  4. The soft white sand accumulated at the sea

2. Match each expression in list A with correct word from list B by writing its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided use the following format for your answers

COLUMN A

COLUMN B

(i) The customs office

(ii) The tin deposits in that area

(iii) Gave him a thorough examination

(iv) The absence of light has

(v) I am sure she regrets……

  1. Hurt one of his patients
  2. Provides them with reasonable income
  3. Will need a dustbin
  4. The doctor
  5. What said
  6. Demanded for our passports
  7. A little farther along the road
  8. Luggage in the back of the car
  9. Would probably be exhausted in the near
  10. A considerable effect on plants and animals

 3. Read and summarize the following passage into 40 words;

     Women make up half of the world’s population. On that basis, one might expect that work and its rewards would be shared equally between men and women. Unfortunately, that’s not the case. In fact, in most countries, there is discrimination against women in terms of work rewards for work, ownership of property, legal rights, social opportunities and political responsibilities.

     In many societies today, especially where it is difficult to be financially independent, women are like unpaid servants in their own homes. It is women that take responsibility for raising the children and feeding and looking after their families’ health. In addition to their domestic work, many women also have to work on land or in factories to add to the family income. In Africa though women do 60% of the agricultural work, 50% of the caring of the animals and all the food processing, they have no right to any of the income from the sale of the produce or to ownership of land. Women are also responsible for collecting of firewood and freshwater. They make a great contribution to the development of their country through this upaid labour.

 4. Underline the word which does not fit in the following groups of words

  1. Actress, lawyer, accountant, musician, niece
  2. Spoon, plate, apron, bowl, fork
  3. Chair, iron sheet, table, cupboard, bed
  4. Wall, pencil, book, pen, paper
  5. Trousers, bed sheet, shirt, shorts, dress

SECTION B 40 MARKS

5. Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given after each

(i) If you had been there I would have done it

Begin Had………….

(ii) Unless you write to me I will not write to you again

Begin:  If……………

(iii) He sells salt and sugar

Rewrite Not only…………….

(iv) The students did their work. Then they sat down to rest

Join the two sentences and begin:  Having……………

(v) The girl is not foolish. The girl sells fish

Join the two sentence using “who”

(vi) Our team practices every day. We are getting better

Join the sentences beginning: the more…………..

(vii) She is poor. She cannot pay school fees

Rewrite the sentence using…….too…..to………

(viii) They are young but they are strong

Begin with Inspite of …….)

 6. (a) Using the words below, complete the following expression, chef, tailor, air host, secretary, student, manager customer, cobbler, doctor.

  1. A person whose job is to make clothes like suits for an individual customer is called………….
  2. A male flight attendant is called……………….
  3. A person that buys something from a shop or business is called………..
  4. A person whose profession is to cook………………….
  5. A person who amends shoes is known as…………………

 (b) Study lina’s time-table below and compose four grammatically correct sentences

Activities

Time

Wake up

Take a bath

Go to school

Do school activities

Return back home

She watches television

5:00am

6:00 am

7:00 am

8:00am – 12:00pm

1:30 am

2:30 am

 7. Re-arrange the following five  sentences into a logical sequence to make a meaningful paragraph by writing the corresponding letter in the answer booklet provided

  1. He was born in 1973, in Karumekenge village
  2. He finished his first degree in 1997
  3. He started his primary education in 1980
  4. Since 1998, he is working with the family company
  5. The first born in our family is Yoshia

 8. a) Imagine that you have been employed in one of the Chinese industry for about a year now and you are getting hardships. Write a letter to your sister explaining about the hardship you are going through and ask her to secure another job for you else where sign your name Aman Tumanin.

b) Imagine that you have been elected to be a chairperson of Mwananchi Street. The street has a total number of 50 houses. It has a lot of problems that need to be solved. Write a speech to be presented in a meeting to address those problems in eight points.

c) Write a composition on the use of cosmetics (250 words)

d) Suppose you are a member of debate club and the motion given is “Politicians are more destructive than constructive in life. Write on opposing and prosing sides not less than five point each side.

SECTION C

RESPONSE TO READING

ANSWER TWO QUESTIONS

9. If you were given a chance to suggest some of the themes in novel and play that are relevant in Tanzania today which ones would you suggest? Use two novels to make references as respond to the question.

10. The personality of an individual is influenced by his environment. Discuss this with reference to two readings.

11. Poets use poems to pass on intended message to the readers use two poems you have done in the class write messages found in the poem four messages from each poem.

12. Thin and red

Skinny and bald

The boy groans on the ground

Swollen stomach

Full of waste

Thin legs

Thin arms

Twitch

As the boy

Fights with flies

Over the empty plate

 

Ten years old

He looks older than young

And so small

As he wriggles

Prisoner

Of his unproportioned body

“Mother” shouts the boy

When I grow up

I will carry a gun

And not a pen

“My son” shouts the mother

“My son” cries the mother

You will never live to carry a gun

There is no meat for us

Answer the following questions

  1. What is the poem about?
  2. Write four figures of speech found in poem
  3. Write three themes found in the poem
  4. Write three messages found in the poem

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 18

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

GEOGRAPHY- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM THREE

                                                                             

TIME: 3:00HRS                                                                      2020

NAME:_______________________________________________                         CLASS:___________

INSTRUCTIONS

  • This paper consists of sections A,B,C and D
  • Answer All questions in section A,B and C and ONE (1) question from each part in section D
  • Map extract of ENGARUKA BASIN sheet 54/1 is provided 
  • Credits will be awarded for the use of relevant diagrams and examples
  • All writings must be done in BLUE or Black ink except for the diagrams which must be done by pencil
  • Remember to write your name and class in the spaces provided above.

SECTION A (25 MARKS)

1. For each of the items (i-x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the box provided.

(i) Great circle refers to:-

  1. A line of longitude
  2. Greenwich meridian only
  3. A line of the globe
  4. The shortest distance between the two points
  5. A circle in the surface whose plane passes through the centre of the globe.

 (ii) Pangani at sea level has a temperature of 32C, what is the temperature of Arusha 1500M above the sea level?

  1. 230c
  2. 170c
  3. 90c
  4. 190c
  5. 0.60c

 (iii) Plants with long roots, thorny stems, needle shaped leaves, wax or hair are found in:-

  1. The monsoon region
  2. Tropical grasslands
  3. Hot deserts
  4. The Mediterranean region
  5. The equatorial region

(iv) The slow movement of soil particles which can be recognized by bending of trees and fences is referred to as:-

  1. Soil erosion
  2. Mud flow
  3. Land slide
  4. Rock fall
  5. Soil creep

 (v) The secretary general of the U.N addressed the world from New York (75w 42N) at 7:30p.m Tuesday. At what time and day will the people in Dar es Salaam (45E 06S) hear the same speech?

  1. 3:30p.m Wednesday
  2. 12:30p.m Tuesday
  3. 3:30a.m Wednesday
  4. 8:30p.m Tuesday
  5. 11:30p.m Wednesday

 (vi) The barysphere of the earth is made up of:

  1. Silica and magnesia
  2. Iron and aluminia
  3. Silica and aluminia
  4. Iron and nickel
  5. Iron and Zinc 

 (vii) The name given to the boundary that demarcates solid materials from the molten mantle is:

  1. Mohorovicic
  2. Mesosphere
  3. Core
  4. Astheriosphere
  5. Gutenberg 

 (viii) _____________is a point where cold air from the polar regions meet warmer air from lower latitudes

  1. Pressure gradient
  2. Humidity
  3. Tropical maritime
  4. Polar front
  5. Cyclone 

 (ix)  Which one of the following combinations form chemical weathering?

  1. Organic acid and temperature change
  2. Exfoliation and carbonation
  3. Organic acid and weak carbonic acid
  4. Mud flow and land slides
  5. Temperature change and frost action

 (x) The earth is said to be oblate spherical because it is:

  1. A flattened sphere
  2. Spherical in shape
  3. Has a flattened surface
  4. Round
  5. A planet

 2. Match the items in list A with the response in list B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) The earth’s zone which is made up of nickel and iron

(ii) Magma which reaches the earth’s surface and solidifies to form extrusive features

(iii) A sheet of magma which lies along the bedding plane

(iv) A wall like feature formed when a mass of magma cuts across the bedding plane

(v) The uppermost layer of the earth

  1. Core
  2. Lava
  3. Sill
  4. Volcano
  5. Crust
  6. Mode
  7. Batholiths
  8. Mantle
  9. Magma
  10. Dyke 

 SECTION B (27 MARKS)

3. a) What do you understand by “Earthquake”?

b) Briefly explain five effects of earthquakes

c) Describe four ways of reducing the risks of earthquakes

4. (a) What is data in statistics?

(b) Explain with examples the following terms

  1. Individual data
  2. Discrete data
  3. Continuous data
  4. Grouped data

5. There are a number of researches conducted from different areas across the world. Suggest four advantages of research findings to Tanzania as a developing country after giving the definition of the word research”

 6. a) Define surveying.

b) When someone wants to conduct a survey he/she has to prepare himself/herself before. Explain four (4) important things a surveyor has to prepare before deciding to conduct a chain survey.

 7. Study carefully the map extract of ENGARUKA BASIN sheet 54/1 and then answer the questions that follow:

  1. Calculate the area covered by seasonal swamp in square kilometer (km2) 
  2. With evidence from the map suggest two economic activities which might take place in the mapped area 
  3. Name the features found at the following grid reference  875658 and 840580
  4. Describe the relief features found in a mapped area
  5. Change the map scale into statement scale

8. Study carefully the photograph provided below then answer the questions that follow:

image

 

  1. With reasons suggest the type of photograph above 
  2. Name the crop shown in the photograph
  3. Mention the natural conditions which favor the growth of the crop above
  4. Tanzania is very famous in growing the crop mentioned (b) above. Name three regions of Tanzania which grow the crop at commercial level
  5. With concrete evidence, explain the scale of production as shown on the photograph

SECTION C 30 MARKS

9. Explain the factors that influence the exploitation of mineral resources.

10. With vivid examples explain the factors which contribute to the drastic movement of people from rural to urban areas.

11. How does rapid population explosion affect small scale agriculture?

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 17

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

HISTORY- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM THREE

TIME: 2HRS                                                                    2020

NAME:______________________________CLASS:___________

INSTRUCTIONS

Instructions:

  1. This paper consitts of Section A,B ad C.
  2. Answer all questions in section A,B and three questions from section C.
  3. Write your answers on the given answer sheets 
  4. Write your full names at the top of  every page
  5. Time is three hours 

SECTION A (20MARKS)

1.Under each of the following items, there are five statements. One of the statements best completes the setences labelled from i-x. Identify the statement and write down its letter

(i) The berlin conference 0f 1884/85 was a result of 

  1. The decolonization process
  2. Neo-colonialism
  3. The Influence of Bismarck of Germany
  4. The development of capitalism to imperialism
  5. The development of mercantalism

(ii) The firt people who lived in the Interlucustrine region of East Africa were the:

  1. Chagga 
  2. Bachwezi 
  3. Luo 
  4. Bantu 
  5. Batembuzi 

(iii) The portuguese were mostly interested in the following activities in East Africa

  1. Spreading christianity 
  2. Spreading Islam
  3. Adventure and tourism
  4. Controling the wealth of this part of Africa
  5. Destroying the towns along the coats

(iv) The followign are the stages in evolution of man

  1. Zinjathropus,Home Erectus,Homosapiens,homohabilis
  2. Chimpanzee,Homo Erectus,Zinjathropus
  3. Modern Apes,old Apes,Chimpanzee,Homosapiens
  4. Chimpanzee,Zinjathropus,Homohabilis,Homo Erectus
  5. Food,shelter,clothes,health services

(v) The following were the main participants in Long Distance Trade in East Africa

  1. Yao,Barbaig,Arabs and Mandinka
  2. Ngoni, Tuareg,Arabs and Mazrui
  3. Chagga, Maasai and Bena 
  4. Yao,Nyamwezi and Kamba
  5. Imbagala, Vimbundu and Arabs.

(vi) The earliest socal organization from ehich each society has passed through is;

  1. Slavery 
  2. Socialism 
  3. Feudalism 
  4. Communalism 
  5. Monopoly 

(vii) The ability of the early man to walk by using two limbs is known as;

  1. Homosapiens
  2. Revolution 
  3. Evolution 
  4. Bipedalism 
  5. Adoption 

(viii) The origin of the ngoni speaking people is historically believed to be in;

  1. Soweto in South Africa
  2. Arusha Tanzania
  3. Pretoria in South Africa
  4. Natal in South Africa
  5. Kigoma in Tanzania

(ix) History is the study of;

  1. Future facts 
  2. Past,present and future tense
  3. Past selected information
  4. Man’s activities against nature through various steges of development
  5. Ujamaa in traditional African societies

(x) The NOK region in West Africa was famous in;

  1. Pastoralism 
  2. Agriculture and pastoralism
  3. Salt making
  4. Iron smelting
  5. Fishing and lumbering

2.Match the dates in list A with thehistorical event in list B by writing the letter of the correct event.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) 1810-1860

(ii) 1873-1895

(iii) 1905-1907

(iv) 1886

(v) 1896-1897

(vi) 1884-1885

(vii) 1870-1871

(viii) 1877-1888

(ix) 1959

(x) 1869

  1.  Jomo Kenyatta died
  2. The dicovery of the skull of the earliest man at olduvai Gorge by Dr.Louis Leakey
  3. The Russo-Turkish war
  4. Franco-German war
  5. The Berlin Conference
  6. The opening up of suez canal
  7. Anglo-German treaty
  8. Majimaji uprising
  9. The economic depression
  10. Kinjektile was arested by German troops
  11. Mau mau uprising
  12. Ndebele and Shona resistance
  13. Ngoni migration

 SECTION B: (20MARKS)

3.(a)Draw a sketch map of East Africa and mark the following historical sites;

Olduvai Gorge, Fort Ternan, Rusinga Island, Kondoa and Nsongezi.

(b) State the historical significance of the sites mentioned in (a) above.

4.Identify the incorrect historical statements in the following items and write  its letter beside the item number.

(A) The Berlin Conference resolved to abolish slave in all Europeans occupied territories.

(B) The Berlin Conference of 1884/1885 was an imperialist conference which brought together European and African chiefs to divide Africa.

(C) The Berlin conference legalized the division of African countries among European capitalists

(D) The Berlin Conference declared the basins of Nile,Niger and Congo rivers as free zones.

II. (A) Oral tradition keeps on changing as time passes

(B) Oral tradition are not biased

(C) Oral tradition is mainly useful to illiterate society

(D) Oral tradition can be obtained through the use of cultural practices such as music,poems,songs,proverbs and riddles.

III. (A) Selling war prisoners were one of the methods used to obtain slaves in East Africa.

(B) Slaves were obtained by preaching good news to them

(C) Frequent burning of villages added the number of slaves to slave traders.

(D) Slave traders raided villages during nights to capture slaves.

 IV. (A) The East African long distance trade involved the Arabs and Nyamwezi

(B) The Arabs were not interested in slaves during long distance trade

(C) One of the principle exports during long distance trade was ivory from the interior

(D) Due to long distance trade,Zanzibar under Sultan Seyyid Said became well known to Arab countries.

V. (A) The south African Boers introduced the Bantustan policy in South Africa as one of the strategies to control liberation struggles.

(B) In addition, they encouraged the formation of the Patriotic front

(C) Besides, they established a law prohibiting whites to marry blacks

(D) More over, they established the constructive engagement policy in the neighbouring Namibia.

SECTION C: (60 MARKS)

5. Explain the resolutions of the Berlin Conference of 1884-1885.

6. Differentiate between scramble and partition of Africa in the second half of the 19th Century. With examples briefly explain what caused them.

7. Discuss the sources on the basis in which historical information is reconstructed.

8. Account for the tactics used by Europeans to impose colonial rule in Africa .

9. Through their activities the missionaries became forerunners of colonialism. Justify this statement.

10. With examples explain the significance of the Berlin conference of 1884-1885

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 16

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

CIVICS- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM THREE

TIME: 2.30HRS                                                                                            2020

NAME:_______________________________________________                         CLASS:___________

INSTRUCTIONS

  • This paper consists of three sections, A, B and C
  • Answer all questions in section A and B and 2 questions from section C
  • All answers must be written on the spaces provided
  • Ensure clarity on your answers

1. For each of the items (i – x ) choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number below;

(i) A school authority which discourages female students to opt for technique subject is likely to be influenced by

  1. Gender discrimination
  2. Gender stereotyping
  3. Gender analysis
  4. Gender
  5. Gender balance

 (ii) Bus accidents in Tanzania are caused by both human and external factors, the external factors are

  1. Excessive speed
  2. Overtaking errors
  3. Parking error
  4. Reckless driving
  5. Poor road condition

 (iii) The following are characteristics of state except

  1. Presence of a defined territory in which people live 
  2. Is fully independents
  3. Should have good cities and well arranged
  4. Presence of government with full political control

 (iv) Before marriage men and women develop friendship, this friendship is called.

  1. Courtship 
  2. Infidelity
  3. Early marriage
  4. Initiation period
  5. Kitchen part

 (v) The national flag of Tanganyika was hoisted for the first time

  1. 9th December 1961
  2. 26th April 1964
  3. 7th  April 1965
  4. 1st Jan 1964

 (vi) Parents should teach their children good manners through the following except.

  1. By demonstrating to their children what they want them to do
  2. Maintain their own norms and value that guide children
  3. Tell them what are bad and not acceptable in society
  4. Give children everything they want and treat them luxuriously

 (vii) The first permanent constitution in Tanzania was enacted in

  1. 1964
  2. 1965
  3. 1984
  4. 1977
  5. 1992

 (viii) Empathy means

  1. Is the ability of putting oneself in other peoples mood when they are faced by serious problems
  2. Is the ability of people requires skills according to need
  3. Is a mental emotional or physical tension
  4. Is the ability of a person to recognize   one’s emotions and reasons for them

 (ix) Social development refers to

  1. Improvement of peoples welfare in the society
  2. Improvement in relations among the people
  3. Improved women welfare in the society
  4. Peace and harmony in the society

 (x) The ability of a person to convey ideas, feelings thoughts to be known to others is known as

  1. Negotiation skills
  2. Empathy
  3. Peer pressure
  4. Effective communication skill

 2. Match the items in list A with the correct response in list B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer

LIST A

LIST B

(i)Is the belief in the existence of God or gods

(ii) Refugees, street children, women, elderly

(iii) The ability to make the best choice out of many available options

(iv) Principles of fairness, justice and benefits that all human are born with

(v) A person accepted as a member of country 

 

  1. Guidance and cancelling
  2. NGOs
  3. Decision making skills
  4. Orphans
  5. Citizen
  6. Religion
  7. Work
  8. Teaching
  9. Citizenship
  10. Special group
  11. TAWLA
  12. Human right
  13. Human right abuse

 

 SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Historically the question of human rights has been constantly attracting international attention. In different places all over the world Tanzania included, human rights are being violated at different levels, ranging from the central government itself, local government, public institutions such as court and police, society and even at the level of the family and religion to mention few. Due to ignorance caused by lack of information and poverty, the victims of human rights violation may not be aware if their rights are violated or not. In some cases those who violate human rights do not know that they are violating them.

To combat the problem of violating human rights in Tanzania appropriate measures need to be taken. The first alternative is the on-going improvement of human rights education to the entire public. All citizens should be educated on human rights. Authorities such as police, people’s militia, executives, members of the parliament, councilors, teachers, employers and parents should know human rights.

The second steps is to know where to go when human rights are violated. In most cases violations occur to individuals. The court system and the police are the major organs that protect human rights. However, these organs may not help if human rights education is not provided. There is a need to form local human rights groups which will serve well even when an individual alone cannot get his/her rights. Such groups can be formed by students, women, workers, villagers or professionals, disabled, retired employers etc.

These groups will serve as regulators when any person or group is denied his/her rights. They will have a strong and common voice against any violation. This behavior will enable even law enforcers such as police, tax officers, magistrates and judges to be careful when doing their duties. This will ensure and enhance the commitment of lawyers and judges to interpret the laws accordingly. 

Questions

  1. Suggest a suitable title for the passage
  2. According to the passage, name two violators of human rights in our society
  3. In the context of this passage, outline two strategies that can be used to protect human rights in Tanzania
  4. In your views, what do you think is the role of the judiciary in protecting human rights in Tanzania? Give two points.
  5. Point out two negative effects of human rights abuse

5. Mother and father are important members of the family everyone has his/her responsibility in the family. Mention five responsibility for each of them.

Father:

  1. ______________________________________________________________
  2. ______________________________________________________________
  3. ______________________________________________________________
  4. ______________________________________________________________
  5. ______________________________________________________________

Mother

  1. ______________________________________________________________
  2. ______________________________________________________________
  3. ______________________________________________________________
  4. ______________________________________________________________
  5. ______________________________________________________________

5. Elaborate six interpersonal skills which will enable you to cope with life after completion of secondary school education.

  1. …………………………………………… …………………… ………………………..
  2. ……………………… ………………………… ………………… ……………………. 
  3. ………………………… …………………………………… ……………… ……………
  4. …………… ……………………… ………………………………… ………… …………
  5. …………………………………………………………………………………………..
  6. …………………………………………………………………………………………

6. Proponents of globalization argue that globalization is a catalyst of development while the opponents contend that it is a source of underdevelopment. Discuss eight (8) merits of globalization in Tanzania.

  1. ………………………………………………………………………………………………..
  2. ………………………………………………………………………………………………
  3. ……………………………………………………………………………………………..
  4. ……………………………………………………………………………………………..
  5. …………………………………………………………………………………………….
  6. ……………………………………………………………………………………………
  7. ………………………………………………………………………………………….
  8. …………………………………………………………………………………………..

7. Explain five reasons why work is important.

  1. …………………………………… …………………………………… ……………………
  2. …………………………………… …………………………………… …………………….
  3. …………………………………… …………………………………… ………………………
  4. …………………………………… …………………………………… ……………………….
  5. …………………………………… …………………………………… ………………………

8. What are principles of democracy?

  1. ……………………………… ……………………………… ……………………………….
  2. ……………………………… ……………………………… ………………………………
  3. ………………………………… ………………………………… ………………………….
  4. ………………………………… ………………………………… …………………………….
  5. ………………………………… ………………………………… ……………………………..

SECTION C

Answer three questions from this section. Each question carries 20 marks

9. What are eight importance of our culture in maintaining society morals and values

10. In seven points write indicators of dictatorship government.

11. Mobile phone is very important tool in society but sometimes can cause a lot of problems in peoples’ lives. Prove the statement with not less than eight points.

12. Street children is a hot challenge in our society, write five causes of street children and five points on the solution of this challenge.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 15

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PHYSICS- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM THREE

Time 3:00 Hours                                                                      MAY 2020 

Instructions 

  • This paper consists of two sections A B and C. 
  • Answer all questions in Section A and B and two question from section C
  • Show clearly all working for each question
  • Mathematical tables, geometrical instruments and graph paper may be used where necessary 

SECTION A. 15 MARKS

1. (i) A point where the incident parallel rays of light converge or appear to diverge after passing through a lens is called?

  1. Center of curvature
  2. Focus
  3. Optical center
  4. Aperture.

(ii) The diameter of a lens is called?

  1. Focal length
  2. Principal axis
  3. Aperture
  4. Radius

(iii) Point at which all rays converge in termed as

  1. Converging point
  2. Focal point
  3. Focal center
  4. Converging center

(iv) Distance of virtual image and object is equal from mirror. This statement is

  1. Right
  2. Wrong
  3. May be right or wrong
  4. Neither right nor wrong

(v) Voltage is a form of:-

  1. Kinetic energy
  2. Potential energy
  3. Both potential and kinetic energy
  4. None of the above.

(vi) Ohm’s Law states which relationship between electrical quantities

  1. Volts = current image resistance
  2. Volts = currentimage amps
  3. Volts = coulomb image charge
  4. Volts = resistance image charge

(vii) Process of heat transfer that involves continual emission of infrared waves from surface of bodies and transmission of these waves without aid of medium is known as

  1. Conduction
  2. Convection
  3. Radiation
  4. None of the above

(viii)Vacuum in a vacuum flask prevents heat transfer through process of

  1. Conduction only
  2. Convection only
  3. Conduction and Convection
  4. Radiation only

(ix) The act process or state of change in place or position of a body with respect to time and relative to observes is to be 

  1. Rest 
  2. Stationery
  3. Motion
  4. All of above

(x) Which of the following is a type of motion?

  1. Circular
  2. Rectilinear
  3. Periodic
  4. All of above

2. Match the following items

List A

List B

  1. Image on opposite side of mirror
  2. Ratio of angle of incidence to angle of refraction
  3. Unique angle incidence for which angle of refraction is 90
  4. Distance between optical center and principle focus
  5. Angle formed by intersection of incident ray direction and emergent ray direction
  1. Principle focus
  2. Refractive index
  3. Absolute index.
  4. Focal length
  5. Angle of deviation
  6. Real image
  7. Virtual image
  8. Snell’s law

           SECTION B. 60 MARKS

3. (a) A Jet air plane travelling at speeding of 500km/h ejects its products of combustions at speed of 1500km/h relative to jet plane. Find speed of the later with respect to an observer on the ground.

(b) A car moving along a straight line with a speed of 126km/h is brought to a stop within a distance of 200m. What is the retardation of the car? And how long does it take for the car to stop?

4. (a) (i) What is meant by specific latent heat of vaporization. 

 (ii) Name two factors which affect the boiling point and freezing point of water.

(b) Explain in terms of kinetic theory of matter;

 (i) What changes is taking place while the liquid is boiling? 

(ii) Why it takes longer time to boil a tea on top of high mountains than at the sea level? 

(c) (i) Define heat capacity

 (ii) Calculate the final temperature of water formed if 8.4 KJ of heat is supplied to 0.02 kg of ice at 0 °C. 

5. (a) What is meant by refraction of light?

    (b) Mention the three points to be considered when drawing a ray diagram to form the    image in lens.

    (c) Mention four effects of refraction of light.

6. (a) What is sea wave energy?

    (b) Explain three ways of harvesting sea wave energy

    (c) Describe challenges of sea wave energy.

7. (a) State what you understand by

  1. Magnetic field
  2. Magnetic line of force.

(b) Sketch lines of force between (2) bars of magnet placed horizontally on table with;

  1. Their N – poles facing each other
  2. Their N – poles facing South pole.

    (c) Explain why;

  1. Strength of magnet cannot be increased beyond certain limit.
  2. Increase in temperature destroys a magnet.

 8. (a) Explain the image formed by curved mirror in terms of:-

  1. Position
  2. Nature
  3. Size

   (b) An object 20cm high is placed 40cm from a concave mirror of focal length 15cm. Determine position, nature and size of image formed by drawing a ray diagram.

 SECTION C

Answer only two questions from this section.

 9. (a) What is a microscope?

    (b)Explain how light microscope works

    (c) Mention three uses of compound microscope.

    (d)What is a projection lantern

    (e) Give five uses of a projectile lantern. 

10. (a) State the energy conversion is a solar cell and give two practical application of it.

 (b) Explain why solar cells are not likely to be used to generate electricity in future?

 (c ) Discuss the problems associated with fuel energy to the environment.

 11. (a) Define the following terms; 

(i) Evaporation (ii)Temperature.

(b) Give four differences between boiling and evaporation. 

(c) An immersion heater rated 2kW is used to heat water of specific heat capacity 2200j/kgK in an insulated container of negligible heat capacity for 30minutes. Calculate the mass of water heated if the temperature of water rises from  20°C to 65°C. 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 14

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

CHEMISTRY- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM THREE

TIME: 2HRS                                                                                           2020

NAME:_______________________________________CLASS:___________

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of 3 sections A, B,and C
  2. Answer all questions in all sections
  3. Phones and electronic calculators are not allowed
  4. All work should be done using blue or black pen
  5. The following information and constants may be useful

H=1, N=14, O=16, C=12, Fe=56, Pb=207, Cl=35.5, Ca=40, Mn=55, K=39, 1litre=1dm3=1000cm3

Avogadro’s constant=6.02x1023 particles

1 faraday=96500 coulombs

GMV at STP=22.4dm3

SECTION A (20 MARKS)

1. For each item (i-x) choose the correct answer from given alternative and write it beside the item number in answer booklet provided.

(i) An element in periodic table with atom number 18 belongs to which of the following

  1. Group 1 and period 1
  2. Group O and period III
  3. Group III and period III
  4. Group V and period IV
  5. Group VII and period IV

(ii) The ionic equation when ammonium chloride react with sodium hydroxide is

  1. 2NH+4(aq) + 2Cl- image 2NH3 + Cl2 + H
  2. NH+4 +  OH- image NH3  + H2O
  3. Na+   + Cl- image      NaCl
  4. 2NH+4      + 2Cl-(aq) image 2NH3(g) + 2Hcl(g)
  5. H+   + OH- image H2O

(iii) The reason why white anhydrous copperII sulphate turns Blue when exposed to atmosphere is

  1. Reacts with carbon dioxide
  2. Reacts with oxygen
  3. Becomes dry
  4. Absorbs water vapour
  5. Decomposes

 (iv) Chemical change means

  1. Change in reversible
  2. Can easily be separated
  3. Change is complete
  4. Produces no change in mass
  5. New substance is produced

 (v) If a stead current of 2 amperes was passed through an aqueous solution of ironII sulphate for 15 minutes, then, mass of iron deposited will be.

  1. 54g
  2. 56g
  3. 0.54g
  4. 28g
  5. 0.52g

 (vi) Which of the following solutions is the most concentrated?

  1. 50g of calcium carbonate in 100cm3 of water
  2. 60g of sodium chloride in 200cm3 of water
  3. 65g of potassium nitrate in 100cm3 of water
  4. 120g of potassium suphate in 200cm3 of water
  5. 50g of sodium hydroxide in 200cm3 of water

 (vii) Copper can be separated from mixture of zinc and copper by adding to the mixture

  1. Concentrated sulphuric acid
  2. Dilute sulphuric acid
  3. Aqueous solution of ZnSO4
  4. Catalyst
  5. Concentrated nitric acid

 (viii) 10cm of 0.4M sodium hydroxide are added to 40cm3 of 0.2M Hcl. The resulting mixture will be

  1. Neutral
  2. Alkaline
  3. Dilute
  4. Acidic
  5. Amphoteric

 (ix) The only metal which does not react with dilute Hcl is

  1. Magnesium
  2. Alluminium
  3. Copper
  4. Zinc
  5. Sodium

(x) During electrolysis of molten aluminum oxide; 3 faradays were needed to deposit one mole of aluminum. The number of electrons of aluminum will be:

  1. 6.02 X 1023
  2. 1.806 X 1023
  3. 18.06 X 1023
  4. 180.6 X 1023
  5. 1806 X 1023

2. Match the items in list A with responses in list B by writing the letter of correct response beside item number in separate answer sheet.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Its nitrate decomposes to metal, nitrogen dioxide and oxygen

(ii) Its chloride is used as a drying agent

(iii) Its carbonate is used to remove hardness of water

(iv) It is stored paraffin

(v) It hydride ion is metallic in nature

(vi) Exists into two main physical forms

(vii) Greenish- yellow gas

(viii) Forms insoluble sulphate

(ix) Reacts with carbon dioxide to form an oxide

(x) Used as sacrificial element in catholic protection

  1. Potassium
  2. Zinc
  3. Argon
  4. Calcium
  5. Magnesium
  6. Chlorine
  7. Carbon
  8. Load
  9. Nitrogen
  10. Beryllium
  11. Neon
  12. Hydrogen
  13. Helium
  14. Sodium
  15. Boron
  16. Iodine
  17. Manganese
  18. Phosphorus
  19. silver

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

3. a) Why do chemistry laboratory exits open outward? 

State uses of any four items in first Aid Kit

b) i) Arrange the following metals in order of increasing reactivity – zinc, magnesium, calcium, copper, mercury

ii) Which of the following metals b (i) reacts with steam forming an oxide which is white when cold and yellow when hot?

4. a)20cm of solution containing 7g dm3 sodium hydroxide were exactly neutralized by 25cm of 0.1M Hcl. Calculate the concentration of sodium hydroxide in moles per dm

b) Give two examples of

(i) Gaseous solution

(ii) Solid solution

5. a)The table below show part of periodic table study it and answer questions that follow

H

 

He

Li

Be

B

 

 

 

F

 

 

 

Al

Si

P

S

Cl

Ar

 Fill all missing elements

(i) Write the reaction equation involved in industrial manufacture of sulphuric acid in contact process; starting with sulphur metal

(ii) Explain why sulphur trioxide is not dissolved directly in water to obtain sulphuric acid

6. a)Explain how you can separate crystals of copper II sulphate from pieces of broken glasses

b) With aid of equation explain how washing soda removes hardness of water

7. Table below give information about composition of three samples of water Mineral content per Mg per litre

Ions Kahama Maswa Bukombe
Ca2+ 28 82 18
Mg2+ 14 41 13
Cl- 53 7 22
Na+ 7 143 39
HCO-3 281 5 93
SO42-  2 14 16

(i) State two ways in which these ions get into water

(ii) Give two reasons, state hardest water sample

(iii) State two ways that can be used to remove hardness in (II)

b) Write the following molecular equation to ionic

(i) Fe(s) + CUSO4(aq)  → FeSO4(aq)    + Cu(s)

(ii) Na2SO4(aq)  + Bacl2(aq) → BaSO4(g)   + 2Nacl(aq)

State the type of chemical reaction

(8) a) When a burning splint is introduced in gas for containing CO2, the flame goes off.

i) What two properties of CO2 does this experiment lustrate?

ii) What type of equipment widely used in everyday life makes use of these two properties?

b) The equation below show dissociation of calcium carbonate 

CaCO3(s)    → CaO(s) + CO2(g)   H

(i) Is the forward reaction endothermic or exothermic?

(ii) What factors favour forward reaction?

(iii) What will be the effect on proportion of CaCO3 in the equilibrium mixture if temperature is decreased?

9. a)Lead nitrate decompose on heating as follows

2 Pb (NO3)2(g)   →     2PbO(S) + 4NO2 (g) + O2(g)

112dm3 of O2 were collected at STP when a sample of a lead nitrate was completely decomposed on heating. Calculate mass of load II nitrate in the sample.

b) Define the following terms

(i) Mole

(ii) Titrant

(iii) Analyte

(iv) Molar solution

10. a)Differentiate between

(i) A base and alkali

(ii) Atom and isotope

b) An organic compound P consists of 52.2% carbon, 13% hydrogen, and 34.8% oxygen.

The vapour density of P is 23. Calculate the molecular formula of compound P

11. Describe the extraction of iron using the blast furnace

SECTION C   (26 MARKS)

12. Assume that you are a chemist in a chemical plant and want to produce 100litres of chlorine gas per hour so as to reach company goal of producing 2400litres every day. What current of electricity will you allow to flow per hour?

13. A solution of hydrated sodium carbonate was nitrated with 1.68M nitric acid solution. 30cm3 of the solution required 28.75cm3 of nitric acid for complete reaction. If the solution was prepared by dissolving 12.056g of the carbonate to make 600cm3 of solution, determine the molecules of water of crystallization in hydrated sodium carbonate.

END

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 13

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

BIOLOGY- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM THREE

TIME: 3HRS                                                                                                         

NAME: __________________________________                        CLASS:___________

INSTRUCTIONS

i) This paper consists of three sections A,B and C

ii) Answer all questions in sections A and B, and one question in section C

iii) Ensure clarity in your responses

iv) Don’t attempt to cheat

SECTION A. 20 MARKS

1. (i) Regulatory control of the body temperature thirsty and hunger occurs in the

  1. Hypothalamus
  2. Cerebrum
  3. Thalamus
  4. Pituitary

 (ii) Hypo secretion of growth in childhood would result to….

  1. Dwarfism
  2. Gigantism
  3. Death
  4. Hyperactivity

 (iii) A student was given a piece of material of doubtful origin; he wanted to know whether it is from an animal or from a plant. Which of the following should be analyze and examine?

  1. The cytoplasm and cell membrane
  2. The nucleus and outermost covering
  3. The cytoplasm and outmost covering
  4. The nucleus and cell membrane

 (iv)  Plasmolysis of red blood cells would occur if the cells were

  1. In isotonic solution
  2. In hypotonic solution
  3. In hypertonic solution
  4. Non of the above

 (v) The following are ascomycota except one identify it

  1. Cup fungi
  2. Penicillum
  3. Yeast
  4. Rhizopus stolonifer

 (vi)  The skin does all these except;

  1. Regulate temperature
  2. Produce blood cells
  3. Store fat
  4. Prevent you from ultra-violet rays

 (vii) All are functions of saliva except;

  1. Digestion of starch
  2. Digestion of protein
  3. Lubrication of food
  4. Protection of bacteria

 (viii) Which part constitutes an illuminating system?

  1. Diaphragm
  2. Mirror
  3. Condenser
  4. All of the above

 (ix) Which of the following statements concerning diffusion and active transport is correct?

  1. Both require energy
  2. Neither requires energy
  3. Only diffusion requires energy
  4. Active transport requires energy while diffusion do not

 (x) On a cold day one usually experiences, shivering, this is the way of maintaining normal body temperature. Why does one feel better after shivering?

  1. The muscles are coordinated
  2. The body responds to stimulus
  3. The body releases energy and heat
  4. The body has better adaptations

2. Match the responses in list B with the phrases in list A by writing the letter of the correct response from list B beside the item number of list A in your answer booklet.

LIST A

LIST B

i) Receives impulses and gives appropriate response to stimuli

ii)A gap through which impulses pass when travelling from one neuron to another

iii) Receives impulse from the external stimuli and transmits it to the spinal cord

iv) Controls and coordinate body balancing organs, thus making accurate movement possible

v) The nervous pathway taken by impulse in reflex action

  1. Synapse
  2. Effectors
  3. Hypothalamus
  4. Biceps muscles
  5. Motor neuron
  6. Peripheral nervous system
  7. Central nervous system
  8. Reflex arc
  9. Sensory neuron

 

SECTION B 60 marks

Answer all questions in this section

All questions carry 8 marks except question five and six which carry 6 marks each.

3. a)State three actions which take place in the human body in response to each of the following   conditions:

i)  When the temperature of the surrounding is low

ii) When the body temperature rises due to increase in surrounding temperature

b) Briefly explain why people took pale when they feel cold?

4. i) The diagram below represents a mammalian nephron

a) What happens to sodium ions between sections 1 and 2?

b) Explain the effect of the absence of the ant diuretic hormone to the functioning of section3

c) What would happen if there is partial constriction at point 5?

d) Explain the difference in structural adaptations of a desert animal such as kangaroo and a water fish such as tilapia nilotica. 

ii) Study the diagram below and answer the question that follows

a) Name the structures labeled A,C,E, and F

b) State the function of structure labeled D

c) If structure F was removed from the body of the mammal, what effect would this have?

5. a)Define the term photosynthesis

b) Give the importance of photosynthesis

c) List four differences between respiration and photosynthesis

d) State the site of photosynthesis in a plant cell

e) What role is played by light during photosynthesis?

 6. a)Explain the functions of the vascular system in plants

b) State three importance of transportation of materials in living things

 7. The diagram given below represents a limb of a vertebrate

 a) Name the bones labeled Y,X and Z

b)  Name the parts D, and A

c)  State the functions of W?

d)  A patient was operated and doctors realized that the synovial fluid in the joints had reduced. Suggest a possible effect of this.

ii) The diagram below shows the behavior of red blood cells when placed in various solutions

a) Name the process that takes place in C and F

b) What types of solutions are A,B and C

c) If a plant cell were placed in a beaker containing solutions A, what observations are likely to be made?

d) Which of the solution is likely to be found in a blood plasma?

8. a)Draw a large and neat labeled diagram of the villus found in the digestive system

b) i) Name the digestive juice which is produced by the liver

    ii) State the function of the substances contained in the digestive juice named in b (i)

9. a)Differentiate the following terms:

i)  Breathing and respiration

ii) Inhalation and exhalation

b) Briefly describe the following phenomenon:

i)  A person breathes more when is running fast

ii) The ribs move outwards and upwards while the diaphragm flattened when air enters the lungs

SECTION C (20 MARKS)

Answer one (1) question from this section

10. Explain any four effect of irresponsible sexual behavior and suggest five ways of eradicating those behaviors in the community.

 11. Describe how malaria parasites are transmitted, the sign developed to the host and give four ways which can help in combating malaria in the country.

12. Explain two differences between artificial and natural classification systems and indicate the two merits and demerits for each system.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 12

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMMERCE MID TERM EXAMINATION-2020

TIME: 2:30HRS

NAME:_______________________________________CLASS:___________

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists two sections A and B
  2. Answer All questions in both sections
  3. Answers should be written in blue/black ink

SECTION A

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

  1. For each of items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter in the boxes provided below:

i) All of the following methods are involved in a barter exchange except:

  1. The buyer must have some goods to give to the seller
  2. The buyer must pay cash to the seller
  3. The buyer can offer labour services to obtain goods
  4. There must be a double coincidence of wants

ii) Which one of the following is an example of a barter trade?

  1. Fish and coins
  2. Goat and notes
  3. Cow and chair
  4. Sheep and silver coins

iii) Which of the following industries deal with natural resources?

  1. Manufacturing
  2. Constructive
  3. Extractive
  4. Textile

iv) The resources in the form of money or materials that a person or an organization has for establishing and running a business is called:

  1. Merchandise
  2. Basic needs
  3. Capital
  4. Debts

v) The point where demand and supply curves intercept is called:

  1. Centre point
  2. Zero point
  3. Equilibrium point
  4. Margin

vi) A refrigerator used in making ice cream for sale, is in the category of:

  1. Consumer goods
  2. Luxury goods
  3. Producer goods
  4. Domestic goods

vii) Generally, more goods will be supplied when:

  1. Prices are relatively high
  2. Prices are relatively low
  3. Prices are fairly competitive
  4. Prices are fixed by the government

viii) Traders who do not have permanent business premises are called:

  1. Itinerant traders
  2. Gamblers
  3. Brokers
  4. Underwriters
  5. Retailers

ix) The last people in the distribution chain are:

  1. The customers
  2. The retailers
  3. The wholesalers
  4. The consumers

x) Given that:

Daily sales = 20 tins of NIDO milk

Delivery time = 5 days

Minimum stock = 100 tins of NIDO milk

Order point is:

  1. 200 tins
  2. 150 tins
  3. 180 tins
  4. 100 tins
  1. MATCHING ITEMS

Choose the items in group A that matches with the items in group B

GROUP A

i) Keeping stock in good order and at the right time

ii) The period of time between ordering and replenishment, i.e. when goods are available for use

iii) Releasing sold stock to the customers

iv) The level reached immediately after the receipt of new supply of goods

v) The level at which placing of a new order must be done

vi) Sells goods to other traders

vii) Is a document sent by the seller to the buyer to correct an overcharge on the original invoice

viii) Is a document sent by the seller to the buyer to correct an undercharge on the original invoice

ix) Is a written order from an account holder to the bank, to pay a specific sum of money to the person named on it

x) Are self-services shops that stock varieties of items?

GROUP B

  1. Super markets
  2. Retailers
  3. Credit note
  4. Debit note
  5. Cheque
  6. Drafts
  7. Wholesalers
  8. Manufacturers
  9. Issuing of stock
  10. Order point
  11. Care of stock
  12. Lead or procurement time
  13. Stock taking
  14. Maximum stock
  15. Stock valuation

i

ii

iii

iv

v

vi

vii

viii

ix

x











  1. Short answer questions

i) Traditional Media

ii) Visual communication

iii) Inflation

iv) Expansionary Monetary policy

v) Savings bank

SECTION B

Answer All questions in this section

  1. “Money is as money does “Discuss.
  1. Discuss the importance of communication to business
  1. a) What is B.O.T?

b) Examine the functions of B.O.T in Tanzania

  1. Explain the qualities of a good retailer
  1. Explain the problems facing communication in Tanzania
  1. a)Explain the term “ Transportation”

b) State the merits of air transport in Tanzania. (Five points)

  1. Discuss the factors which must be considered for choosing a mode of transport

BEST WISHES

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 11

 

THE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE MID TERM EXAMINATIONS- MARCH 2020

012                                                                              HISTORY

 

Duration: 2:30 Hours

 

INSTRUCTIONS.

 

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of Nine (9) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and three (3) questions from section C
  3. All answers must be written in the spaces provided.
  4. All writing must be in blue or black ink.
  5. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your Examination Number at the top right corner of every page.

 

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

 

1. For each of the following items (i – xv) choose the correct answer from among of given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number:

 (i) The appearance of both Zinjathropus and Homo habilis marked the beginning of a period in man’s history known as.

            (a) Neolithic Age

            (b) Modernization Age

            (c) Early Stone Age

            (d) Middle Stone Age

            (e) Pre – colonial period.

(ii) The following are the limitations of archaeology as a source of historical knowledge except:

            (a) Time factor is very relative

            (b) Humid climate causes decay of artifacts

            (c) It is more employed in Engaruka valley than Egypt.

            (d) Difficult to know the culture, language and beliefs of the Artifacts.

            (e) It takes time and very expensive.

(iii) The British took over Tanganyika after 1918 because:

            (a) It was the end of the First World War.

            (b) They were asked by the League of Nations

            (c) They defeated the Germans.

            (d) The Germans were not able to separate the war.

(iv) During the colonial period provision of social services was not given priority to Africans because:

            (a) Arabs and Portuguese had provided social services before colonialism.

            (b) Africans refused modernity.

            (c) Africans had all social services.

            (d) Social services were part of profit to European Capitalists

            (e) Social services were not part of profit to European Capitalists.

(v) Some areas in Africa experienced more intensive Scramble than others in the 19th century because:

            (a) Had no active Africans to resist Colonialism

            (b) Were still for behind in development.

            (c) Were good for hunting and gathering fruits.

            (d) Had Mediterranean climate favorable for Europeans.

            (e) Were economically strategic.

(vi) Which one among the following statements is not true about the discoveries made by man during the middle stone age?

            (a) Development of sharper, smaller and portable tools.

            (b) Introduction of stone picks spears, arrows, knives and needles.

            (c) Use of wooden and bone materials to facilitate production.

            (d) Discovery of fire.

            (e) Emergence of social cultural groups and ethnic groups.

(vii) Which of the following best describes the Stone Age Era?

            (a) When man used stone artifacts widely in his daily life.

            (b) When stones were formed on earth.

            (c) When man used stones widely as ornaments.

            (d) When Africans used stones to fight against invaders 

            (e) When stone became a major commodity in a long distance trade.

(viii) Why are Missionaries important in Africa History?

            (a) Treated Africans very well

            (b) Brought in trade goods with them.

            (c) Accounts of their expeditions and experience attracted more Europeans.

            (d) Established medical services.

            (e) Introduced civilization in Africa.

(ix) Carl Peters signed a number of treaties with African Chiefs on the coastal hinterland of Tanganyika because he wanted to:

            (a) Please Chancellor Bismarck.

            (b) Establish unity among African Chiefdoms.

            (c) Accomplish Colonial economic motives of the German East Africa Company.

            (d) Accomplish the signing to the Heligoland Treaty.

            (e) Recruit the Chief of Msovero to become member of the German East African Company.

(x) The Trans Atlantic Slave Trade had the following outcomes, except:

            (a) Loss of African culture

            (b) Loss of African technology

            (c) Loss of man power in Africa.

            (d) The growth of forest states of Benin, Oyo and Ife.

            (e) Scramble of Africa by European Nations.

(xi) The coastal city states which grew from the trade contacts between East Africa and Asia were

  1. Mwanza, Tanga and Dar es Salaam
  2. Malindi, Kilwa and Mombasa
  3. Nairobi, Kampala and Dar es Salaam
  4. Lamu, Bagamoyo and Mbeya
  5. Mombasa, Zanzibar and Kigoma.

(xii)Which of the following are included in the museums?

  1. Cultural, social and economic items from the earliest time to the present.
  2. Remains which show man’s past made and used tools.
  3. Cultural practices such as art, music religion and riddles.
  4. Colonial records and early traveller’s records.
  5. Special names of generations, clan trees and tribal chronology.

(xiii) The period which was characterized by intense competition and warfare among the Europeanstates during the 17th century is called

  1. capitalism
  2. mercantilism
  3. feudalism
  4. industrial revolution
  5. scramble.

(xiv)When did most parts of East Africa adopt iron technology?

  1. 1st millennium AD.
  2. 1st millennium BC.
  3. 3rd millennium AD.
  4. 2nd millenium AD.
  5. 2nd millennium BC.

(xv) Industrial development in Africa was not prioritized by the capitalists during the colonial time because

  1. the colonialists were interested in obtaining raw materials
  2. the colonialists stressed on the provision of social services
  3. the climate did not favour industrial development
  4. Africa had no enough raw materials
  5. Africa had no infrastructure to support the industries.

 

 

 

 2. Match the items in LIST A with the correct responses in LIST B by writing the letter of the response beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Vasco Da Gama

(ii) Kinjekitile Ngwale

(iii) Carl Peters

(iv) Samori Toure

 (v) 1967

 

A. The organization of African Unity gave birth to African Union.

B. Genocide in Rwanda

C. The Policy of socialism and self reliance was introduces in Tanzania

D. Imperialist plan against progressive and revolutionary leadership in independent Africa.

E. Facilitated Indirect rule in Uganda

F. Nyamwezi

G. A German Imperial agent in East Africa.

H. Contributed to the rise of Nationalism in Zimbabwe.

I. The Founder of KANU

J. Mandika Empire

K. Used water ideology to organize people against German rule.

L. Linked African to Portuguese mercantile.

M. Resisted German rule in Namibia.

 

 

SECTION B: 35 Marks

 

3.  Answer the following questions briefly

  1. What is the advantages of use of written sources of history other than oral sources.
  2. What was the role of colonial companies in administration
  3. How did US contribute to the end of second world war
  4. What could have happened if Berlin conference was not convened?
  5. What were commodities exchanged during trans-saharan trade
  6. What is the contribution of Dr. Leakey in archeology studies?

 

4.         Arrange the following  historical statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 6 beside the item number in answer booklet provided.

  1. The immediate cause of discontent was the government cotton scheme
  2. In 1905, a prophet named Kinjekitile Ngwale living at Ngarambe declared war against Germans
  3. The immediate effect of the war was famine, destruction of villages, and disintegration of families
  4. Africans were defeated by the year 1907.
  5. Majimaji was the most serious resistance against german rule which broke out in 1905 in southern Tanganyika.
  6. Kinjekitile was captured and killed by the Germans.

3. (a) Draw sketch Map of East Africa and mark the following historical sites.

            (i) Olduvai Gorge

            (ii) Rusinga Island

            (iii) Kondoa Irangi

            (iv) Nsogezi.

            (v) Fort Jesus

    (b) State the Historical significance of the sites mentioned in (a) above.

SECTION C: 45 Marks

5. Compare and contrast British and French systems of administration as practiced in Africa during the colonial period.

 

 

7. With examples explain six reasons for African resistances to colonial rule

 

8. Account for the rise of state organization in pre-colonial Africa.

 

9. What factors led to the rise of trans-Saharan Trade?

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 10

THE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE MID TERM EXAMINATIONS- MARCH 2020

011 CIVICS

Duration: 2:30 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS.

  • This paper consists of sections A,B and C with a total of 14 questions.
  • Answer all the questions in sections A and B and three questions from section C
  • Write your name and class in the spaces provided above.
  • All writings must be in blue or black ink
  • Neat work will be rewarded.

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the items (i-x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the boxes provided.

(i)A school authority which discourages female students to opt for technical subjects is likely to be influenced by:

  1. Gender discrimination
  2. Gender stereotyping
  3. Gender analysis
  4. Gender
  5. Gender balance

 

(ii) The experiences of the past which are inherited by the society and are unchangeable are called:

  1. Traditions
  2. Norms
  3. Customs
  4. Ethics
  5. Moral values

(iii) The leader of government business in the parliament of the United Republic of Tanzania is the:

  1. Attorney General
  2. Speaker
  3. Prime Minister
  4. Chief Justice
  5. President of the United Republic

 

 

(iv) Which of the following is not a function of the commission for Human Rights and Good Governance in Tanzania?

  1. Promote the protection and conservation of human rights
  2. Receive allegations and complaints of violation of human rights 
  3. Visit prisons with the view of assessing conditions of prisoners 
  4. Institute legal proceeding to public officials accused of corruption
  5. Cooperate with agencies of the United Nation in the areas of human rights 

(v) The national motto of the United Republic of Tanzania inscribed on the coat of arms is:

  1. Freedom and unity
  2. Freedom and work
  3. Ujamaa and self-reliance
  4. People and development
  5. Education for self-reliance

 

(vi) A custom of having more than one wife is known as:

  1. Courtship
  2. Cohabitation
  3. Engagement
  4. Polygamy
  5. Extended family 

(vii) Which of the following organ is responsible for planning and coordinating village activities?

  1. Village Assembly
  2. Village committees
  3. Village council
  4. Ward development committee

 

(viii)The important feature of the constitutional monarchy is:

  1. The prime minister is the ceremonial head of the state
  2. The king or queen is the ceremonial head of the state
  3. Ministers are not members of the legislature
  4. The king or queen have executive powers
  5. There is no separation of powers of the three government organs 

(ix) Bus accidents in Tanzania are caused by both human and external factors. The external factors include:

  1. Excessive speed
  2. Overtaking errors
  3. Parking errors
  4. Reckless driving
  5. Poor road conditions 

(x) Which of the following is not a core function of commercial Banks in Tanzania?

  1. Receive deposit from people
  2. Advance loans to people
  3. Provides insurance services to clients
  4. Agents of money transfer
  5. Provides business advice to clients

2. Match the items in LIST A with the correct responses in LIST B by writing a letter of the corresponding response in the boxes provided below:

LIST A

LIST B

  1. The interim union of Zanzibar and Tanganyika constitution enacted
  2. The Zanzibar independence constitution enacted
  3. The Tanganyika Republican constitution enacted
  4. The Tanganyika independence constitution enacted
  5. The interim constitution of the United Republic of Tanzania was replaced by a permanent one
  1. 1964
  2. 1963
  3. 1962
  4. 1961
  5. 1977
  6. 1992
  7. 1966
  8. 1967
  9. 1971
  10. 1974
  11. 1979
  12. 1984
  13. 2000

 

LIST A

i

iii

iii

iv

v

LIST B

 

 

 

 

 

 

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Read the following passage very carefully and then answer the questions that follow

Gender refers to the differences in social roles and relations between males and females. Gender roles are learned through socialization and very widely within and between cultures. Gender discrimination refers to unequal treatment between males and females whereby one gender is given more priority in different opportunities.

Some of the customs which lead to gender discrimination our societies include food taboos. These are practices of restricting a certain group of people from eating certain types of food. For example, some Tanzanian societies do not allow pregnant women to eat eggs or fish.

Another custom that leads to gender discrimination in our societies is the discrimination of women and children in decision making. Women and children are discriminated even on issues that concern their lives, for example, marriage and property ownership. Young girls have been forced to be married while widows are forced to marry brothers of their deceased husbands.

 Questions

(a) Suggest a suitable title for the passage…………………………………………………………………………

(b) According to the passage, what is gender discrimination?................................................................

(c) How do people learn gender roles?.........................................................................................................

(d) From the passage, list down two customs that leads to gender discrimination……………

(e) How are food taboos carried out in our society?..................................................................................

4. Write short notes on the following;

  1. Democracy
  2. Constitution
  3. Special group
  4. Citizenship
  5. Family.

SECTION C. 60 Marks. 

Answer any three Questions from this section. Each question carries 20 Marks.

5a) When was the Union between Tanganyika and Zanzibar took place?

b) Mention two Union matters and two non Union matters.

 6. a) What do you understand by “Poverty”?

b) Describe four indicators of poverty in Tanzania.

7. a) What does it mean by “Local government?

b) Write down four sources of local government revenue.

8. a)Define family stability

b) Briefly explain four importance of family stabilit

9. a)Define the government 

b) Briefly explain three organs of the government

 10. a) What do you understand by economic development?

b) Outline four factors for economic development.

11. Tanzania is credited for promoting and broadening the scope of democracy. Give six points to show the validity of this statement

12. Despite the government efforts, the war against poverty in Tanzania is yet to be won. Analyse six root causes of poverty in Tanzania.

  13. Identify and explain six traditions and customs which influence the subordination and exploitation of women in Tanzania

14. The industrial sector plays a key role in the economy of any country. Give six points to illustrate the importance of small scale industries to people’s development in the rural areas in Tanzania.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 9

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND VOCATIONAL TRAINING

MID TERM EXAMIATIONS

031                                                                 PHYSICS- THREE

 

Duration: 2:30 Hours

 

INSTRUCTIONS.

 

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of TEN (10) questions.
  2. Answer all questions 
  3. All writing must be in blue or black ink except drawing which must be in pencil.
  4. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number at the top right corner of every page.
  6. Where necessary the following constant may be used; 
  1. Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10m/s2
  2. Density of water = 1g/cm3 or 1000kg/m3

 

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

 

 

1. For each of the items (i)­(x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)        The irregular motion of tiny particles suspended in a fluid is called; 

  1. Mobility   
  2. B. Kinetic motion    
  3. C. Random motion   
  4. D. Brownian motion 

 

(ii)       The colours which are added together to produce white light are called complementary colours, which of the following are complementary colours;

  1. Red and Cyan    
  2. B. Magenta and Blue    
  3.  C. Random and motion 
  4. D. Brownian motion 

 

(iii)      The property of the material to recover its original shape and size on removal of a stretching force is called;

  1. Elasticity    
  2. B. Plasticity    
  3. C. Hooke’s law     
  4. D. Cohesively 

(iv)      A vector has both magnitude and direction and the examples are;

  1. Work and displacement 
  2. displacement and speed 
  3. speed and momentum 
  4. acceleration and momentum 

(v)       The laws of vector addition are; 

  1. The triangle law only. 
  2. The triangle law and the polygon law only 
  3. The polygon law, triangle law and the parallelogram law. 
  4. The parallelogram law. 

 

(vi)      The forces of 4N and 3N act on a body due East and North respectively. The resultant force is; 

  1. 5N, 36°N.E    B. 5N, 45°NE     C. 5N, S.W     D. 5N, 45°N.E    

 

(vii)     The forces F1 = 5N, F2 = 13N and F3 are the equilibrium forces which act on a body as shown in the figure below; 

 





 


 

 

 

                                    F3                         F2

                                                            F1 

                The Magnitude of F3 is;

  1. 169N      B. 18N      C. 12N       D. 8N 

 

(viii)    The relative velocity of a body is the velocity of a body with respect to another; 

  1. body at rest. 
  2. moving body or at rest 
  3. body of smaller mass
  4. body of higher velocity 

 

(ix)              A floating body experiences an upthrust which is equal in magnitude to the; 

  1. Weight of the fluid displaced 
  2. Weight of the fluid which the body floats 
  3. Density of the fluid displaced 
  4. Weight of the body when filled with the displaced fluid 

 

(x)               A bus carrying a very big load on its carrier can easily overturn because; 

  1. It cannot run fast 
  2. Its equilibrium is state 
  3. Its centre of gravity is low 
  4. Its centre of gravity is high 

 

2. Match the times in List Awith responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

  1. Match the responses in list B with words/ phrases in list A by writing the letter of correct beside the item number; 

LIST A

LIST B

 

  1. Wheel barrow 
  2. Real image 
  3. Penumbra 
  4. Hygrometer 
  5. Boyles law 

 

  1. V & T 
  2. V & 1/P 
  3. Pin hole camera 
  4. Plane minor 
  5. 2nd class level 
  6. 3rd class level 
  7. Total shadow 
  8. Partial shadow 
  9. To measure pressure of in human body. 
  10. To Measure pressure of humidity and water vapour in the 
  11. Work unless fluid pressure 
  12. The angle between the magnet and geographic north. 
  13. The angle between the magnet and the horizontal. 

 

SECTION B. 60 MARKS

3.     (a) (i)What effect does an increase in temperature have on the density of most liquids? 

       (ii) Explain the procedure of using methylated spirit, water and a pendulum bob to   find the relative density of spirit.                                                                                                                                                             

  1. (i)State Archimedes’ Principle.                                                                                          

        (ii) Briefly explain why does a ship sink deeper in fresh water than in sea water?       

  1. When a piece of wood is put in a graduated cylinder containing water, the level of     the water rises from 17.7cm3to 18.5cm3. Calculate the
  2. Mass of a piece of wood.
  3. Total volume of a piece of wood given that its relative density is 0.60.                       

4. (a) Define the term friction. 

 

(b) State the advantages and disadvantages of friction. 

 

(c) State the laws of solid friction. 

(d) A box of mass 50kg resting on a wooden floor force. Calculate the frictional force if the coefficient of dynamic friction 

5. (a) Define pressure and state the SI unit. 

(b) A Hare’s apparatus was used in experiment using methanol water the length’s of the methanol and water columns were found to be 16cm and 12cm respectively. Find the relative density of methanol   if the length column of the ethanol was altered to 22cm. 

 

6. (a) State and describe two factors on which pressure exerted by the liquid depends. 

(b) Hydraulic press has a large circular piston of diameter 0.7M and circular piston to which the effort is applied is 0.2M. A force of 300N is exerted on a small piston. Find the force required to lift the  heavy load. 

7. (a) Whenever you want to remove a very tight nut from your bicycle you have to choose a longer  spanner, why is it so? 

(b) A rocket expels gas at the rate of 0.5kg/s. If the force produced by the rocket is 100 newtons, what  is the velocity with which the gas is expelled? 

8. A vehicle moves from rest with a uniform acceleration of 1.5m/s2 for the first 10s and continues accelerating at 0.5m/s2 for a further 20s. It continues at constant speed for 90s and finally takes 30s to decelerate uniformly to rest. 

  1. Draw a graph of speed against time for the journey. 
  2. From your graph, reduce the total distance travelled. 
  3. What is the average speed of the train for the whole journey? 

 

SECTION C. 25 MARKS

Answer all questions in this section

9. (a) Mention two conditions for an object to remain in equilibrium when subjected to a number of parallel forces

 

(b) A uniform bar 100cm long weighing 90g is suspended horizontally by two spring balances each holding the ends x and y. an 80g mass is hang 40cm from the end x. Calculate the reading of each spring balance in grams.

10. (a) Mention two factors affecting pressure in liquids

(b) Calculate pressure exerted by water at the bottom of a pond 76cm deep

(c) Mention any three applications of atmospheric pressure 

11. Define the following terms; 

  1. The principal focus of a lens and the focal length.

 

  1. State the relationship between the radius of curvature of lens and the focal length. 

 

  1. A small object is placed 20cm infront of a converging lens whose radius of curvature is 30cm. Find the image position and the magnification. 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 8

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND VOCATIONAL TRAINING

MID TERM EXAMIATIONS

024      MATHS- THREE

Duration: 2:30 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS.

  1. This paper consists of two sections A and B.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and only Four Questions in Section B
  3. All writing must be in blue or black ink except drawing which must be in pencil.
  4. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number at the top right corner of every page.
  6. Show clearly all working for each question 

SECTION A( 60 %)

  1. a) 468 – 468 ÷39 + 39 correct to two significant figures

b) Calculate without using mathematical tables

 

2. Make x subject of the formula

P=

3. By using the substitution t=3x, solve the equation 32(1+x) – 3x=3(x+3)-3

4. The size of exterior angle of a regular polygon is 450. Find :

i)  The number of sides

ii) The sum of all interior angles

5. Find the values of x that satisfy the following equation log(x+5) + log(x + 2)=log4

6. A translation T carries the point (1,2) to (-2,8). Find where it map :

a) Pont A(-2,2)

b)  The origin

7. The lines with equations 2x=3 – y and 2y + 3x=4 meet at point Q. Find the coordinate of point Q.

8. Find two consecutive odd numbers whose product is 195.

9. In a class of 31 students, 17 participate in English debate, 12 participate in English and Sports. If every student is required to participate at lest one of the two events. Find the number of students who participate in i) Sport  ii) English only.

10. A dealer bought 10 books for 400,000/=. He sold 2/5 of them at 40,000/= shillings each and the remaining at 60,000/= shillings each. What was the percentage profit?

SECTION B(40%)

11. The examination scores in Basic Mathematics of 40 students are given in the following cumulative frequency table.

Class Interval

10 - 19

20 - 29

30 - 39

40 - 49

50 - 59

60 - 69

Cumulative Frequency

3

6

12

22

35

40

a) Find the mean using Assumed mean A=44.5

b) Calculate median

c)  Draw histogram and use it to estimate Mode

12. a) Consider the figure below where PQ//BC.

                                                     

i)Prove that triangle ABC is similar with triangle APQ

ii) If the length of BC=15, PQ=9cm and PB= 6cm. Find the length of AP. 

b)Prove that, the sum of two angles of a triangle is equal to exterior angle of the third angle.

13. a) Find the expressions which describe the relation of the graph below

 

b)  Determine Domain and range of this relation.

c) Find inverse of this relation.

14 a) Given f(x) = -x2 + 4x – 5. Find 

i) Axis of symmetry

ii) Maximum or minimum value

iii) Turning point

b) Draw the graph of f(x) and use it to solve the equation  -x2 + 4x -15 =0

15.The function f is defined as follows:  

F(x) =                

   i) Sketch the graph of f(x)   

   ii) Determine domain and range 

   iii) Find

(a) f(1)   b) f(-4)   c) f(π)

16. Given: Opening Stock 01/01/2012        34,430/=

Closing Stock   31/12/2012                      26,720/=

Net purchases during 2012                       212,290/=

Expenses for the year                                45,880/=

Gross profit is 45% of cost of sold goods.

Find a) Average Stock  b) Cost of Sold Goods   c) The gross profit     d) Net Profit

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 7

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND VOCATIONAL TRAINING

MID TERM EXAMIATIONS

024 BOOK-KEEPING FORM THREE

Duration: 2:30 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS. 

  • This paper consists of two sections A and B.
  • Answer all questions in section A and only Four Questions in Section B

·  All writing must be in blue or black ink except drawing which must be in pencil.

·  Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

·  Write your Examination Number at the top right corner of every page.

·  Show clearly all working for each question 

  • This paper consists of section A, B and C.
  • Use pencil to draw all the account
  • Attempt all the question

SECTION A (10 MARKS)

MULTIPLE CHOICE 

Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given 

1) Depreciation is 

 a) The salvage value of fixed assets

 b) The amount spent to buy fixed assets

 c) The part of cost of the fixed assets consumed during its period of use by the firm

 d) The destroyed property

 

2) Which of the following is nominal account

 a) Bank a/c b) Furniture and fittings c) Motor vehicles a/c

 d) Motor vehicle running expenses 

 e) Bank overdraft

 

3) A firm bought a machine for shs. 50,000/= which had ascrap value of shs 5,000/= and 

 Useful life of 5 years. What would be the depreciation expenses if straight line method is used

 a) shs. 10,000/= b) shs. 11,000/= c) shs. 9,000/=

 d) shs. 5,000/= e) shs. 11,500/=

 

4. Which of the following is a liability 

 a) Premises b) We owe for goods d) Loan to Hamis

 d) Cash at Bank e) Depreciation

 

5. Gross profit is 

 a) excess of sales over sales returns c) Cost of sales plus net profit

 b) Sale less purchases d) Sales less cost of sales

 

6. Posting in book-keeping means

 a) Making the first entry of double entry transactions

 b) Entering items in a cash book

 c) Making entries in different books

 d) Making the second entry of double

 

7. When a customer returns goods previously sold to him, the shopkeeper will use a document 

 called 

 a) Invoice b) Credit note c) Pay-in-slip 

 d) Order note e) Debit note

 

8. Determine the amount of capital from the following: Premises shs. 20,000/= Loan to Shamir 

 Shs.17,000/= stock shs. 35,000/= Creditors shs. 5,000/= Loan from Kagose shs. 22,000/=

 a) shs. 50,500/= b) shs. 54,000 c) shs. 48,000

 d) shs. 45,500/= e) shs. 45,000/=

 

MATCHING ITEMS (10 MARKS)

9. Classify the following into nominal, real and personal account.

Name of account

Classification

- Computer

- Motor – van

- Advertising 

- Return inward

- Profit

- Rent received

- Television

- Salaries

- Building

- Land 

- Transport

- Rosemary 

 

 

SECTION B (20 MARKS) 

10. Write short notes on the following 

a) Double entry

b) Return inwards

c) Carriage inwards

d) Working capital 

e) Journal 

f) Contra entry

g) Imprest system.

 

11. Given the following transactions below

 1990 January 1. Started business with capital shs. 5,000/=

 1990 January 3. Bought goods for cash 1,500/=

 1990 January 5. Paid wages in cash shs. 50/=

 1990 January 7. Sold goods for cash shs. 3,000/=

 1990 January 8. Bought calculator by cash shs. 420/=

 1990 January 10. Paid transport by cash shs. 430/=

 

 Required: Enter the above transaction in 

  1. Cash account
  2. Ledger
  3. trial balance

 

SECTION C: (60 MARKS)

12. Enter the following transaction in the necessary ledgers
1st January 1951 – sold goods to Matatizo Tele on credit shs. 7,400/=

 31st January 1951, Matatizo Tele paid his account by shs. 5,800/=

13. Given the following bank statement of Bahatisha Co. Ltd

Date

particulars

folio

DR

CR

Balance

1998

1-March

8-March

16-March

20-March

21-March

31-March

31-March

31-March

 

Balance

M. Tabu

Cheque

J. Bahari

Cheque

Traders credit

Standing order

Bank charges

 

b/f

 

 

1,220

 

2,080

 

 

490

280

 

 

 

2,440

 

3,330

570

 

51,97DR

53,190DR

50,750DR

52,830 DR

49,500DR

48,930DR

49,420DR

49,700DR

 

The following extracted of a cash book is also available.  

CASH BOOK (BANK COLUMN) 

Date

Particulars

Folio

Amount

Date

Particulars

Folio

Amount

1998

3-March

21-March

31-March

31-March

 

Mdendesi F

Kulwa, A

Hamis, s

Balance

 

 

 

 

c/d 

 

2,440

3,330

1,600

52,800

60,170

1998

1-March

6-March

30-March

30-March

 

Balance

M. Tabu

J. Bakari

J. Shoo

 

b/f

 

51,970

1,220

2,080

4,900_

60,170

 

Required: Prepare the bank reconciliation statement as at 31st March 1998, starting with the 

 Balance as per cash book. (Do not adjust the cash book)

END

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 6

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATIONS- MARCH 2020

033/1 GEOGRAPHY FORM THREE

Time: 3Hours 

 

Instructions:

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of TEN (10) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C 
  3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

 

SECTION A: 25 marks

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items i-x choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter behind the item number. 

 (i) Autumn, winter, spring and summer are the result of:-

 (a) Monsoon

 (b) Lunar eclipse

 (c) Rotation

 (d) Revolution

 (e) Tides

 (ii) Which of the following is not a factor influencing temperature of a place?

 (a) Aspect

 (b) Ocean current

 (c) Altitude

 (d) Eclipse

 (e) Length of a day

 (iii) Which among the following features is the impact of water action in the desert?

 (a) Yardang

 (b) Gullies

 (c) Bad lands

 (d) Sinkholes

 (e) Rock pedestals

 (iv) What is the direction of 22?

 (a) SES 

 (b) NEN

 (c) NWN

 (d) SWS

 (e) None of the above 

 (v) Which of the following is formed due to depositional features of the river?

 (a) Water fall

 (b) Delta

 (c) Hanging Valley

 (d) Tombolo

 (e) Cirque

(vi) The maximum and minimum temperature are obtained from an instrument called?

 (a) A barometer

 (b) A Six’s thermometer

 (c) An anemometer

 (d) Kilometer

 (vii) The solar system is made up of:-

 (a) Sun, planets and interplanetary gases

 (b) Atmosphere and hydrosphere

 (c) Planets, clouds and gases

 (d) Hydrosphere, atmosphere and clouds

 (viii) A delta which is formed in a lake is called ………delta

 (a) Moraine

 (b) Laustrine

 (c) Alluvial

 (d) Acute

 (e) Cuspate

 (ix) What is the compass bearing of WNW?

 (a) 27

 (b) 33

 (c) 31

 (d) 32

 (e) 292.

 (x) Destruction, wastage and removal of parts of the earth’s surface;

 (a) Denudation

 (b) Frost action

 (c) Exfoliation

 (d) Deposition

 

2. Match the items in LIST “A” with the responses in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response below the corresponding item number in the table provided.

List A

List B

  1. Moons of the planet
  2. Pieces of hard matter falling from outer space.
  3. Natural satellite of the earth.
  4. Center of the solar system
  5. Heavenly body that posses and transmit its own light.
  1. Star
  2. Mars
  3. Satellite
  4. Meteors
  5. Sun
  6. Comets
  7. moon

 

3. (a) What is meant by Moraine erosion?

 (b) Describe four (4) processes which are involved in Moraine erosion.

4. Study the data in the following table and answer the questions that follow.

Environmental Workers In Ten Streets Of Arusha City.

STEET

A

B

C

D

E

F

G

H

I

J

NUMBER OF WORKERS

12

06

20

03

12

02

12

03

18

09

 

 (a) Find the range of workers in this city.

 (b) Calculate the (i) Mean (ii) Median (iii) Mode of these workers.

 (c) Calculate variance and standard deviation of the workers.

5. (a) Describe the following terms;

  1. distributaries
  2. lagoon
  3. levee

 (b) Delta is formed under different conditions. Outline three conditions necessary for its formation.

6. Study carefully photograph provided then answer the questions that follows.

 (a) Suggest the title of photograph

 (b) (i) Name the type of forest seen in the photograph

 (ii) Give two characteristics of the forest named in (i)

 (c) Outline three ways of interpreting the photograph given

 (d) (i) Identify the product in the middle ground of the photograph

 (ii) Give two uses of the product in the middle ground of the photograph.

 

SECTION C:

Answer only one question in this part.

7. Explain seven ways of improving tourism Industry in Tanzania.

8. Elaborate the problems hindering development of agriculture sector in Tanzania.

9. Analyze five ways of promoting textile industry in Tanzania.

10. Explain the significance of Natural gas production in Tanzani

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 5

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATIONS- MARCH 2020

022 ENGLISH LANGUAGE FORM THREE

Time: 3Hours 

Instructions:

 

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of twelve (12) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

 

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

 

 (i) Kifimbo drives his car carefully. When does he drive his car?

  1. He does this every day
  2. He is doing now
  3. He did it days ago
  4. He will do it in days to come
  5. He has just finished doing it.

(ii) Which sentence among the following is grammatically correct?

  1. They drawn a picture
  2. They have drawing a picture
  3. They draw pictures
  4. They have been drawn a picture
  5. They are draw a picture.

(iii) Sarah and her family ____________ most of the people in their town, don’t they?

  1. Knows
  2. Have known
  3. Are knowing
  4. Knew
  5. Want 

(iv) All what Safina __________ to do now is to get back to school.

  1. Is wanting
  2. Wanted
  3. Has wanted
  4. Wants 
  5. Want

(v) The Sun __________ in the East, doesn’t it?

  1. Rise 
  2. Is rising
  3. Rose
  4. Rises
  5. Has risen

(vi) Does money ___________ more money?

  1. Attract 
  2. Attracts 
  3. Attracting 
  4. Attracted 
  5. Has attracted

(vii) Juliana _________________ the school compound every day.

  1. Clean
  2. Is cleaning
  3. Cleaned 
  4. Has cleaned 
  5. Cleans

(viii) They matched home despite the fact that it was raining. What justifies that the given sentence is in the past form?

  1. The use of “raining” after the word was.
  2. The use of –ing in the word raining
  3. The use of the root “match” in matched
  4. The use of the phrase despite the fact that.
  5. The use of particle – ed in the word matched.

(ix) “My heart is beating fast.” What does the underlined part of the word indicate in this sentence?

  1. The past continuous tense
  2. Daily routine
  3. Future activity
  4. The simple present tense
  5. Ongoing activity.

(x) “There is a man sitting outside. The man has been waiting for you since morning.”

Why is article “the” used with the word “man” in the second sentence?

  1. The word man is a unique thing
  2. The man is a particular person
  3. The man is mentioned for the second time
  4. It is used to differentiate it from the first one
  5. Because the word man is not the same one.

 

2. Match the clauses in Column A with the phrases in Column B to make meaningful sentences by writing the correct letter in B against the corresponding item number in A.

 

COLUMN A:

COLUMN B:

i. Hard working people are not ready to waste time

ii. The factory workers are on strike.

iii. Most schools will close down

iv. Teachers won’t do that

v. As a teacher I am not supposed to misbehave

vi. I always meet you here

A. Aren’t they?

B. Am I?

C. Will they?

D. Don’t I

E. Don’t they?

F. Are they?

G. Won’t they?

H. Do I?

I. Aren’t

 

COLUMN A:

I

II

III

IV

V

VI

COLUMN B:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

4. Write in which tense does each expression belongs.

 (i) The fault in the machine was located by the engines.

 (ii) His enemies have killed him

 (iii) Liquids keep their level

 (v) Down went the vessel into the sea.

5. Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct answer from the alternative given.

 (i) My sister is the__________ girl in our village.

 a) Beauty b) Most beautiful c) More beautifully

 (ii) It is the _________ Mountain in Africa

 a) Bigger b) Biggest c) Big

 (iii) She is the __________ student in form II class.

 a) Good b) Better c) Best

 (iv) Juma is ____________ than Hamisi.

 a) More handsome b) Most handsome c) Handsome 

6. Identify the words in the box and write them along the sentence.

 i) A place where students are taught______________

 ii) Someone who cuts and collect crops in the field____________

 iv) When the crops in the field are cut and collected __________

 v) A talk or conversation about something___________

Words: 

Scar, suffer, Harvest, sickle, beggar, discussion, school, reaper, plantation.

7. Consider that you have witnessed a serious accident on your way to school. Use the following words to construct a sentence for each to describe the accident.

  1. Bad
  2. Injured
  3. Terrible
  4. Horrible

 

8. Read the passage below carefully and answer the questions that follow.

 The English say “necessity is the mother of inventions. This is because all the Major discoveries and inventions are caused by the need to solve certain problem. Whether invented the spoon may fallen sick several times because of eating with dirty hands. Similarly airplanes were inverted because people want to travel faster. In other words when there is a problem people begin to think of a solution.

 Now we know that sea water is very salty. If you live on an island which surrounded by salty sea water would you allow yourself to go thirsty? It was probably from someone who lived near the sea water would you allow yourself to go thirsty? It was probably from someone who lived near the sea and went thirst many years and days that the idea of distillation came. We can get fresh water for drinking from salty water through distillation.

 First put five liters of water in to a metal container and mix it with about one kilo of salt and stir the water until the salt is completely dissolved.

 Secondly, pour the solution into a metal container that has a tight lid. The lid should have a hole where a narrow pipe should be fixed. Let the middle length of this pipe be put in a basin of cold water. The other end of this pipe should be directed to a clean, empty container.

 Thirdly, put a source of heat for example a gas cooker flame, under the metal container the water and salt, now observe what happens. This experiment should strictly be done as instructed.

 When the salt and water is heated, vapor are cream is formed. This vapor passes through the pipe and is cooled by the cold water in the basin. When this happens we say condensation has taken place and vapor which is gas became liquid. This liquid is lastly collected in a container.

 As the salt and water solution continues being heated all that will remain is salt. Fresh drinking water on the other hand will be collected at the other hand. The salt and the water will once again be separated. When people who live near sea run short of drinking water they can resort to this simple distillation and quench their thirst.

QUESTIONS:

(a) What is the best title for the passage?

(b) Why makes people to invent things?

(c ) According to the passage, how can we get fresh water from salty water?

(d ) Why was the spoon invented?

(e) What do we call the process of removing salt from water?

 

SECTION C (45 Marks)

 

Answer three (3) questions from this section

 

9. Imagine that you’re the first candidate who performed well this English Examination. The head of school has awarded you 50,000/= shillings. In about 250 words, explain how you feel and how you will spend the money.

LIST OF READINGS OR QUESTIONS 10 -2

 

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES

 

A Wreath for Fr. Mayer - S. N. Ndunguru (1977), Mkuki na Nyota

Unanswered Cries - Osman Conteh, Macmillan

Passed Like a Shadow  - B. M. Mapalala (2006), DUP

Spared  - S. N. Ndunguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota

Weep Not Child - Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1987); Heinemann

The Interview  - P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan

 

 

PLAYS

 

Three Suitors: One Husband  - O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen

The Lion and the Jewel - W. Soyinka (1963), OUP

This Time Tomorrow - Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1972), Heinemann

The Black Hermit - Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1968), Heinemann

 

 

POETRY

 

Songs of Lawino and Ocol - O. P’Bitek (1979), EAPH

Growing up with Poetry - D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989), Heinemann

Summons - R. Mabala (1960), TPH

 

 

10. Read the following poem and then answer the questions that follow:

 Thin and red

 Skinny and bald

 The boy groans on the ground

 Swollen stomach

 Full of waste

 Thin legs

 Twitch

 As the boy

 Fights with flies

 Over the empty plate.

 

 Ten years old

 He looks older than ten

 And younger than 

 And so small

 As he wriggles

 Prisoner

 Of his unproportioned body

 “ Mother” shouted the boy

 When I grow up

 I will carry a gun

 And not a pen

 “My son” shouted the mother

 You will never live to carry a gun

 There is no meat for us.

 

 Questions:

 (a) What is the poem about?

 (b) Who is the persona?

 (c) What is the mood of the persona?

 (d) How many stanzas are in the poem?

 (e) How many verses does the poem have?

 (f) What are the possible two themes in this poem?

 (g) Briefly explain the relevance of the two themes mentioned in (f) above to your society.

 (h) What does the word “gun” symbolize?

 (i) What do we learn from this poem?

 (j) What type of poem is this?

 

12. By using two Novels that you have read, discuss the themes (four (4) themes) from each book and show their relevance to your society.

13. For changes to take place, conflict is inevitable, Discuss using two plays under this section.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 4

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATION-MARCH 2020

CHEMISTRY FORM THREE

NAME………………………………….………………..CLASS…………………………….……………TIME: 3HRS

INSTRUCTIONS:-

1.This paper consists of sections A,B and C

2.Answer all questions in all sections

3.Whenever necessary, the following constructs may be used.

  • Atomic masses : O= 16, Na= 23, S=32,H=1, K=39, Al= 27,
  • GMV  at STP = 22.4dm3
  • Avogadro’s constant = 6.02 x 1023
  • 1litre = 1dm3= 1000cm3.

 

SECTION A (15  marks)

  1. Write the  letter of the correct answer in the answer sheet (s) provided for each of the following questions (i)  to (x).
  2. All domestic utensils made of iron undergo rusting when exposed to:-
  3. Air and fire
  4. Air and oil
  5. Air and water
  6. Water and oil
  7. When a small amount of common salt is dissolved in a glass of water the mixture formed is:-
  8. Heterogeneous
  9. Homogenous
  10. Immiscible
  11. Suspension 
  12. A chemist should acquire all of the following skills EXCEPT:-
  13. Experimentation
  14. Observation
  15. Problem identification 
  16. Surgery 
  17. An important property of oxygen which distinguishes it from other gases is that it:-
  18. Burns and supports combustion
  19. Burns but does not support combustion 
  20. Neither burns nor support combustion
  21. Support combustion but does not  burn
  22. The process of chlorination in water treatment aims at:-
  23. Forming suspension
  24. Killing micro- organisms
  25. Making syrup
  26. Removing bad odour

 

 

  1. One of the following is not correct about coke being a better fuel than coal as it:-
  2. Does not produce carbon dioxide gas
  3. Does not produce poisonous gas
  4. Has a higher heat content
  5. Is clean and smokeless
  6. Class E fire can best be extinguished by using:-
  7. Carbon dioxide
  8. Fire blanket
  9. Sand
  10. Water
  11. The following is a set of apparati which are used for heating:-
  12. Crucible, test tube, evaporating dish
  13. Evaporating dish, tongs, crucible
  14. Test tube, evaporating dish, tongs
  15. Tongs, crucible, test tube.
  16. Which of the following methods can be used to get oil from cotton seeds?
  17. Decantation
  18. Distillation
  19. Grinding and distillation
  20. Grinding followed by squeezing 
  21. Which of the following apparati is suitable for measuring volumes of smaller quantities of liquids?
  22. Beaker
  23. Burette
  24. Conical flask
  25. Measuring cylinder
  26. Match each item in list A with response in list B by writing its correct letter to the number of corresponding item in the answer sheet(s) provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Chemical equation
  2. Contain H+ as the only positive ions
  3. Freezes at 00C and boils at 1000c
  4. Deliquescent
  5. X2+ + 2 e-           X
  1. Oxidation reaction
  2. Summary of many words in chemistry
  3. Reduction reaction
  4. Representation of reactants and products in a chemical reaction
  5. It turns lime water milky
  6. Acid
  7. Base
  8. Turns brown on exposure to air
  9. Water
  10. Compound which absorb water vapour from the atmosphere and form solution.

 

SECTION B (70 marks)

  1. (a) Define the term “neutralization reaction” (give one example)

(b) Write down the names and formulae of three common acids in the laboratory.

(c ) What is an indicator? Give four (4) examples of acid- base indicators.

(d) Write down the products formed when each of following pairs of compounds react:

(i)        Acid and metal

(ii)       Acid and metal carbonate

  1. (a) Complete and balance the molecular equations for the following reactions:-

 (b) Write a balanced chemical equation and its corresponding ionic equation for the reaction between dilute sulphuric acid and:-

  1. Sodium  hydroxide solution.
  2. Zinc granules.

N.B.  show all the state symbols.

             

  1. (a) Define the terms  (i) Mole   (ii) Molar mass

(b) Calculate the molar mass of  (i) Al(SO4)3   (ii) Na2 CO3 10H2O

( c) State the Avogadro’s law

(d) How many oxygen molecules are there in 20cm3 of oxygen gas at STP?

  1. (a) (i) Name any four heat sources in the chemistry laboratory

     (ii) Name two types of flames produced by the Bunsen burner

    (iii)How do the two above mentioned flames differ?

(b) Write down four (4) careers that are a result of studying chemistry.

  1. The diagram below represents the laboratory preparation of oxygen, study the diagram and then answer the questions  which follow:-

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. (i) Label the parts indicated with letters A, B, C, D in the diagram

              (ii)     Does Oxygen burn? Why?

  1. The formula of manganese (iv) oxide is MnO2  and that of hydrogen peroxide is H2O2. Which compound produces oxygen?
  2. (i) What is the name of the method of collection the gas?

(ii) Explain the meaning of catalyst.

             (iii)How can you test for oxygen?

  1. Study the following part of the periodic table and then answer the questions that follows.

Note: The letters used are not the scientific symbols for the elements concerned.

 

  I                                                                                                                                  O

 

II

III

IV

V

VI

VII

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

N

 

 

K

 

 

 

Q

 

P

L

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Identify and write down the electronic configuration for the elements K,N,P and L
  2. What type of bond will exist in a compound formed when Q combines with L? write the chemical formula for the compound formed and list two chemical properties of the compound formed.

 

9.  (a) Write the chemical symbols for beryllium, boron, neon, nitrogen and phosphorus.

      (b) Why some of the elements in 9(a) are assigned symbols with only one letter while others bear symbols with two letters?

10. (a) Give three advantages of using chemical equations over word equations.

(b) You are provided with a compound composed of 22.2% zinc, 11.6% sulphur, 22.3% oxygen, and the rest percentage is water of crystallization. Calculate the molecular formula of the compound if its molecular mass is 283

11. (a) Which ways are the fossil fuels detrimental to the environment? Give four points.

 

     (b) Briefly explain how biogas is produced by using domestic waste.

 

12. (a) Write the IUPAC names of the following compounds 

  1. NaClO3 
  2. K1O3 
  3. NaH
  4. Ca(NO3
  5. NO

 

(b) Write the chemical formula of the following compounds 

(i) Lead (II) chloride 

(ii) Aluminium hydride 

(iii) Sodium hydrogen phosphate (v) 

(iv) Sulphur oxide (VI)

(v) Ammonium chloride

 

SECTION C (15 Marks)

 

Answer one (1) question from this section.

13. (a) Differentiate between basic salt and acidic salt.                                                

 (b) Categorize the following salts; 

       i.  PbSO4    ii.  MgHSO4     iii. Zn(OH)Cl   iv. MgHCO3  

         v. NH4HSO4     vi. Ba(NO3)2 

Salts 

Category 

 

 

 

(c) 1.16g of magnesium was allowed to react with excess dilute sulphuric acid. What 

      volume of Hydrogen gas at STP was liberated.                                            

14. (a) Define the following;

  1. Molarity 
  2. Standard solution 
  3. Equivalent point of titration 
  4. End point                                                                                                                 

 (b) On titration 20cm3 of a solution containing 2.65g per 500cm3 of A2CO3, exactly 

react with 20cm3 of 0.1M hydrochloric acid solution. Write balanced equation; 

  1. Molarity of A2CO                                                                                                  
  2. Molar mass of A2CO3                                                                                                                                                                    
  3. Atomic mass of A                                                                                                    
  4. Identify element A                                                                                                  

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 3

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATIONS- MARCH 2020

 

033/1                                                               BIOLOGY FORM THREE

 

Time: 3Hours                                                                                   

 

Instructions:

 

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fifteen (15) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) question2 from section C of which question 13 is compulsory.
  3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

 

 

 

SECTION A 15 MARKS

  1. Answer all questions this section writes your answers in the boxes provided.
  1. A blood vessel that start from the ileum to the liver.
  1. Mesenteric vein
  2. Mesenteric artery
  3. Hepatic artery
  4. Hepatic portal vein
  5. Hepatic vein.
  1. Stores waste products after they have been recycled:-
  1. Cartilage
  2. Tendons
  3. Bones
  4. Seeds
  5. muscles
  1.  Kills bacterial (bad) in the stomach
  1. Sulphurous acid
  2. Sulphuric acid
  3. Nitric acid
  4. Nitric acid
  5. Hydrochloric acid
  1. Sensitive to strong light intensity
  1. Cones
  2. Rods
  3. Optic nerve
  4. Blind spot
  5. Sclerotic layer
  1. There is a lot of absorption of water but merely no digestion of food.
  1. Ileum
  2. Colon
  3. Duodenum
  4. Stomach
  5. Rectum 
  1. A semi – permeable membrane during osmosis allows the passage of:-
  1. Only very small solute molecule
  2. Little residue molecules 
  3. Water molecules
  4. Solute molecules
  5. Much solute molecules.
  1. The largest artery in the body of man is known as:-
  1. Renal artery
  2. Renal vein
  3. Vena cava
  4. Aorta
  5. Pulmonary artery.
  1. A set of micronutrients in plants.
  1. Nitrogen, zinc and Iodine
  2. Carbon, zinc and copper
  3. Oxygen, carbon and zinc
  4. Magnesium, carbon and zinc
  5. Zinc, copper and iodine.
  1. A set of smallest bones in the mammalian body:-
  1. Vertebrae, carpals and digits
  2. Hammer, anvil and stirrup
  3. Vertebrae, tarsus and digits
  4. Metacarpals, tarsus and vertebrae
  5. Tarsus, carpals and metatarsals.
  1. Breathing pores in the stem:-
  1. Parenchyma
  2. Alveoli
  3. Lenticels
  4. Stomata
  5. Micropyle.

i

ii

iii

iv

v

vi

vii

viii

ix

x

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Question two is a matching type question. Questions are in column A answers are in column B. select the best answer and writes its item letter in the boxes below.

COLUMN A

COLUMN B

  1. Raw material for the photosynthesis process
  2. Symbiotic nitrogen fixers
  3. Second trophic level
  4. Causes tetanus
  5. Never fatigue

 

  1. Rabbit
  2. Grass
  3. Triceps
  4. Cardiac
  5. Clostridium
  6. Azotobacter
  7. Rhizobium
  8. Biceps
  9. Striated muscle
  10. Carbon dioxide 
  11. Simple sugar

 

 

i

ii

iii

iv

v

 

 

 

 

 

 

SECTION B (60 Marks)

 

3. In the Biology laboratory there are different apparatuses and equipment used for conducting experiments. Draw the apparatus used for;

  1. Putting specimens for close observation
  2. Grinding or crushing substances in the laboratory
  3. Adding liquids during an experiment drop by drop
  4. Scooping powder or crystalline substance.

4. (a) What is a dental formula?

    (b) Mention the name of the hardest part of a mammalian tooth and indicate clearly its function.

5. (a) Distinguish between artery and vein in terms of physical appearance.

    (b) Give a concrete reasons of your answer in Q5 (a) above as to why each is of that nature.

6. (a) Differentiate between good manners and personal Hygiene .

    (b) In each case, in Q 3(a) above supply two examples.

7. Write short notes to the following technical phrases.

  1. Sexually transmitted diseases 
  2. Sexually transmitted infections.
  3. Differences between infections and diseases
  4. Symbiotic Nitrogen fixers
  5. Specific examples of symbiotic Nitrogen fixers

8. (a) Tell the adaptation of the Skelton (4 of them)

  1. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
  2. __________________________________________________________________

__________________________________________________________________

  1. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
  2. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

 (b)Draw and label correctly the hind limb of a mammal

9. (a) What is 

  1. Respiration
  2. Oxygen dept

b) Write balanced symbol equation for;

i) Aerobic respiration

ii) Anaerobic respiration in yeast and plant tissue

  1. Anaerobic respiration in muscle cells.

10.  How does monocotyledon differ from dicotyledonous plants?

11.  Ringing in plants involves removal of the bark of tree. This hinders communication between upper and lower parts of plant. In three points, briefly elaborate the impact of ringing on the stem of hibiscus plant.

 

12.  (a) Give two differences between cell membrane and cell wall.

      (b) Why is cell differentiation important to living organisms? Give a reason.

 

SECTION C 25 Marks

Answer only one question from this section.

13. Write down and essay entitled “reproduction in flowering plants” – using the following guidelines:-

  • Definition of pollination
  • Four agents of pollination
  • Changes that take place inside a flower after effective pollination till when a viable seed or fruit is formed.

 

14. Majority of people believe that all fungi are harmful organisms. As a biologist, explain four ways in which fungi are beneficial to human being.

 

15. Write down an Essay on “Excretion in Plants” using the following guidelines:-

  • Why excretory products in plants are recycled inside the particular plant.
  • Products formed after recycling 
  • The role of leaves during excretion
  • How seed and fruits become excretory organs besides reproduction.

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 2

LEARNING HUB TANZANIA

CIVICS -  EXAMINATION

FORM THREE

TIME: 7:00HRS                                                                                                       2019.

NAME ________________________________________                   CLASS:______________

 

INSTRUCTIONS.

-          This paper consists of sections A,B and C with a total of 14 questions.

-          Answer all the questions in sections A and B and three questions from section C

-          Write your name and class in the spaces provided above.

-          All writings must be in blue or black ink

-          Neat work will be rewarded.

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the items (i-x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the boxes provided.

i)                   A school authority which discourages female students to opt for technical subjects is likely to be influenced by:

  1. Gender discrimination
  2. Gender stereotyping
  3. Gender analysis
  4. Gender
  5. Gender balance

 

ii)                 The experiences of the past which are inherited by the society and are unchangeable are called:

  1. Traditions
  2. Norms
  3. Customs
  4. Ethics
  5. Moral values

 

iii)               The leader of government business in the parliament of the United Republic of Tanzania is the:

  1. Attorney General
  2. Speaker
  3. Prime Minister
  4. Chief Justice
  5. President of the United Republic

 

 

iv)               Which of the following is not a function of the commission for Human Rights and Good Governance in Tanzania?

  1. Promote the protection and conservation of human rights
  2. Receive allegations and complaints of violation of human rights
  3. Visit prisons with the view of assessing conditions of prisoners
  4. Institute legal proceeding to public officials accused of corruption
  5. Cooperate with agencies of the United Nation in the areas of human rights

 

v)                 The national motto of the United Republic of Tanzania inscribed on the coat of arms is:

  1. Freedom and unity
  2. Freedom and work
  3. Ujamaa and self-reliance
  4. People and development
  5. Education for self-reliance

 

vi)               A custom of having more than one wife is known as:

  1. Courtship
  2. Cohabitation
  3. Engagement
  4. Polygamy
  5. Extended family

 

vii)             Which of the following organ is responsible for planning and coordinating village activities?

  1. Village Assembly
  2. Village committees
  3. Village council
  4. Ward development committee

 

viii)           The important feature of the constitutional monarchy is:

  1. The prime minister is the ceremonial head of the state
  2. The king or queen is the ceremonial head of the state
  3. Ministers are not members of the legislature
  4. The king or queen have executive powers
  5. There is no separation of powers of the three government organs

 

ix)               Bus accidents in Tanzania are caused by both human and external factors. The external factors include:

  1. Excessive speed
  2. Overtaking errors
  3. Parking errors
  4. Reckless driving
  5. Poor road conditions

 

x)                  Which of the following is not a core function of commercial Banks in Tanzania?

  1. Receive deposit from people
  2. Advance loans to people
  3. Provides insurance services to clients
  4. Agents of money transfer
  5. Provides business advice to clients
  1. Match the items in LIST A with the correct responses in LIST B by writing a letter of the corresponding response in the boxes provided below:

LIST A

LIST B

i)                   The interim union of Zanzibar and Tanganyika constitution enacted

ii)                 The Zanzibar independence constitution enacted

iii)               The Tanganyika Republican constitution enacted

iv)               The Tanganyika independence constitution enacted

v)                 The interim constitution of the United Republic of Tanzania was replaced by a permanent one

  1. 1964
  2. 1963
  3. 1962
  4. 1961
  5. 1977
  6. 1992
  7. 1966
  8. 1967
  9. 1971
  10. 1974
  11. 1979
  12. 1984
  13. 2000

 

 

LIST A

i

iii

iii

iv

v

LIST B

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. a) When was the Union between Tanganyika and Zanzibar took place?

b) Mention two Union matters and two non Union matters.

 

  1. a) What do you understand by “Poverty”?

b) Describe four indicators of poverty in Tanzania.

 

  1. a)Define democracy according to it’s etymology

b) Show four principles of democracy

 

  1. a) What does it mean by “Local government?

b) Write down four sources of local government revenue.

 

  1. a) What is improper behavior?

b) Outline the consequences of improper behavior among the youth in Tanzania by giving four points.

 

  1. a)Define family stability

b) Briefly explain four importance of family stability

 

  1. a)Define the government

b) Briefly explain three organs of the government

 

  1. a) What do you understand by economic development?

b) Outline four factors for economic development.

 

SECTION C (45 MARKS)

Answer three (3) questions from this section

  1. Tanzania is credited for promoting and broadening the scope of democracy. Give six points to show the validity of this statement.

 

  1. Despite the government efforts, the war against poverty in Tanzania is yet to be won. Analyse six root causes of poverty in Tanzania.

 

 

  1. Identify and explain six traditions and customs which influence the subordination and exploitation of women in Tanzania.

 

  1. The industrial sector plays a key role in the economy of any country. Give six points to illustrate the importance of small scale industries to people’s development in the rural areas in Tanzania.

 

 

 

1

 

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